Course Introduction
Physical Therapy Study Guide Questions
Physical Therapy is a comprehensive course that explores the principles and practices of rehabilitative healthcare, focusing on restoring and improving physical function and mobility in individuals affected by injury, illness, or disability. Students will learn about human anatomy, biomechanics, therapeutic exercises, manual therapy techniques, and the use of physical agents such as heat, cold, and electrical stimulation. The course emphasizes patient assessment, treatment planning, and evidence-based interventions aimed at enhancing quality of life and promoting independence. Through lectures, practical sessions, and case studies, students gain the foundational knowledge and skills necessary for clinical practice and ongoing professional development in the field of physical therapy.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 7th Edition by McCance
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49 Chapters
1881 Verified Questions
1881 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements are true concerning the process of facilitated diffusion? (Select all that apply).
A) Facilitated diffusion is also referred to as passive mediated transport.
B) This process expends no metabolic energy.
C) Moving solute molecules through cellular membranes are involved in this process.
D) Movement up a concentration gradient is necessary.
E) Facilitated diffusion is the primary means for water transport.
Answer: A,B,C
Q2) How do cells receive communication from the extracellular fluid surrounding them?
A) Protein channel (gap junction)
B) Plasma membrane-bound signaling molecules (involving receptors)
C) Hormone secretion such as neurotransmitters
D) Chemical messengers such as ligands
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemosiderosis is a condition that results in the excess of what substance being stored as hemosiderin in cells of many organs and tissues?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Ferritin
C) Iron
D) Transferrin
Answer: C
Q2) Lead poisoning affects the nervous system by:
A) Interfering with the function of neurotransmitters
B) Inhibiting the production of myelin around nerves
C) Increasing the resting membrane potential
D) Altering the transport of potassium into the nerves
Answer: A
Q3) Blunt force injuries would include a: (Select all that apply.)
A) Bruise to the upper arm, resulting from a fall
B) Simple tibia fracture sustained in a skiing accident
C) Cut on the finger while slicing vegetables for a salad
D) Spleen laceration caused by a punch during a physical fight
E) Small caliber gunshot wound to the foot while target shooting
Answer: A,B,D
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes,
Acids and Bases
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The existence of hyperkalemia is likely to result in which changes to a person's electrocardiogram (ECG)?
A) Flattened U waves
B) Peaked T waves
C) Depressed ST segments
D) Peaked P waves
Answer: B
Q2) Secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)and the perception of thirst are stimulated by a(n):
A) Decrease in serum sodium
B) Increase in plasma osmolality
C) Increase in glomerular filtration rate
D) Decrease in osmoreceptor stimulation
Answer: B
Q3) It is true that natriuretic peptides:
A) Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.
B) Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.
C) Increase heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.
D) Decrease heart rate and increase potassium excretion.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the blood type of a person who is heterozygous,having A and B alleles as codominant?
A) A
B) B
C) O
D) AB
Q2) The advantage derived from human genome sequencing on genetic disorders focuses on: (Select all that apply.)
A) Identification of the mutated gene
B) Reversal of the mutation
C) Diagnosis of the existing disorder
D) Appropriate treatment
E) Prevention of the disorder
Q3) What is the most common cause of Down syndrome?
A) Paternal nondisjunction
B) Maternal translocations
C) Maternal nondisjunction
D) Paternal translocation
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of multifactorial diseases associated with adults include: (Select all that apply.)
A) Breast cancer
B) Coronary heart disease
C) Emphysema
D) Diabetes mellitus
E) Schizophrenia
Q2) Cancers that cluster strongly in families include: (Select all that apply.)
A) Breast
B) Colon
C) Ovarian
D) Lung
E) Brain
Q3) Lifestyle modifications that affect health-related risk factors include: (Select all that apply.)
A) Diet
B) Exercise
C) Education
D) Finances
E) Stress reduction
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Chapter 6: Epigenetics and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diagnosis of Angelman syndrome in a child is supported by which assessment findings? (Select all that apply.)
