Physical Therapy Principles
Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Physical Therapy Principles introduces students to the foundational concepts underpinning the assessment, treatment, and rehabilitation of movement dysfunctions. The course covers topics such as basic anatomy, physiology, biomechanics, and kinesiology as they relate to physical therapy practice. Emphasis is placed on understanding therapeutic intervention strategies, goal setting, patient safety, and evidence-based decision-making. Students will explore the ethical and professional responsibilities of a physical therapist, while developing problem-solving and critical thinking skills essential for individualized patient care. This course serves as the groundwork for advanced clinical skills and specialty practice in physical therapy.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Exercise Foundations and Techniques 6th Edition by Carolyn Kisner
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25 Chapters
448 Verified Questions
448 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Therapeutic Exercise: Foundational Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about the components of the patient management model described in the Guide to Physical Therapist Practice?
A) Therapeutic exercise is classified as a procedural intervention.
B) Goals and outcomes are synonymous terms.
C) A primary focus of the diagnostic process performed by physical therapists is the identification of pathology.
D) It is appropriate to discharge a patient from an exercise program only when the patient has attained the goals stated in the initial or original plan of care.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following components of the ICF model of functioning and disability is defined by the individual's lifestyle,education,and social and environmental backgrounds?
A) Risk factors for health conditions
B) Impairments in body function
C) Participation restrictions
D) Contextual Factors
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Prevention, health, and Wellness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the target audience for a program of physical activity designed for primary prevention of childhood obesity?
A) A group of morbidly obese children who have been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes
B) A group of mildly obese children who are identified as being "at risk" for type 2 diabetes
C) A group of mildly obese children
D) A group of sedentary children whose weight is within normal limits
Answer: D
Q2) An individual who perceives a threat of contracting a disease follows specific health recommendations to prevent or reduce the risk of contracting the disease.These behaviors are aligned with what behavioral change theory or model?
A) Social cognitive theory
B) Health belief model
C) Transtheoretical model
D) Risk assessment theory
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Range of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Indications for AROM exercises can be any of the following except:
A) Aerobic conditioning.
B) Early strengthening.
C) To mobilize segments above and below an immobilized area.
D) To maintain general extremity strength in a region where there is acute,inflamed tissue.
Answer: D
Q2) To achieve full PROM of dorsiflexion at the ankle joint,you need to place the limb in which of the following positions?
A) Knee flexion and ankle dorsiflexion
B) Knee flexion and ankle plantarflexion
C) Knee extension and ankle dorsiflexion
D) Knee extension and ankle plantarflexion
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is not a benefit of using CPM?
A) Increased synovial fluid lubrication of the joint
B) Prevents development of adhesions
C) Long-term functional gains
D) Enhancing incisional healing
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Stretching for Impaired Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who has been on extended bed rest has a hip contracture that places the hip in a position of external rotation.You note in your documentation that your patient has a:
A) Hip flexion contracture.
B) Hip adduction contracture.
C) Hip internal rotation contracture.
D) Hip external rotation contracture.
Q2) Your patient has significant limitation in right shoulder external rotation.As you perform stretch interventions to improve ROM,you also need to develop strength in which of the following agonists?
A) Subscapularis
B) Anterior deltoid
C) Infraspinatus
D) Pectoralis minor
Q3) Safe and effective stretching to increase ROM requires all of the following except:
A) Proper alignment and patient positioning.
B) Stabilization of the proximal attachment of the muscle.
C) Use of gained ROM in active function.
D) Strengthening of the agonist.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Peripheral Joint Mobilizationmanipulation
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Q1) Which of the following joint-mobilization procedures at the elbow matches the desired goal?
A) Volar glide of the head of the radius on the proximal ulna-increase forearm pronation
B) Dorsal glide of the head of the radius on the proximal ulna-increase forearm supination
C) Dorsal glide of the head of the radius on the humerus-increase elbow extension
D) Volar glide of the head of the radius on the humerus-increase elbow extension
Q2) Which of the following describes an inappropriate procedure for safe and effective application of joint-mobilization techniques?
A) Combine a grade III distraction with a grade III sustained glide
B) Initiate joint mobilization procedures with the joint in the resting position of the joint
C) Combine a grade I distraction with a grade III sustained glide
D) Stabilize one of the articulating bones while applying the mobilization force close to the joint
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Chapter 6: Resistance Exercise for Impaired Muscle
Performance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding isokinetic exercise?
