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Physical Therapy Practice I provides an introduction to the foundational principles, skills, and professional behaviors essential for physical therapy practice. The course covers the basic components of patient examination, including assessment procedures, documentation, and communication skills. Students learn about the roles and responsibilities of the physical therapist, explore ethical and legal aspects of care, and practice safe handling, positioning, and mobility techniques in laboratory settings. Emphasis is placed on patient-centered care, evidence-based practice, and developing clinical reasoning to ensure effective interactions and interventions in various healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Mobility in Context Principles of Patient Care Skills 1st Edition by Charity Johansson
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14 Chapters
276 Verified Questions
276 Flashcards
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77104
Sample Questions
Q1) List three behaviors that might indicate underlying negative beliefs that could hinder your clinical effectiveness.
Answer: Withdrawing from patient interactions; Relying on protocols and routine treatments without considering the individual's specific needs; Using humor that makes fun of the patient; Using unauthorized nicknames for the patient; Referring to a patient by diagnosis or treatment group
Q2) When you communicate with your patients, you convey information with your words as well as your body. Which of the following statements about "body language" is true?
A) It is more difficult to interpret than spoken words.
B) It is used as a primary means of communicating information.
C) It is used to communicate interpersonal attitudes.
D) It makes up about 25% of our communication with patients.
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best definition of center of mass?
A) The balance point of an object
B) The direction of movement when weight is added
C) The point directly behind the gravity pull
D) The push or pull that modifies movement
Answer: A
Q2) You are preparing to transfer a patient who just had bilateral knee replacements from the bed to the bedside chair. The patient is much taller than you are, and you want to make sure that the transfer is safe for you and the patient. As you face the patient, you determine that blocking both knees is not required. Which of the following positions is the best way to position your feet?
A) Place your feet about 10 in. apart and staggered.
B) Place your feet about 20 in. apart and side by side.
C) Place your feet about 30 in. apart and staggered.
D) Place your feet about 40 in. apart and side by side.
Answer: C
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15 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) List three factors that could result in homelessness.
Answer: Unemployment, poverty, domestic violence, chronic and severe health conditions, substance abuse, war, forces of nature
Q2) When you enter your patient's ICU room, you notice immediately that the patient has several machines running with tubing attached to the patient. You are planning to assist the patient to the bedside chair and note that one of the machines (with an IV tube) is on the side of the bed opposite the chair and monitoring equipment. What should you do?
A) Change your plan to include only supine bed activities.
B) Contact the patient's nurse and ask him or her to reposition the IV.
C) Defer your treatment until the patient's IV is removed or replaced.
D) Disconnect the IV and reposition the machine on the other side of the bed.
Answer: B
Q3) List four health conditions commonly experienced by persons who are homeless.
Answer: Trauma, overexposure to the elements, sleep deprivation, dehydration, urinary incontinence, infectious disease, uncontrolled diabetes, arthritis, fractures, circulatory foot problems, malnutrition
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes a "clean" environment appropriate for cleansing a wound?
A) A cleared surface that is at least 10 ft away from other objects
B) A surface covered with a clean towel or a clean, disposable paper sheet
C) A cleared surface that has been wiped with a bleach solution
D) A cleared area immediately adjacent to the wound care supplies
Q2) Which of the following is an element of the infection process?
A) A means to leave the host
B) A mode of transmission
C) A moist environment
D) A source of nutrition
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes practice in a sterile field?
A) A roll of sterile tape to be used to secure dressings is placed on the work surface .
B) Sterile gloves are used to set up the sterile field.
C) The dressing packages are placed unopened on the sterile work surface.
D) The sterile instruments are dropped from the containers onto the work surface.
Q4) List three common patient responses to staying in isolation rooms while hospitalized.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how "counting from 1" is done when assessing pulse rate.