A) Small feet and hands
B) Profound cognitive dysfunction
C) Obesity
D) Ataxic gait
E) History of seizures
Q2) When a chromosome lacking 4 Mb is inherited from the mother,the child is at risk for developing which syndrome?
A) Prader-Willi
B) Angelman
C) Beckwith-Wiedemann
D) Russell-Silver
Q3) A malfunction in DNA methylation can lead to:
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Blindness
C) Cancer
D) Diabetes mellitus
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Chapter 7: Innate Immunity: Inflammation
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the coagulation (clotting)cascade,the intrinsic and the extrinsic pathways converge at which factor?
A) XII
B) VII
C) X
D) V
Q2) When considering white blood cell differentials,acute inflammatory reactions are related to elevations of which leukocyte?
A) Monocytes
B) Eosinophils
C) Neutrophils
D) Basophils
Q3) Sebaceous glands protect the body from infection by secreting: (Select all that apply.)
A) Antibacterial fatty acids
B) Antifungal fatty acids
C) Ascorbic acid
D) Lactic acid
E) Hydrochloric acid
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The B-cell receptor (BCR)complex functions uniquely by:
A) Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T cell
B) Secreting chemical signals to communicate between cells
C) Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte
D) Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus
Q2) Is predominantly found in the blood and body secretions.
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
Q3) The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and binding is referred to as what type of determinant?
A) Immunotope
B) Paratope
C) Epitope
D) Antigenitope
Q4) Crosses the placenta.
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
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Chapter 9: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial-to-complete absence of T-cell immunity?
A) Bruton disease
B) DiGeorge syndrome
C) Reticular dysgenesis
D) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
Q2) What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?
A) Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.
B) Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.
C) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.
D) Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.
Q3) Which statement is true concerning an atopic individual?
A) They tend to produce less IgE.
B) They tend to produce more Fc receptors.
C) They tend to attract very few mast cells.
D) They tend to produce very high levels of IgM.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disease is an example of a rickettsial infection?
A) Cholera
B) Candida
C) Sleeping sickness
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Q2) After sexual transmission of HIV,a person can be infected yet seronegative for how many months?
A) 1 to 2
B) 6 to 14
C) 18 to 20
D) 24 to 36
Q3) Phagocytosis involves neutrophils actively attacking,engulfing,and destroying which microorganisms?
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Viruses
D) Yeasts
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Chapter 11: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?
A) Depression of B-cell functions and enhancement of T-cell functions
B) Depression of T-cell functions and enhancement of B-cell functions
C) Depression of B- and T-cell functions
D) Enhancement of B- and T-cell functions
Q2) Stress-age syndrome directly results in depressed function of which system?
A) Respiratory
B) Endocrine
C) Digestive
D) Immune
Q3) Which organ is stimulated during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?
A) Adrenal cortex
B) Hypothalamus
C) Anterior pituitary
D) Limbic system
Q4) Constricts peripheral vessels to increase blood pressure.
A)Epinephrine
B)Norepinephrine
C)Cortisol
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Cancer Biology
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54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?
A) Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.
B) Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.
C) Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.
D) Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.
Q2) Angiogenesis
A)Is the process of cancer cell growth.
B)Is used to kill cancer cells while minimizing damage to normal structures.
C)Is guided by molecular analysis in specific diseases.
D)Takes advantage of specific vulnerabilities in specific cancer cells.
E)Provides a framework to determine treatment.
Q3) Apoptosis is a(an):
A) Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive
B) Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb
C) Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene
D) Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia
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Chapter 13: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research has supported that alcohol consumption has a convincing impact on increasing the risk of which cancer?
A) Lung
B) Breast
C) Pharynx
D) Pancreas
Q2) When considering topics for a series of community discussions related to cancer prevention strategies,the nurse will include: (Select all that apply.)
A) Healthy eating
B) Tobacco avoidance
C) Importance of early diagnosis
D) Impact of obesity on one's health
E) Age-appropriate exercise routines
Q3) Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease?
