Physical Therapy Pathophysiology
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Physical Therapy Pathophysiology explores the underlying physiological changes associated with a wide range of diseases and disorders commonly encountered in physical therapy practice. This course examines how pathological processes alter normal body function, focusing on musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, neurological, and respiratory systems. Students learn to recognize clinical signs and symptoms, understand mechanisms of injury or illness, and apply pathophysiological principles to physical therapy assessment and intervention planning. Emphasis is placed on integrating foundational knowledge to inform safe, effective, and evidence-based patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pathophysiology 6th Edition by Huether
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42 Chapters
1238 Verified Questions
1238 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes?
A) By passive electrolyte channels
B) By coupled channels
C) By adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPase)
D) By diffusion
Answer: C
Q2) A nurse is reviewing a report from a patient with metastatic cancer.What alternation in the extracellular matrix would support the diagnosis of metastatic cancer?
A) Decreased fibronectin
B) Increased collagen
C) Decreased elastin
D) Increased glycoproteins
Answer: A
Q3) Which phase of catabolism produces the most ATP?
A) Digestion
B) Glycolysis
C) Oxidation
D) Citric acid cycle
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The condition in which an extra portion of a chromosome is present in each cell is called:
A) reciprocal translocation.
B) partial trisomy.
C) inversion.
D) Down syndrome.
Answer: B
Q2) A 20-year-old pregnant female gives birth to a stillborn child.Autopsy reveals that the fetus has 92 chromosomes.What term may be on the autopsy report to describe this condition?
A) Biploidy
B) Triploidy
C) Tetraploidy
D) Aneuploidy
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Epigenetics and Disease
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What comorbid condition does an individual diagnosed with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome have an increased risk of developing?
A) Cancer
B) Diabetes
C) Depression
D) Food allergies
Answer: A
Q2) Research has demonstrated that neural stem cells have an impaired ability to differentiate into functional neurons when subjected to:
A) ethanol.
B) marijuana.
C) insufficient nutrients.
D) poor oxygenation.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old male sustained a closed head injury as a result of a motor vehicle accident.CT scan revealed a collection of blood between the inner surface of the dura mater and the surface of the brain.Which type of injury will the nurse be caring for?
A) Subdural hematoma
B) Epidural hematoma
C) Contusion
D) Abrasion
Q2) An 86-year-old female patient has the wasting syndrome of aging, making her vulnerable to falls, functional decline, disease, and death.The nurse knows this patient is experiencing:
A) frailty.
B) sarcopenia.
C) somatic death.
D) cellular aging.
Q3) Confirmation of somatic death is based on:
A) presence of algor mortis.
B) presence of livor mortis.
C) complete cessation of respiration and circulation.
D) change in skin color to pale yellow.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Fluids and Electrolytes, Acids and Bases
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organ system should the nurse monitor when the patient has long-term potassium deficits?
A) Central nervous system (CNS)
B) Lungs
C) Kidneys
D) Gastrointestinal tract
Q2) A 70-year-old male with chronic renal failure presents with edema.Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?
A) Increased capillary oncotic pressure.
B) Decreased interstitial oncotic pressure.
C) Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure.
D) Increased interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
Q3) For a patient with respiratory acidosis, chronic compensation by the body will include:
A) kidney excretion of H<sup>+</sup>.
B) kidney excretion of HCO<sub>3</sub>.
C) prolonged exhalations to blow off CO<sub>2</sub>.
D) protein buffering.
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Chapter 6: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with a parasite.Which lab result should the nurse check for a response to the parasite?
A) Monocytes
B) Eosinophils
C) Neutrophils
D) Macrophages
Q2) A 35-year-old male is diagnosed with lobar pneumonia (lung infection).Which of the following exudates would be present in highest concentration at the site of this advanced inflammatory response?