Q2) Your new patient is a 51-year-old woman who had a myocardial infarction (heart attack) 5 weeks ago. She is now ready to begin outpatient cardiac rehabilitation. You assessed her resting heart rate at 78 beats per minute. Which of the following values would you use as a target heart rate for conditioning activities for this patient?
A) 92 beats per minute
B) 98 beats per minute
C) 108 beats per minute
D) 114 beat per minute
Q3) List four factors that can affect blood pressure. ____________________
Q4) Which of the following is true of the use of automated blood pressure monitors?
A) Cuff placement is more critical with the use of automated units than for auscultated measurement.
B) Finger units are the most accurate method of automated home blood pressure monitoring.
C) The arm should be placed in the same position as it is during auscultated measurement.
D) Automated monitors are generally less sensitive to changes in body movements.
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15 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) List three benefits of draping patients:
Q2) The prone position poses some specific challenges with regard to draping. List two things you can do to minimize patient discomfort in this position.
Q3) Which of the following is most commonly experienced by a patient whose examination or intervention requires the removal of clothing?
A) Anger
B) Sadness
C) Fear
D) Vulnerability
Q4) What is the proper procedure for handling linens following their use in draping?
Q5) Which of the following positions generally creates the greatest feeling of vulnerability for the patient?
A) Standing
B) Sidelying
C) Sitting
D) Supine

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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is a 49-year-old man who sustained a spinal cord injury in a skiing accident. He is unable to move below the level of his umbilicus. You are positioning him in the bed following your treatment. Which of the following describes the most appropriate positioning for this patient?
A) On his back with a medium-sized pillow under his knees
B) On his back with a large pillow behind his shoulder blades
C) In a three-quarters supine position with pillows behind him and between his legs
D) On his stomach with a large pillow under his feet
Q2) When considering the use of restraints, which of the following is true?
A) If the device is used to protect the patient, it is not considered a restraint.
B) Using a device that the patient is able to release reduces the level of restrictiveness of a restraint.
C) Restraints are generally identified by their shape or design.
D) The application of restraints is not regulated by Medicare.
Q3) List three basic principles that apply to both short-term and long-term positioning.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of friction-reducing devices to perform lateral patient transfers is recommended because it eliminates the risk of injury to the clinician performing the transfer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is most strongly related to injuries sustained when assisting patients?
A) The age and weight of the person completing the transfer
B) The diagnosis of the patient being transferred
C) The number of repetitions of the task completed by the person
D) Unexpected changes in the patient's position during the transfer
Q3) Describe the Trendelenburg position.
Q4) ________________is the branch of medicine concerned with the management of obesity and allied illnesses.
Q5) List three things you must consider when positioning a sling for a dependent transfer.
Q6) "Super obesity" is defined as a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m<sup>2</sup>.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) Ballistic stretching
A) involves a bouncing motion at the end of the range.
B) is most effective with sedentary individuals.
C) is more effective than static stretching.
D) results in long-term range of motion gains.
Q2) When is progression from passive range of motion therapy to active assistive range of motion indicated in the management of patients?
Q3) Your patient is a 17-year-old boy who is in the intensive care unit after a severe motorcycle crash. You have orders to begin passive range of motion exercises with him, and you want to teach his family, who are with the patient most of the time, how to perform them. What information regarding passive range of motion for the patient is important to share with the family?
A) Passive range of motion exercises will help maintain the patient's strength.
B) Passive range of motion activity will help maintain the patient's range of motion for functional activities.
C) Passive range of motion exercises will improve the patient's proprioception.
D) Passive range of motion activity will prevent pressure ulcers from developing.
Q4) Define range of motion. Be complete in your answer.
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Q1) When assisting a patient to sitting, one hand is placed over the humeral head of the shoulder that is against the bed. This hand placement is used because
A) force applied at the humeral head allows for an effective line of force.
B) force applied downward will facilitate abduction of the shoulder.
C) the humeral head creates a short lever arm, making it easier for the therapist to assist.