A) Syphilis
B) Gonorrhea
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease
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Chapter 14: Cancer in Children
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What congenital malformation is commonly linked to acute leukemia in children?
A) Down syndrome
B) Wilms tumor
C) Retinoblastoma
D) Neuroblastoma
Q2) Most childhood cancers arise from the:
A) Epithelium
B) Mesodermal germ layer
C) Embryologic ectodermal layer
D) Viscera
Q3) Prenatal exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES)can result in which type of cancer?
A) Breast cancer
B) Leukemia
C) Vaginal cancer
D) Lymphoma
Q4) Which form of cancer is linked to congenital malformation syndromes?
A) Wilms tumor
B) Retinoblastoma
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Rhabdomyosarcoma
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of the eyes to track moving objects through a visual field is primarily a function of which colliculi?
A) Inferior
B) Superior
C) Mid
D) Posterior
Q2) What parts of the brain mediate the expression of affect,both emotional and behavioral states?
A) Hypothalamus and subthalamus
B) Parietal and frontal lobes
C) Limbic system and prefrontal cortex
D) Basal ganglia and medulla oblongata
Q3) The membrane that separates the brain's cerebellum from its cerebrum is the:
A) Tentorium cerebelli
B) Falx cerebri
C) Arachnoid membrane
D) Falx cerebelli
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pain that warns of actual or impending tissue injury is referred to as what?
A) Chronic
B) Psychogenic
C) Acute
D) Phantom
Q2) Why are children more susceptible to heat stroke than are adults? (Select all that apply.)
A) Children produce more metabolic heat when exercising.
B) They have more surface area-to-mass ratio.
C) Children have less sweating capacity.
D) They an underdeveloped hypothalamus.
E) Children have an overdeveloped ability to perceive heat.
Q3) Which neuropeptide promotes wakefulness?
A) Prostaglandin D2
B) L-tryptophan
C) Hypocretins
D) Growth factors
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Alterations in Cognitive Systems,Cerebral
Hemodynamics,and Motor Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cheyne-Stokes respirations are described as a:
A) Sustained deep rapid but regular pattern of breathing
B) Crescendo-decrescendo pattern of breathing, followed by a period of apnea
C) Prolonged inspiratory period, gradually followed by a short expiratory period
D) Completely irregular breathing pattern with random shallow, deep breaths and irregular pauses
Q2) What term describes the loss of the comprehension or production of language?
A) Agnosia
B) Aphasia
C) Akinesia
D) Dysphasia
Q3) Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face,trunk,and extremities?
A) Paroxysmal
B) Tardive
C) Hyperkinesia
D) Cardive
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19
Chapter 18: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A right hemisphere embolic CVA has resulted in left-sided paralysis and reduced sensation of the left foot and leg.Which cerebral artery is most likely affected by the emboli?
A) Middle cerebral
B) Vertebral
C) Posterior cerebral
D) Anterior cerebral
Q2) The most likely rationale for body temperature fluctuations after cervical spinal cord injury is that the person has:
A) Developed bilateral pneumonia or a urinary tract infection.
B) Sustain sympathetic nervous system damage resulting in disturbed thermal control.
C) Sustained a head injury that damaged the hypothalamus's ability to regulate temperature.
D) Developed septicemia from posttrauma infection.
Q3) The most common primary central nervous system (CNS)tumor is the:
A) Microglioma
B) Neuroblastoma
C) Astrocytoma
D) Neuroma
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which neurotransmitter is inhibited in panic disorders?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Serotonin
C) Dopamine
D) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
Q2) When treating individuals with depression,the result produced by electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)is believed to be an alteration in:
A) The monoamine systems
B) Serotonin
C) Norepinephrine
D) The limbic system
Q3) Persistent beliefs are contrary to the educational and cultural background of the individual.
A)Delusions
B)Formal thought disorder
C)Anhedonia
D)Hallucinations
E)Alogia
F)Avolition
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Chapter 20: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nutritional deficiency in a pregnant woman is associated with neural tube defect (NTD)?