A) Serous
B) Purulent
C) Hemorrhagic
D) Fibrinous
Q3) A 25-year-old female experiences a headache and takes aspirin for relief.A nurse recalls aspirin relieves the headache by:
A) decreasing leukotriene production.
B) increasing histamine release.
C) decreasing prostaglandin production.
D) increasing platelet-activating factor.
8
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Chapter 7: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is responsible for initiating clonal selection?
A) T cells
B) B cells
C) Antigens
D) Lymphocytes
Q2) A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard.He experiences a severe allergic reaction and has to go to the ER.The nurse providing care realizes this reaction is the result of:
A) toxoids.
B) IgA.
C) IgE.
D) IgM.
Q3) A patient has a disease state that results from the secretion of toxins by bacteria.Which medical diagnosis will the nurse see documented on the chart?
A) Malaria
B) Tetanus
C) Smallpox
D) Hepatitis
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Chapter 8: Infection and Defects in Mechanisms of Defense
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 15-year-old male suffers from severe hemorrhage following a motor vehicle accident.He is given a blood transfusion, but shortly afterward the red blood cells are destroyed by agglutination and lysis.Which of the following blood type transfusion type matches would cause this?
A) A-A
B) B-O
C) AB-O
D) A-AB
Q2) In addition to matching ABO antigens, a blood transfusion must also be matched for:
A) HLA type.
B) Rh antigen.
C) immunoglobulins.
D) platelet compatibility.
Q3) What common symptom should be assessed in individuals with immunodeficiency?
A) Anemia
B) Recurrent infections
C) Hypersensitivity
D) Autoantibody production
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Chapter 9: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-year-old female is arriving at a national spelling bee contest.Her heart starts beating faster and harder, and she begins to sweat.Which of the following is she experiencing?
A) Anticipatory response
B) Homeostasis
C) Reactive response
D) Exhaustion stage
Q2) When teaching about the stress-age syndrome, what information should the nurse include? (select all that apply)
A) Decreased cortisol secretion
B) Decreased thyroxine
C) Immunodepression
D) Increased catecholamine secretion
E) Hypercoagulation of the blood
F) Free-radical damage
Q3) Which of the following hormones enhances myocardial contractility?
A) Oxytocin
B) Prolactin
C) Epinephrine
D) Somatotropin
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Chapter 10: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which genetic change causes alterations in only one or a few nucleotide bases?
A) Insertions
B) Deletions
C) Point mutations
D) Amplification mutations
Q2) What is the effect of telomere caps on cancer cells?
A) Repeated divisions
B) Clonal distinction
C) Limited mitosis
D) Mutation abilities
Q3) A 45-year-old male presents with persistent, severe stomach pain.Testing reveals a peptic ulcer.Further laboratory tests reveal the presence of Helicobacter pylori.Which of the following is of concern for this patient?
A) Gastric cancer
B) Leukemia
C) Lung cancer
D) Adenocarcinoma of the colon
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A water test recently revealed arsenic levels above 200 mcg/L.Which of the following cancers would be most likely to develop in those who consistently drank the water?
A) Liver
B) Skin
C) Colon
D) Kidney
Q2) Which of the following patients would be at greatest risk for basal cell carcinoma?
A) Dark complexion, light eyes, underweight
B) Light complexion, dark eyes, overweight
C) Medium complexion, light eyes, smoker
D) Light complexion, light eyes, fair hair
Q3) When an oncologist is teaching about how radiation induces genomic instability, which topic should the oncologist discuss?
A) Increasing hypersensitivity
B) Facilitating new mutations
C) Promoting cell death
D) Enhancing mitosis
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Chapter 12: Cancer in Children
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an aide asks why carcinomas rarely occur in childhood, how should the nurse respond? (select all that apply)
A) Carcinomas cannot develop in an immunosuppressed environment.
B) Carcinomas need a long time from exposure to occurrence.
C) Carcinomas are due to environmental exposures.
D) Carcinomas occur primarily in secondary sexual organs.
E) Carcinomas are mesodermal.