A) Joint compressive forces increase with increased velocity of exercise.
B) Load is dependent on the velocity of limb movement through the arc of motion.
C) Slow-velocity training is more appropriate for carryover to functional activities than medium and fast velocities.
D) Depending on the type of isokinetic dynamometer used,the rate of limb movement may range from 0S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 to 500S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 per minute.
Q2) Each of the following is characteristic of delayed-onset muscle soreness except:
A) Tends to peak 48 to 72 hours after the conclusion of high-intensity exercise.
B) Increased soreness during passive lengthening of the involved muscle groups.
C) Occurs more frequently after eccentric exercise than isometric exercise.
D) Is believed to be caused by postexercise muscle spasm.
Q3) Which of the following best defines muscle strength?
A) Ability of muscle to contract repeatedly against a load
B) Work produced by a muscle per unit of time
C) Produce or control forces imposed during functional activities
D) Force generated during a single maximum effort
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Principles of Aerobic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about an exercise program that is carefully planned?
A) It can slow the decrease in functional capacity of the elderly individual.
B) The cooldown period is intended to encourage rapid return of blood to the extremities.
C) A program of continuous training is the most effective way to improve aerobic conditioning.
D) Venous return is reduced during the warm-up period as blood flow is shifted centrally from the periphery.
Q2) Mary is 30 lb overweight and wants to start exercising for fitness and to lose weight before her high school class reunion next year.For motivation,she has set a specific goal to run a 10K race in 6 months.The best method of training for this event would be:
A) Bicycling 2 days a week and fast walking 4 days a week.
B) Fast walking,progressing to running 5 to 6 days a week.
C) Bicycling and running 3 days a week for each activity.
D) Swimming 1 day a week,bicycling 2 days a week,and running 3 days a week.
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Chapter 8: Exercise for Impaired Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The semicircular canals of the vestibular system would contribute the most to balance control during which of the following activities?
A) Standing and quickly turning the head to look at a person
B) Sitting in a chair reading a newspaper
C) Standing on a bus that suddenly accelerates forward
D) Standing on an elevator that suddenly accelerates downward
Q2) The outcome measure developed specifically to measure balance control during gait in people with vestibular disorders is the:
A) Timed Up and Go Test.
B) Tinetti Performance-Oriented Mobility Assessment.
C) Functional Gait Assessment.
D) Dynamic Gait Index.
Q3) Which of the following terms is defined as "the sway boundaries in which an individual can maintain equilibrium without changing his/her base of support"?
A) Center of mass
B) Limits of stability
C) Limits of pressure
D) Center of gravity
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Chapter 9: Aquatic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding aquatic therapy equipment?
A) Buoyancy equipment placed anteriorly will facilitate posterior movements of the trunk in the vertical position.
B) Buoyancy equipment used for supine positioning is ideal to assist with stabilization needed for eccentric manual resistance exercises.
C) Nonbuoyant equipment used underwater provides resistance opposite the direction of movement.
D) Using equipment to increase the surface area of an extremity underwater decreases resistance.
Q2) The difficulty of exercises can be controlled with the depth of immersion and the body's physiological response to hydrostatic pressure.According to Barbosa and colleagues,which of the following best describes a proper progression of a patient's exercise program in order to increase physiological demands?
A) Land exercises to aquatic chest depth to hip depth
B) Aquatic hip depth to neck depth to land exercises
C) Alternate land exercises with aquatic chest depth exercises
D) Aquatic chest depth to hip depth to land exercises
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Chapter 10: Soft Tissue Injury,repair,and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) During your evaluation,you identify signs of chronic inflammation of a muscle group.Each of the following techniques is tissue-specific for this condition at this time except:
A) Cross-fiber massage.
B) Grade II joint mobilization.
C) ROM within the limits of pain.
D) Muscle setting in pain-free positions.
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to the degeneration of a tendon due to repetitive microtrauma?
A) Tendinitis
B) Tenosynovitis
C) Tenovaginitis
D) Tendinosis
Q3) Muscle guarding is best treated by:
A) Applying modalities and then massaging the muscle.
B) Identifying and treating the cause of the guarding.