A) Iron
B) Vitamin C
C) Zinc
D) Folate
Q2) The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by:
A) 2 years
B) 1 year
C) 10 months
D) 5 months
Q3) What is the most common general symptom of a localized childhood brain tumor?
A) Poor bonding
B) Increased intracranial pressure
C) Delayed extinction of newborn reflexes
D) Failure to thrive
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22
Chapter 21: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is:
A) Posterior
B) Inferior
C) Anterior
D) Superior
Q2) Insulin transports which electrolyte in the cell?
A) Potassium
B) Calcium
C) Sodium
D) Phosphorus
Q3) Which substance is a water-soluble protein hormone?
A) Thyroxine
B) Aldosterone
C) Follicle-stimulating hormone
D) Insulin
Q4) Which is an expected hormonal change in an older patient?
A) Thyroid-stimulating hormone secretion below normal
B) Triiodothyronine level below normal
C) Cortisol level below normal
D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone level above normal
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Chapter 22: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person has acne,easy bruising,thin extremities,and truncal obesity.These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Hypoaldosteronism
C) Diabetes insipidus
D) Cushing disease
Q2) Diagnosing a thyroid carcinoma is best performed with:
A) Measurement of serum thyroid levels
B) Radioisotope scanning
C) Ultrasonography
D) Fine-needle aspiration biopsy
Q3) The most probable cause of low serum calcium after a thyroidectomy is:
A) Hyperparathyroidism, secondary to Graves disease
B) Myxedema, secondary to surgery
C) Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury
D) Hypothyroidism caused by the lack of thyroid replacement
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24
Chapter 23: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which anatomic structure secretes follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)and luteinizing hormone (LH)?
A) Hypothalamus
B) Ovaries
C) Anterior pituitary
D) Adrenal cortex
Q2) The equivalent to the female gonad is the male:
A) Epididymis
B) Spermatic cord
C) Vas deferens
D) Testes
Q3) During the time that ovulation occurs,which statement concerning basal body temperature (BBT)is true?
A) BBT increases.
B) BBT decreases.
C) BBT fluctuates around 37° C (98° F).
D) BBT rises consistently above 37.8° C (100° F).
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor increases the risk for ovarian cancer after the age of 40 years?
A) Use of fertility drugs
B) Oral contraceptive use
C) Multiple pregnancies
D) Prolonged lactation
Q2) Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after how many months of unprotected intercourse with the same partner?
A) 6
B) 12
C) 18
D) 24
Q3) What type of cyst develops when an ovarian follicle is stimulated but no dominant follicle develops and completes the maturity process?
A) Follicular
B) Corpus luteal
C) Corpus albicans
D) Benign ovarian
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Chapter 25: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are clinical manifestations of male breast cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ulceration present on the breast
B) Retraction of breast tissue
C) Nipple discharge
D) Palpable mass midline of the nipple
E) Unilateral solid mass
Q2) In the 95% of those with delayed puberty,the problem is caused by which condition?
A) Disruption in the hypothalamus
B) Disruption of the pituitary
C) Deficit in estrogen or testosterone
D) Physiologic hormonal delays
Q3) Spermatocele
A)Painless diverticulum of the epididymis located between the head of the epididymis and the testis
B)Collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis
C)Rotation of a testis, which twists blood vessels of the spermatic cord
D)Abnormal dilation of the vein within the spermatic cord
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Chapter 26: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is gonorrhea transmitted from a pregnant woman to her fetus?
A) Unbound in the blood via the placenta
B) Attached to immunoglobulin G (IgG) via the placenta
C) Across amniotic membranes by the direct inoculation with the fetal scalp electrodes during labor monitoring
D) Predominately through infected cervical and secretions during the birth process
Q2) During which stage of syphilis do bloodborne bacteria spread to all the major organ systems?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Latent
D) Tertiary
Q3) During the latent period of a herpes virus infection,where in the host cell is the genome of the virus maintained?
A) Mitochondria
B) Lysosomes
C) Nucleus
D) Cytoplasm
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28
Chapter 27: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phagocytosis
A)Clotting
B)Red blood cell development
C)Red blood cell destruction
D)Platelet formation
E)Blood cell production
Q2) Where are Kupffer cells located?