Q2) The nurse explains to a parent that young children diagnosed with Down syndrome are at higher risk for developing:
A) nephroblastoma.
B) rhabdomyosarcoma.
C) leukemia.
D) retinoblastoma.
Q3) What is the origin of most childhood cancers?
A) Placenta
B) Environment
C) Mesodermal germ layer
D) Neural tube
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14
Chapter 13: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching about the area of the spinal cord that contains cell bodies involved in the autonomic nervous system.Which of the following areas is the nurse discussing?
A) Anterior horn
B) Ventral horn
C) Lateral horn
D) Dorsal horn
Q2) A nurse is preparing to teach about functions to maintain homeostasis and instinctive behavioral patterns.Which area of the brain is the nurse discussing?
A) Thalamus
B) Medulla
C) Cerebellum
D) Hypothalamus
Q3) When a presynaptic neuron is stimulated in a patient's body by an electrical current, neurotransmitters are released from the:
A) synapse.
B) synaptic bouton.
C) synaptic cleft.
D) receptor.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Pain, Temperature, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young child presents to the ophthalmologist for visual difficulties secondary to eye deviation.One of the child's eyes deviates inward, thereby decreasing the visual field.Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
A) Entropia
B) Extropia
C) Diplopia
D) Nystagmus
Q2) When the nurse is taking a patient's temperature, which principle should the nurse remember? Regulation of body temperature primarily occurs in the:
A) cerebrum.
B) brainstem.
C) hypothalamus.
D) pituitary gland.
Q3) Exogenous pyrogens are:
A) interleukins.
B) endotoxins.
C) prostaglandins.
D) corticotropin-releasing factors.
Q4) Fever of unknown origin (FUO)is characterized by a fever of ____° F or greater.
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics, and Motor Function
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse recalls that neural systems basic to cognitive functions include _____ systems.(select all that apply)
A) attentional
B) memory and language
C) affective
D) sensory and motor
E) tactile
Q2) A patient presents to the emergency room (ER)reporting excessive vomiting.A CT scan of the brain reveals a mass in the:
A) skull fractures.
B) thalamus.
C) medulla oblongata.
D) frontal lobe.
Q3) The breathing pattern that reflects respirations based primarily on carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>)levels in the blood is:
A) Cheyne-Stokes.
B) ataxic.
C) central neurogenic.
D) normal.
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Chapter 16: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 15-month-old child from Pennsylvania was brought to the ER with symptomology that includes fever, seizure activity, cranial palsies, and paralysis.Which form of encephalitis is best supported by the available assessment data?
A) Eastern equine encephalitis
B) Venezuelan encephalitis
C) St. Louis encephalitis
D) West Nile encephalitis
Q2) A coup injury resulting from a blow to the frontal portion of the skull would occur in which region of the brain?
A) Frontal
B) Temporal
C) Parietal
D) Occipital
Q3) Patient teaching is considered successful regarding myasthenia gravis when the patient identifies its cause as being:
A) viral infection of skeletal muscle.
B) atrophy of motor neurons in the spinal cord.
C) demyelination of skeletal motor neurons.
D) autoimmune injury at the neuromuscular junction.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-year-old has been diagnosed with bacterial meningitis.What should the nurse expect to find on the lab report for the most common cause of this bacterial meningitis?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Neisseria meningitidis
C) Streptococcus pneumonia
D) Escherichia coli
Q2) What nutrient should the nurse encourage a woman in the early stages of pregnancy to consume to prevent neural tube defects?
A) Protein
B) Iron
C) Vitamin D
D) Folic acid
Q3) During infancy, what is the fastest growing part of the human body?
A) Spinal cord
B) Limb bones
C) Head
D) Vertebral column
Q4) The percent of retinoblastomas that are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait is ____%.
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Chapter 18: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the patient has a problem with the pineal gland, which substance would the nurse monitor?