C) Gentle muscle-setting exercises with the muscle in a shortened position.
D) Massaging the muscle.
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Chapter 11: Joint,connective Tissue,and Bone Disorders and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a diagnosis of osteoporosis wishes to participate in a fitness program at her local community center.All of the following describe precautions that she should adhere to during exercise except:
A) Avoid high-impact,repetitive exercises,such as jumping and bouncing.
B) Avoid high-velocity movements of the spine and extremities.
C) Avoid strength training with free weights or on weight machines regardless of the intensity of exercise.
D) Avoid end-range resisted movements of the spine combining flexion and rotation.
Q2) The articular cartilage of a synovial joint is most susceptible to damage from stress:
A) During low-impact,low- to moderate-intensity resistance exercise performed on a regular basis.
B) During early weight-bearing exercises after soft tissue surgery.
C) During passive stretching procedures.
D) Immediately following a period of prolonged joint immobilization.
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Chapter 12: Surgical Interventions and Postoperative Management
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Q1) Which of the following postoperative complications is least likely to be prevented by adherence to a carefully progressed postoperative exercise program?
A) Formation of adhesions
B) Local infection at the wound site
C) Subluxation or dislocation of a joint
D) Rupture of repaired soft tissue
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about the phases of postoperative rehabilitation?
A) Phases are based on the stages of tissue healing and each patient's responses to interventions.
B) It is important to strictly adhere to a progression of interventions spelled out in a predetermined protocol.
C) During the maximum protection phase of postoperative rehabilitation,movement of the operated body segment is contraindicated regardless of the type of surgery.
D) Once a patient reaches the minimum protection phase after surgery,there is no value to continuing postoperative exercise.
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14
Chapter 13: Peripheral Nerve Disorders and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been treating a patient with a diagnosis of thoracic outlet syndrome for 1 week;she describes increased burning pain over the past week.She also has ischemic symptoms in the upper extremity whenever she exercises or while engaging in simple functional activities.This means:
A) There could be progressive axonal disruption and compromise of the vascular supply;the physician should be notified.
B) The patient has not been compliant with instructions for posture and safe exercises.
C) The exercises have been too vigorous and should be decreased in intensity.
D) This is a typical reaction to exercises for thoracic outlet syndrome.
Q2) Your patient experiences a tingling sensation in the upper extremity while in the following position: shoulder girdle depression;slight abduction of the shoulder;elbow extension;internal rotation of the arm;pronation of the forearm,wrist,finger;thumb flexion;and ulnar deviation of the wrist.Which peripheral nerve is being placed on a stretch?
A) Median
B) Radial
C) Ulnar
D) Musculocutaneous
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Spine: Structure, function, and Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) A flatback posture:
A) Is the best posture for a healthy spine.
B) Is typically associated with tight hip flexor muscles.
C) Reduces the shock-absorbing function of the spinal curves.
D) Should be the goal of all back-rehabilitation programs.
Q2) The difference between a lordotic posture and a slouched posture is:
A) Only the lordotic posture has lumbar lordosis.
B) Flexion in the upper lumbar and lower thoracic spine with the slouched posture.
C) Extension of the pelvis on the femurs with the lordotic posture.
D) There is no difference;both affect the pelvis and lumbar spine the same way.
Q3) The spinal muscles that are activated first with rapid arm movements are the:
A) Erector spinae and rectus abdominis.
B) Internal and external obliques.
C) Multifidus and internal obliques.
D) Transversus abdominis and multifidus.
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16
Chapter 15: The Spine: Management Guidelines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treating the soft tissue of the back:
A) Is more difficult than treating the extremities because of the way it is innervated.
B) Is usually not necessary because most back pain comes from dysfunction of the facets or disks.
C) Involves using heat rather than cold,massage rather than exercise,and principles that in general are different from those used when treating the extremities.
D) Is no different in principle than treating soft tissues in the extremities.
Q2) All resistive flexion and extension activities and exercises are contraindicated when there is an acute disk lesion because:
A) They cause increased pain.
B) They cause swelling of the nucleus against pain-sensitive structures.
C) They increase the intradiscal pressure.
D) Resisted extension is all right-but not flexion because it increases the bulge.