A) Kidneys
B) Liver
C) Pancreas
D) Spleen
Q3) Erythropoiesis
A)Clotting
B)Red blood cell development
C)Red blood cell destruction
D)Platelet formation
E)Blood cell production
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Alterations of Erythrocyte Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 2000 ml blood loss will produce which assessment finding? (Select all that apply.)
A) Air hunger
B) Normal blood pressure in the supine position
C) Rapid thready pulse
D) Cold clammy skin
E) lactic acidosis
Q2) What is the primary cause of the symptoms of polycythemia vera?
A) Decreased erythrocyte count
B) Destruction of erythrocytes
C) Increased blood viscosity
D) Neurologic involvement
Q3) Which condition resulting from untreated pernicious anemia (PA)is fatal?
A) Brain hypoxia
B) Liver hypoxia
C) Heart failure
D) Renal failure
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Leukocyte, Lymphoid, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?
A) Immunoglobulin G immune-mediated adverse drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets
B) Hematologic reaction to heparin in which the bone marrow is unable to produce sufficient platelets to meet the body's needs
C) Immunoglobulin E-mediated allergic drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets
D) Cell-mediated drug reaction in which macrophages process the heparin and platelet complexes that are then destroyed by activated cytotoxic T cells.
Q2) Vitamin _____ is required for normal clotting factor synthesis by the _____.
A) K; kidneys
B) D; kidneys
C) K; liver
D) D; liver
Q3) Which electrolyte imbalance accompanies multiple myeloma (MM)?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hyperphosphatemia
D) Hypernatremia
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which blood cell type is elevated at birth but decreases to adult levels during the first year of life?
A) Monocytes
B) Platelets
C) Neutrophils
D) Lymphocytes
Q2) Which vitamin improves the absorption of oral iron taken to treat iron deficiency anemia in children?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) E
Q3) Large amounts of blood become acutely pooled in the liver and spleen.
A)Vasoocclusive crisis
B)Aplastic crisis
C)Sequestration crisis
D)Hyperhemolytic crisis
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32
Chapter 31: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Occlusion of the circumflex artery during a myocardial infarction would interrupt blood supply to which area?
A) Left and right ventricles and much of the interventricular septum
B) Posterior interventricular sulcus and the smaller branches of both ventricles
C) Upper right ventricle, right marginal branch, and right ventricle to the apex
D) Left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle
Q2) When the volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of diastole increases,the force of the myocardial contraction during the next systole will also increase,which is an example of which law or theory about the heart?
A) Laplace's law
B) Poiseuille law
C) Cross-bridge theory
D) Frank-Starling law
Q3) Which intracardiac pressure is generated by the atrial contraction?
A) A wave
B) C wave
C) Y descent
D) X descent
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Chapter 32: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15715
Sample Questions
Q1) What change in a vein supports the development of varicose veins?
A) Increase in osmotic pressure
B) Damage to the valves in veins
C) Damage to the venous endothelium
D) Increase in hydrostatic pressure
Q2) An individual who is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin,creatine kinase-isoenzyme MB (CK-MB),and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH)is exhibiting indicators associated with which condition?
A) Myocardial ischemia
B) Hypertension
C) Myocardial infarction (MI)
D) Coronary artery disease (CAD)
Q3) When endothelia cells are injured,what alteration contributes to atherosclerosis?
A) The release of toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDLs).
B) Cells are unable to make the normal amount of vasodilating cytokines.
C) Cells produce an increased amount of antithrombotic cytokines.
D) Cells develop a hypersensitivity to homocysteine and lipids.
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Chapter 33: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where can coarctation of the aorta (COA)be located?