A) Melatonin
B) Epinephrine
C) Cortisol
D) Somatostatin
Q2) What can trigger ACTH to be released?
A) High serum levels of cortisol
B) Hypotension
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Stress
Q3) Which organ contains prolactin-inhibiting factor's target tissue?
A) Hypothalamus
B) Anterior pituitary
C) Mammary glands
D) Posterior pituitary
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Chapter 19: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with SIADH.What severe complication should the nurse assess for?
A) Stroke
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Neurologic damage
D) Renal failure
Q2) The body's inability to conserve water and sodium when affected by Addison disease is explained by which of the following conditions?
A) Elevated levels of cortisol
B) Decreased levels of ACTH
C) Hypersecretion of ADH
D) Aldosterone deficiency
Q3) What is the cause of type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM)?
A) A familial, autosomal dominant gene defect
B) Obesity and lack of exercise
C) Immune destruction of the pancreas
D) Hyperglycemia from eating too many sweets
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21
Chapter 20: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the: A) erythrocytes.
B) spleen pulp.
C) bone marrow.
D) liver tissue.
Q2) A nurse is discussing a cell that can differentiate into any tissue type.Which term is the nurse describing?
A) Hematopoietic
B) Pluripotent
C) Blastocyst
D) Progenitor
Q3) Erythropoietin is produced in the: A) liver.
B) bone marrow.
C) kidneys.
D) spleen.
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22
Chapter 21: Alterations of Hematologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia.In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?
A) Hyperactivity
B) Spoon-shaped nails
C) Gait problems
D) Petechiae
Q2) A 65-year-old experienced loss of appetite, weight loss, lemon-yellow skin, liver enlargement, and a beefy red tongue shortly before her death.Autopsy suggested pernicious anemia, and the cause of death would most likely reveal:
A) brain hypoxia.
B) liver hypoxia.
C) heart failure.
D) kidney failure.
Q3) The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?
A) United States
B) Japan
C) Denmark
D) Netherlands
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an infant has hydrops fetalis, which type of thalassemia does the nurse suspect?
A) Beta minor
B) Beta major
C) Alpha minor
D) Alpha major
Q2) A 6-year-old male presents with fatigue, jaundice, and irritability.A blood smear shows the presence of sickled cells.Erythropoiesis is compromised in this child; which crisis should the nurse monitor the patient for?
A) Vaso-occlusive crisis
B) Sequestration crisis
C) Aplastic crisis
D) Hyperhemolytic crisis
Q3) Testing reveals that a child has hemophilia A.This bleeding disorder results from a deficiency in factor:
A) IX.
B) XII.
C) XIII.
D) VIII.
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24
Chapter 23: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old received trauma to the chest that caused severe impairment of the primary pacemaker cells of the heart.Which of the following areas received the greatest damage?
A) Atrioventricular (AV) node
B) Sinoatrial (SA) node
C) Bundle of His
D) Ventricles
Q2) What represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarization?
A) PR interval
B) QRS complex
C) QT interval
D) P wave
Q3) Local myogenic regulation of blood vessel diameter and thus blood flow through a vessel is an example of:
A) autonomic regulation.
B) somatic regulation.
C) autoregulation.
D) metabolic regulation.
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Chapter 24: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult is diagnosed with cerebral aneurysm.Where does the nurse suspect the cerebral aneurysm is located?
A) Vertebral arteries
B) Basilar artery
C) Circle of Willis
D) Carotid arteries
Q2) Individuals with Raynaud disease need to be counseled to avoid which of the following conditions to prevent severe symptoms?
A) Allergic reactions
B) Cold exposure
C) Hot water immersion
D) Tissue injury
Q3) A 49-year-old male presents reporting chest pain.EKG reveals ST elevation.He is diagnosed with myocardial ischemia.Which of the following interventions would be most beneficial?
A) Administer a diuretic to decrease volume.
B) Apply oxygen to increase myocardial oxygen supply.