D) using the humeral head will ensure that your patient does not pull on you.
Q2) Your patient is a 79-year-old woman who fell on the ice and fractured her hip. She underwent a surgical procedure to repair the fracture and is now non-weight-bearing on the right leg. Which technique would you most likely use to assist her in scooting up in the bed?
A) Ask her to bend her left leg only and bridge, using her arms to assist.
B) Ask her to bridge and use her arms to help move herself up in bed.
C) Ask her to use the overhead trapeze and pull herself up.
D) Move her up using a draw sheet with two assistants.
Q3) List four indications and two contraindications for the use of a tilt table.
Q4) List the rationales for instructing your patient with hemiplegia to move from supine to sitting on each side of the bed.
Q5) What are at least three of the benefits of spending time in a seated position?
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best hand placement for the patient during a transfer to the left when a transfer board is used?
A) Left hand around the far end of the board for leverage
B) Left hand close to the hips, just under the axilla
C) Left hand open far out enough on the board to allow the hips to move left
D) Left hand through the opening in the board for leverage
Q2) Which of the following is the best way to prevent a patient with a partial weight-bearing restriction from putting too much weight on the affected leg during a transfer?
A) Have a technician hold up the involved leg during the transfer.
B) Have the patient extend the knee of the involved lower extremity.
C) Leave the involved leg on the wheelchair footrest during the transfer.
D) Tell the patient to hold the foot in the air and put no weight on it.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding use of a gait belt during transfers?
A) The belt can always prevent a patient from falling.
B) The belt is used primarily to control the motion of an unstable patient.
C) The belt provides the clinician with leverage to lift the patient effectively.
D) The belt should be used for all seated transfers.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient does not have functional strength in either of his lower extremities. Which of the following is the best way for this patient to begin a transition from the floor to a chair?
A) Half-kneeling, facing away from the chair
B) Half-kneeling, facing the chair
C) Kneeling facing away from the chair
D) Long-sitting, facing away from the chair
Q2) Your patient has recently undergone total right knee arthroplasty and is seated on a plinth with both feet resting on a stepstool. How should you instruct your patient to step down off the stepstool and onto the floor?
A) Step down first with the right foot.
B) Step down first with the left foot.
C) It does not matter which foot steps down first.
D) Step down with both feet simultaneously.
Q3) Transfers between chair and plinth are a variation of the squat-pivot transfer.
A)True
B)False
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77092
Sample Questions
Q1) Wheelchair selection is the domain of the durable medical equipment vendors and as such does not fall within the scope of skilled patient care.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When assisting a patient with wheelchair fitting, which of the following is the first goal in achieving postural stability?
A) Positioning the feet correctly
B) Positioning the head correctly
C) Positioning the pelvis correctly
D) Positioning the trunk correctly
Q3) The most common method of transporting a patient in a wheelchair up and down steps is to ascend the steps backward.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List three potential physical and physiological risks associated with independent wheelchair propulsion. ____________________
Q5) What is meant by "90-90-90"? ____________________.
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Q6) Why is a wheelchair considered a mobility orthosis?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding adjustment of assistive gait devices is true?
A) Upper-extremity effort is minimized when the device the fitted so that the elbow is flexed to approximately 45°.
B) Optimal elbow angles vary from device to device.
C) The hand grip of the device should come to the level of the pelvic crest.
D) Crutches and canes should be adjusted so that they fit when the patient is standing with the tips of the devices placed about 4 to 6 in. forward and 2 in. to the side.
Q2) Which of the following is not a technique used to initiate a sit-to-stand transfer when the patient has lower-extremity weakness?
A) Rocking to gain momentum
B) Using hip adduction to press the knees together
C) Bracing the lower legs against the chair
D) Extending both knees to place the feet farther away from the chair
Q3) To stabilize a patient who is in the process of a(n) ________________fall, the clinician attempts to bring the patient's CoM back over his or her BoS.
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