A) Exclusively on the aortic arch
B) Proximal to the brachiocephalic artery
C) Between the origin of the aortic arch and the bifurcation of the aorta in the lower abdomen
D) Between the origin of the aortic arch and the origin of the first intercostal artery
Q2) Atrial septal defect
A)Causes atrial separation
B)Gap between the septum primum and the septum secundum
C)Conal portion of the ventricular septum
D)Abnormal communication between the atria
E)Allows right-to-left shunting
Q3) What is the suggested mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9-year-old child?
A) 104/55 mm Hg
B) 106/58 mm Hg
C) 112/62 mm Hg
D) 121/70 mm Hg
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Chapter 34: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15717
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important cause of pulmonary artery constriction?
A) Low alveolar partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)
B) Hyperventilation
C) Respiratory alkalosis
D) Epinephrine
Q2) Where in the lung does gas exchange occur?
A) Trachea
B) Segmental bronchi
C) Alveolocapillary membrane
D) Main bronchus
Q3) Monitors pH,partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO ),and partial pressure of oxygen (PaO )in arterial blood
A)Irritant receptors
B)Stretch receptors
C)J-receptors
D)Peripheral chemoreceptors
E)Central chemoreceptors
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Chapter 35: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15718
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements regarding Mycobacterium tuberculosis are true regarding the bacilli's ability to go into dormancy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Neutrophils and macrophages all play a role in its dormancy.
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is capable of dormancy but for only a short period.
C) The immune system is the controlling factor regarding its length of dormancy.
D) The bacilli are sealed off in tubercles to allow for dormancy.
E) An attack by lymphocytes brings the bacilli out of their dormant state.
Q2) Kussmaul respirations as a respiratory pattern may be associated with which characteristic(s)?
A) Alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing
B) Pulmonary fibrosis
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) Slightly increased ventilatory rate, large tidal volumes, and no expiratory pause
Q3) Which statement is true regarding hypoxemia?
A) Hypoxemia results in the increased oxygenation of arterial blood.
B) Respiratory alterations cause hypoxemia.
C) Hypoxemia results in the decreased oxygenation of tissue cells.
D) Various system changes cause hypoxemia.
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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33 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the abnormalities in cytokines found in children with cystic fibrosis (CF)?
A) Deficit of interleukin (IL)-1 and an excess of IL-4, IL-12, and interferon-alpha (IFN- )
B) Deficit of IL-6 and an excess of IL-2, IL-8, and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
C) Deficit of IL-10 and an excess of IL-1, IL-8, and TNF-
D) Deficit of IL-3 and an excess of IL-14, IL-24, and colony-stimulating factor (CSF)
Q2) What is the primary problem resulting from respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)of the newborn?
A) Consolidation
B) Pulmonary edema
C) Atelectasis
D) Bronchiolar plugging
Q3) Which T-lymphocyte phenotype is the key determinant of childhood asthma?
A) Cluster of differentiation (CD) 4 T-helper Th1 lymphocytes
B) CD4 T-helper Th2 lymphocytes
C) CD8 cytotoxic T lymphocytes
D) Memory T lymphocytes
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Chapter 37: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which glycoprotein protects against urolithiasis and is a ligand for lymphokines?
A) Uromodulin
B) Nephrin
C) Urodilatin
D) Cystatin
Q2) What is the action of urodilatin?
A) Urodilatin causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles.
B) It causes vasodilation of the efferent arterioles.
C) Urodilatin inhibits antidiuretic hormone secretion.
D) It inhibits salt and water reabsorption.
Q3) The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH),which is secreted by which gland?
A) Posterior pituitary
B) Thyroid
C) Parathyroid
D) Anterior pituitary
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Chapter 38: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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38 Verified Questions
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Q1) Which antibiotics are considered "major culprits" in causing nephrotoxic acute tubular necrosis (ATN)?
A) Penicillin and ampicillin
B) Vancomycin and bacitracin
C) Gentamicin and tobramycin
D) Cefazolin and cefepime
Q2) What are considered risk factors for developing bladder and kidney cancers? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cigarette smoking
B) Hypertension
C) Exposure to aniline dyes
D) Below normal body weight
E) Male gender
Q3) Creatinine is primarily excreted by glomerular filtration after being constantly released from what type of tissue?