C) Encourage exercise to increase heart rate.
D) Give an antibiotic to decrease infection.
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Chapter 25: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn child is diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot.What symptoms would the nurse expect to observe in the child?
A) High-pitched cry and dyspnea
B) Cyanosis and hypoxia
C) Leg pain and twitching
D) Epistaxis and anemia
Q2) What is the most common type of congenital heart defect assessed for in infants?
A) Atrial septal defect (ASD)
B) Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
C) Tetralogy of Fallot
D) Atrioventricular canal defect
Q3) An infant undergoes an echocardiogram for a suspected heart defect.Tests reveal an opening in the middle of the atrial septum.What term would the nurse use to describe this defect?
A) Ostium primum
B) Ostium secundum
C) Sinus venosus
D) Eisenmenger syndrome
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Chapter 26: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under most circumstances, increased work of breathing results in:
A) increased partial pressure of O<sub>2</sub> in the lungs.
B) increased oxygen consumption.
C) decreased PaCO<sub>2</sub>.
D) alterations in alveolar perfusion.
Q2) The nurse is describing the slit-shaped space between the true vocal cords.What term should the nurse use?
A) Glottis
B) Epiglottis
C) Larynx
D) Carina
Q3) What term is used to describe receptors that respond to increased pulmonary capillary pressure?
A) Irritant receptors
B) Chemoreceptors
C) Stretch receptors
D) J-receptors
Q4) ____% of oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)enters the bloodstream bound to hemoglobin.
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Q5) At sea level, the partial pressure of oxygen is approximately ___% (round to the nearest whole number).
Chapter 27: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pneumonia is caused by:
A) use of anesthetic agents in surgery.
B) atelectasis.
C) chronic lung changes seen with aging.
D) viral or bacterial infections.
Q2) A 50-year-old male is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism (PE).Which of the following symptoms most likely occurred before treatment is initiated?
A) Dry cough and inspiratory crackles
B) Shallow respirations and wheezing
C) Chest pain and shortness of breath
D) Kussmaul respirations and back pain
Q3) A 30-year-old is diagnosed with emphysema.Changes in this patient's lungs are caused by:
A) viral infections.
B) destruction of alveolar macrophages.
C) <sub>1</sub>-antitrypsin deficiency.
D) fibrotic lung disease.
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Chapter 28: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-year-old is diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea.When the parents ask, the nurse shares that the initial treatment will be:
A) tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy (T&A).
B) weight loss.
C) continuous positive airway pressure.
D) drug therapy.
Q2) A 5-year-old presents with high fever, inspiratory stridor, severe respiratory distress, drooling, and dysphagia.Acute epiglottitis is suspected.When assessing the child the nurse would avoid:
A) trying to keep the child calm.
B) examining the throat for redness.
C) auscultating the child's respiratory rate.
D) counting the heart rate apically.
Q3) A 13-year-old female is diagnosed with asthma.Which of the following should the nurse teach the patient to recognize as a part of an asthmatic attack?
A) Headache
B) Chest pain
C) Wheezing
D) Low heart rate
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a nurse is checking the urinalysis, plasma proteins should be absent from the urine because:
A) all filtered proteins are subsequently reabsorbed.
B) the texture of the covering surrounding plasma proteins interferes with reabsorption.
C) filtered proteins are subsequently degraded before elimination.
D) the negative charge of the glomerular filtration membrane repels the plasma proteins.
Q2) When discussing the functional unit of the kidney, what term should the nurse use?
A) Calyx
B) Nephron
C) Collecting duct
D) Pyramid
Q3) The glomerular filtration rate (GFR)is directly related to the:
A) perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries.
B) oncotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries.
C) vascular resistance in the glomerular arterioles.
D) hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman's capsule.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 29-year-old female presents with cloudy urine, flank pain, and hematuria.These signs and symptoms support which diagnosis?