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Chapter 16: The Spine: Exercise and Manipulation
Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following may be indications for using stretching or mobility exercises in acute spinal conditions except:
A) When there is an accompanying postural impairment that prevents an alignment that would relieve symptoms.
B) When there is decreased mobility in the extremities that restrict postural alignment.
C) When an inflamed tissue is the cause of restriction.
D) When fluid stasis prevents movement.
Q2) Of the following choices,the most effective way to stretch tight lumbar extensor muscles is:
A) In supine,pull both thighs to the chest until the sacrum is lifted off the mat.
B) In long sitting,reach both hands toward the feet as far as possible.
C) While standing,bend over and touch the toes.
D) In prone,perform press-ups.
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18
Chapter 17: The Shoulder and Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following functional activities should a patient avoid for the longest period of time after rTSA?
A) Reaching overhead
B) Hugging with both arms
C) Reaching into abduction in the plane of the scapula at a drive-through window
D) Fastening a bra behind the back
Q2) Your patient exhibits a forward head posture and excessive thoracic kyphosis.Considering the muscles that typically are weak with this faulty posture,which of the following muscles of the shoulder girdle are most important to strengthen using the exercise program you are developing for this patient?
A) Pectoralis minor and levator scapulae
B) Serratus anterior and levator scapulae
C) Upper and lower trapezius and serratus anterior
D) Upper and lower trapezius and pectoralis minor
Q3) For effective shoulder function,each of the following is necessary except:
A) Appropriate movement and stability of the scapula.
B) Greater mobility in the external rotators than the internal rotators.
C) A balance in strength of the external and internal rotators.
D) Thoracic extension and axial extension of the cervical spine.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Elbow and Forearm Complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient,a 19-year-old college student,sustained a nondisplaced fracture of the distal humerus,which was managed by closed reduction and 6 weeks of immobilization in a cast.Yesterday the cast was removed and the patient is to begin exercises to improve ROM and strength of the elbow.Your examination reveals significant limitation of elbow flexion/extension and forearm pronation/supination as well as reduced joint play at the elbow.The patient describes her elbow as feeling "very stiff," but pain occurs only when overpressure is applied at the end of the available ranges.One of the goals in this patient's treatment plan is to increase elbow ROM.Which of the following techniques should you begin with to increase ROM?
A) Cross-fiber massage of the tendons inserting at the elbow
B) Joint-mobilization techniques to stretch the restricted joints (grade III sustained glide or grade IV oscillation techniques)after evaluating the reactivity of the elbow joints with grade II sustained glides
C) Manual passive stretching to lengthen muscles that cross the elbow
D) Passive ROM within pain-free ranges
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Chapter 19: The Wrist and Hand
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prerequisites for successful PIP arthroplasty include all of the following except:
A) Adequate bone stock.
B) No history of chronic synovitis.
C) Intact neurovascular system.
D) Functioning flexor/extensor mechanism.
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about carpometacarpal (CMC)arthroplasty of the thumb and postoperative management?
A) For a patient with erosion of the articular surfaces and subluxation of the CMC joint,joint replacement arthroplasty with prosthetic implants is a far more common procedure than trapezial resection/tendon interposition arthroplasty with ligament reconstruction.
B) A longer period of immobilization of the thumb is required after total joint arthroplasty with prosthetic implants than after trapezial resection/tendon interposition arthroplasty with ligament reconstruction.
C) After CMC arthroplasty,the thumb is immobilized in abduction.
D) A priority in a postoperative exercise program is to gain active flexion combined with adduction of the thumb (sliding the thumb across the palm)as early as possible.
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21
Chapter 20: The Hip
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recent advances in arthroscopy of the hip now allow all of the following procedures to be performed using this less invasive technique except for:
A) Microfracture to stimulate fibrocartilage growth.
B) Acetabular labral repair.
C) Resurfacing arthroplasty.
D) Capsulorrhaphy for capsular laxity.
Q2) In an elderly patient,which of the following types of hip fracture is managed most often with hemireplacement of the hip (hemiarthroplasty)?
A) Noncomminuted intertrochanteric fracture
B) Displaced subcapital (intracapsular)fracture
C) Unstable subtrochanteric fracture
D) Hemiarthroplasty is equally indicated for intracapsular and extracapsular fractures
Q3) The term "hybrid" total hip arthroplasty refers to a(n):
A) Hip replacement with a cemented femoral component and a noncemented acetabular component.