A) Nervous system
B) Kidneys
C) Muscle
D) Liver
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the mechanism for developing Wilms tumor?
A) The development of a Wilms tumor involves tumor-suppressor genes located on chromosome 11.
B) Development involves an autosomal dominant inherited disorder involving the Y chromosome.
C) Wilms tumor is an autoimmune disorder.
D) The development of a Wilms tumor is a congenital anomaly.
Q2) When does urine formation and excretion begin?
A) At birth
B) By 3 months' gestation
C) By 6 months' gestation
D) By 8 months' gestation
Q3) Which statements are true regarding hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia characterizes HUS.
B) Thrombocytopenia is a comorbid condition.
C) Wilms tumors are often the trigger for HUS.
D) HUS is the most common community-acquired cause of acute renal failure in young children.
E) HUS is chronic in nature.
Page 41
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Chapter 40: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The formation of water-soluble molecules to facilitate the absorption of the by-products of lipid hydrolysis is accomplished by:
A) Micelles
B) Phospholipase
C) Chylomicrons
D) Colipase
Q2) Why are water and electrolytes transported in both directions through tight junctions and intercellular spaces rather than across cell membranes?
A) The intercellular hydrostatic pressure is inadequate to push the water and electrolytes across the cell membranes.
B) A balance of cations and ions among the electrolytes on each side of the cell membranes cannot be maintained.
C) The epithelial cell membranes are formed of lipids that are hydrophobic and therefore repel water.
D) Receptors on those cell membranes are occupied with a diffusion of amino acids and monosaccharides.
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Chapter 41: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Obesity is defined as a body mass index (BMI)greater than what measurement?
A) 22
B) 25
C) 28
D) 30
Q2) Which statement is false regarding the pathophysiologic process of acute pancreatitis?
A) Bile duct or pancreatic duct obstruction blocks the outflow of pancreatic digestive enzymes.
B) Acute pancreatitis can also result from direct cellular injury from drugs or viral infection.
C) Acute pancreatitis is an autoimmune disease in which immunoglobulin G (IgG) coats the pancreatic acinar cells; consequently, the pancreatic enzymes destroy the cells.
D) Acute pancreatitis is usually mild and spontaneously resolves.
Q3) Which statement is consistent with dumping syndrome?
A) Dumping syndrome usually responds well to dietary management.
B) It occurs 1 to 2 hours after eating.
C) Constipation is often a result of the dumping syndrome.
D) It can result in alkaline reflux gastritis.
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marasmus and kwashiorkor
A)Gluten sensitivity
B)Periduodenal band
C)Congenital aganglionic megacolon
D)Protein energy malnutrition
E)Lack of digestive enzymes during fetal life
Q2) Cystic fibrosis is characterized by which symptom?
A) Excessive mucus production
B) Elevated blood glucose levels
C) Low sodium content in perspiration
D) Abnormally thin exocrine secretions
Q3) What distinguishes kwashiorkor from marasmus?
A) All nutrients, proteins, fats, and carbohydrates are reduced in kwashiorkor.
B) Physical growth of children is stunted in kwashiorkor but not in marasmus.
C) Muscle wasting, diarrhea, low hemoglobin, and infection characterize kwashiorkor.
D) Subcutaneous fat, hepatomegaly, and fatty liver are present in kwashiorkor.
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of an injured joint becomes insensitive to pain and regenerates slowly and minimally?
A) Synovium
B) Articular cartilage
C) Bursa
D) Tendon
Q2) What anchors articular cartilage to the underlying bone?
A) Sharpey fibers
B) Collagen fibers
C) Glycoproteins
D) Elastin fibers
Q3) What term is used to identify an interlacing bundle of dense,white fibrous tissue that is richly supplied with nerves,blood vessels,and lymphatic vessels?
A) Procallus
B) Joint capsule
C) Hematoma
D) Elastin fibers
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Chapter 44: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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47 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medical diagnosis is characterized by tissue degeneration or irritation of the extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon?