A) Acute cystitis
B) Renal calculi
C) Chronic renal failure
D) Postrenal renal failure
Q2) When a 42-year-old is diagnosed with chronic renal failure, which dietary restriction will the nurse discuss with the patient?
A) Fats
B) Complex carbohydrates
C) Proteins
D) Sugars
Q3) A 55-year-old presents reporting urinary retention.Tests reveal a lower urinary tract obstruction.Which of the following is of most concern to the nurse?
A) Vesicoureteral reflux and pyelonephritis
B) Formation of renal calculi
C) Glomerulonephritis
D) Increased bladder compliance
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Chapter 31: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11304
Sample Questions
Q1) The life expectancy of infants who are diagnosed with bilateral renal agenesis is expected to be:
A) death within 1 year of birth.
B) a fairly normal, healthy life.
C) death within a few hours of birth.
D) good when anomalies are corrected with surgery.
Q2) Upon examination of a male infant, it is determined that the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis.The nurse will document this condition as:
A) hypospadias.
B) epispadias.
C) hydroureter.
D) cryptorchidism.
Q3) If nephrotic syndrome is not caused initially by kidney disease, it is termed _____ nephrotic syndrome.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) idiopathic
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Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11305
Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient who is trying to get pregnant asks where the usual site of fertilization is, how should the nurse respond?
A) The uterus.
B) The fimbriae.
C) The ampulla of the fallopian tubes.
D) The os of the fallopian tubes.
Q2) Which term is used to describe the thick middle layer of the uterine wall?
A) Epithelial layer
B) Endometrium
C) Myometrium
D) Perimetrium
Q3) A nurse recalls the _____ is lined with columnar epithelial cells.
A) perimetrium
B) endocervical canal
C) myometrium
D) vagina
Q4) A 25-year-old female has a menstrual cycle of 28 days' duration and asks the nurse what day of the cycle will ovulation occur.The nurse responds that ovulation will most likely occur on day _____.
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Chapter 33: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with endometriosis.Suppressing which of the following would be the most appropriate medical treatment for this disease?
A) Infection
B) Ovulation
C) Prostaglandins
D) Fertilization
Q2) A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with ovarian cancer.CT scan reveals that the cancer is limited to the ovaries.It would be classified as stage:
A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.
Q3) Conditions that contribute to dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)include: (select all that apply)
A) polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS).
B) obesity.
C) thyroid disease.
D) hepatitis.
E) excessive exercise.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old sexually active male presents with urethritis and epididymitis, and is diagnosed with the most common bacteria STI in the United States.What is this infection?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Chlamydia
D) Herpes
Q2) The patient's medication has a side effect of gynecomastia.The nurse would respond that gynecomastia is:
A) lack of breast development in women.
B) overdevelopment of breast tissue in males.
C) a type of breast cancer.
D) inflammation of the mammary glands.
Q3) A 38-year-old presents reporting difficulty having sexual intercourse because his penis curves during erection.What term describes this condition?
A) Phimosis
B) Cryptorchidism
C) Paraphimosis
D) Peyronie disease
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Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the liver, free bilirubin moves from the plasma in the sinusoids into the hepatocytes, where it is converted into:
A) unconjugated bilirubin.
B) biliverdin.
C) conjugated bilirubin.
D) urobilinogen.
Q2) The function of the acinar cells of the pancreas is to secrete:
A) bicarbonate.
B) enzymes.
C) mucus.
D) electrolytes.
Q3) Which of the following liver cells are phagocytic?
A) Glisson
B) Kupffer
C) Meissner
D) Lieberkühn
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) An analysis of most gallstones would reveal a high concentration of:
A) phosphate.
B) bilirubin.
C) urate.
D) cholesterol.
Q2) A 56-year-old is diagnosed with gastric ulcers.Which of the following characterizes this disorder? (select all that apply)
A) Pain occurs immediately after eating
B) Anorexia
C) History of NSAID use
D) Occurrence is typically a single event
E) Occur more frequently in females
Q3) A 54-year-old reports vomiting blood.Tests reveal portal hypertension.Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?