B) Total hip replacement that is all metal.
C) Alternate term for bipolar hemiarthroplasty of the hip.
D) Alternate term for minimally invasive arthroplasty.
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Chapter 21: The Knee
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Q1) Although interventions used to manage patellofemoral pain syndrome are based on an examination of each patient on an individual basis,each of the following interventions is commonly employed except:
A) Strengthening the knee and hip extensors in weight-bearing and non-weight-bearing positions.
B) Lateral gliding of the patella.
C) Stretching the tensor fasciae latae (TFL)and iliotibial (IT)band.
D) Using an insert (orthotic device)in a patient's shoe to correct excessive foot pronation.
Q2) Activation of the VMO is crucial for strengthening the quadriceps and developing appropriate patellar tracking.Which of the following exercises is the most effective to selectively activate and train the VMO,according to the literature and current research?
A) Closed-chain mini-squat to 30°
B) Open-chain supine SLR to 15° with isometric ADD of the hip
C) Isometric quad sets coupled with electrical stimulation or biofeedback
D) Open-chain short-arc quad terminal extension from 20° flexion to full extension
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23
Chapter 22: The Ankle and Foot
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Q1) Your patient sustained a fracture of the right calcaneus as the result of a motor vehicle accident 3 months ago.After 10 weeks in a cast followed by a rocker bottom immobilization boot that prevented ankle and foot motion,the fracture shows radiological evidence of bony union.The patient has been ambulating (weight bearing as tolerated)while wearing the boot and is now supposed to discontinue wearing it slowly.Your examination reveals marked limitation of dorsi- and plantarflexion and a high,rigid arch.There is no visible swelling,and pain (2/10)occurs at the end of the day and during passive range of motion (PROM)with overpressure.Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention during the first week of therapy?
A) PROM of the ankle (dorsiflexion/plantarflexion and calcaneal inversion/eversion)
B) Gentle passive stretching of ankle musculature
C) Grade II joint mobilization at the subtalar joint
D) Grade III joint mobilization at the midtarsal joint
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Chapter 23: Advanced Functional Training
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Q1) Examples of plyometric activities for the upper extremities could include any of the following except:
A) Seated push-ups.
B) Clap push-ups.
C) Catching and throwing a weighted ball.
D) Dribbling a ball against the wall.
Q2) Which of the following describes a proper progression of positions to increase balance and postural stability?
A) Standing to tall kneeling
B) Unilateral stance to tandem stance
C) Half-kneeling to sitting without foot support
D) Reaching activities in bilateral stance to unilateral stance
Q3) Plyometric training drills are an example of an intervention to develop primarily which of the following?
A) Coordination
B) Power
C) Balance
D) Endurance
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Chapter 24: Womens Health: Obstetrics and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to participating in an exercise program during pregnancy?
A) Diastasis recti
B) Gestational diabetes
C) Maternal type 1 diabetes
D) Obesity
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about diastasis recti?
A) It affects function of only the rectus abdominis muscle.
B) It is characterized by a separation of abdominal muscles at the linea alba.
C) Corrective exercise is recommended if the diastasis is greater than 1 cm.
D) The etiology during pregnancy is well understood.
Q3) An exercise program that includes posture training to counter the expected postural changes that occur during pregnancy should emphasize each of the following except:
A) Strengthening scapular retractors.
B) Strengthening hip extensors.
C) Strengthening abdominals (low-intensity).
D) Strengthening shoulder internal rotators.
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26
Chapter 25: Management of Lymphatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true about lymphedema except:
A) Pitting edema is classified as more severe than brawny edema.
B) Lymphedema typically is seen with disorders of the venous or lymphatic systems but not with peripheral arterial vascular disease.
C) Lymphedema typically is most apparent peripherally (e.g. ,over the dorsum of the foot)but can also manifest centrally (e.g. ,in the groin area).
D) Secondary lymphedema as the result of trauma,surgery,or a tumor is far more common than primary lymphedema.
Q2) Which of the following describes severity of lymphedema from least to most severe?
A) Pitting,brawny,weeping
B) Brawny,pitting,weeping
C) Weeping,brawny,pitting
D) Pitting,weeping,brawny
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