A) Lateral epicondylitis
B) Medial tendinitis
C) Bursitis
D) Lateral tendinitis
Q2) Which structure attaches skeletal muscle to bone?
A) Tendon
B) Ligament
C) Bursa
D) Mesentery
Q3) Which medical diagnosis is described as a chronic inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints?
A) Ankylosing spondylitis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Paget disease
D) Fibromyalgia
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Chapter 45: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) What diagnosis is given when the infant's hip maintains contact with the acetabulum but is not well seated within the hip joint?
A) Dislocatable hip
B) Subluxated hip
C) Dislocated hip
D) Subluxable hip
Q2) What is the most common congenital skeletal defect of the upper extremity?
A) Vestigial tabs
B) Paget disease
C) Rickets
D) Syndactyly
Q3) In osteomyelitis,bacteria gain access to the subperiosteal space in the metaphysis,which is considered the path of least resistance.What factor makes this route for bacteria the path of least resistance?
A) Cortex of the bone in this area is porous or mazelike.
B) Blood supply to the metaphysis is easily compromised.
C) Macrophages and lymphocytes have limited access to the subperiosteal space.
D) Bacteria usually spread down the medullary cavity of the bone.
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Chapter 46: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to identify an inflamed hair root?
A) Tinea
B) Verruca
C) Furuncle
D) Erysipelas
Q2) Wart (verruca)or lichen planus
A)Elevated, firm circumscribed area less than 1 cm in diameter
B)Elevated, firm, and rough lesion with a flat top surface greater than 1 cm in diameter
C)Flat circumscribed area that is less than 1 cm in diameter
D)Elevated irregular-shaped area of cutaneous edema; solid and transient with a variable diameter
E)Elevated circumscribed, superficial lesion filled with serous fluid, less than 1 cm in diameter
Q3) What clinical manifestations do allergic contact and stasis dermatitis have in common?
A) Petechiae and hyperpigmentation
B) Edema and vesicular lesions
C) Scaling and crusting of lesions
D) Erythema and pruritus
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Chapter 47: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical manifestation is present in rubeola but not in rubella?
A) Conjunctivitis
B) Enlarged lymph nodes
C) Presence of a cough
D) Runny nose
Q2) The disruption in cellular adhesion observed in bullous impetigo is caused by an exfoliative toxin related to which organism?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Escherichia coli
D) Candida albicans
Q3) Which statements are true of scalded skin syndrome? (Select all that apply.)
A) Virulent group II staphylococci cause the scalded skin syndrome.
B) A trauma burn triggers the syndrome.
C) The syndrome results in a separation involving the epidermis.
D) Toxins resulting from scalded skin syndrome are circulated through the blood.
E) The lesions of scalded skin syndrome are sites of the infective organism.
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Chapter 48: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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Q1) What is the purpose of monitoring procalcitonin (PCT)levels in a patient after a burn?
A) To help evaluate the potential risk for respiratory complications
B) To justify the initiation of antibiotic therapy
C) To determine when discontinuing antibiotic use is feasible
D) To help in the selection of appropriate antibiotic therapy agents
Q2) What type of shock develops as a result of the overstimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system or the understimulation of the sympathetic nervous system?
A) Septic
B) Cardiogenic
C) Anaphylactic
D) Vasogenic
Q3) Daily evaporative water loss after a burn injury is approximately how many times the normal?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
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Chapter 49: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in Children
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30 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15732
Sample Questions
Q1) Bradycardia in young children experiencing shock symptoms often suggests which result?
A) Onset of cardiac dysfunction
B) Effective management of cardiac dysfunction
C) Good management of anxiety
D) Cardiovascular collapse
Q2) The child with septic shock has significant hypovolemia that typically responds to which interventions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Aggressive fluid administration
B) Antibiotic therapy
C) Titration of inotropes
D) Vasopressors
E) High caloric nasogastric feedings
Q3) Is caused by hot grease.
A)Scald burn
B)Contact burn
C)Flame burn
D)Electrical burn
E)Chemical burn
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