A) Thrombosis in the spleen
B) Cirrhosis of the liver
C) Left ventricular failure
D) Renal stenosis
Q4) Obesity is defined as a body mass index (BMI)greater than _____.
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 6-month-old male infant is brought to the ER after the sudden development of abdominal pain, irritability, and vomiting followed by passing of "currant jelly" stool.Ultrasound reveals intestinal obstruction in which the ileum collapsed through the ileocecal valve.Which term is used to describe this type of obstruction?
A) Prolapse
B) Pyloric stenosis
C) Intussusception
D) Imperforation
Q2) Where does the nurse expect the obstruction to be in a patient with extrahepatic portal hypertension?
A) Sinusoids
B) Bile ducts
C) Hepatic portal vein
D) Hepatic artery
Q3) A sign that a newborn infant may have pyloric stenosis is:
A) diarrhea.
B) bile regurgitation.
C) olive-sized mass in the upper abdomen.
D) ascites with a fluid wave visible across the abdomen.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which stage of muscle contraction does actin bind to myosin?
A) Coupling
B) Relaxation
C) Discharging
D) Excitation
Q2) Which characteristic of a postural muscle is a result of having substantial amounts of type I muscle fibers?
A) Resists fatigue
B) Rapid response time
C) Little contractibility
D) Lacks a fascia lining
Q3) Clusters of which type of bone cells are responsible for bone remodeling?
A) Trabeculae
B) Osteoclastic cutting cones
C) Basic multicellular units
D) Haversian system cells
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a 70-year-old female presents with a hip fracture she is diagnosed with osteoporosis.One factor that most likely contributed to her condition is:
A) increased androgen levels.
B) decreased estrogen levels.
C) strenuous exercise.
D) excessive dietary calcium.
Q2) To make a diagnosis of fibromyalgia, tenderness must be present in ____ of the 18 points necessary for diagnosis.
Q3) A 32-year-old male was injured in a motor vehicle accident and confined to bed for 3 weeks.During this time, the size and strength of muscle fibers decreased, a condition referred to as:
A) myelodysplasia.
B) ischemic atrophy.
C) disuse atrophy.
D) fibromyalgia.
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Incidence of Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP)disease peaks at age______.
Q2) The onset of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)most often occurs at:
A) 3-6 months of age.
B) preschool years.
C) school age.
D) the onset of puberty.
Q3) A 22-year-old female whose brother is diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)wants to know if her children will inherit it.A fairly accurate test to identify female carriers of the disease is measurement of serum levels of:
A) dystrophin.
B) myoglobin.
C) creatine kinase (CK).
D) troponin 1.
Q4) A 9-month-old was diagnosed with osteogenesis imperfecta (OI).This disease is caused by:
A) uterine teratogens.
B) a genetic defect.
C) malnutrition.
D) trauma.
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Chapter 41: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Q1) A 25-year-old paralyzed male develops a dermal pressure ulcer.When assessing the patient's skin, which finding is the first indication of this ulcer?
A) Redness
B) Whiteness
C) Indurations
D) Ulceration
Q2) A client is burned through all the dermis with only a few epidermal appendages intact.This burn is classified as:
A) first degree.
B) superficial partial-thickness.
C) deep partial-thickness.
D) third degree.
Q3) A 52-year-old female diagnosed with systemic scleroderma is at risk for which complication?
A) Cutaneous vasculitis
B) Raynaud phenomenon
C) Cellulitis
D) Infection
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Chapter 42: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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18 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acne vulgaris involves inflammation of the:
A) hair follicles.
B) sebaceous follicles.
C) eccrine glands.
D) apocrine glands.
Q2) A 6-year-old presents with slightly umbilicated, dome-shaped lesions on the skin of the trunk, face, and extremities.The child is diagnosed with molluscum contagiosum caused by a highly contagious:
A) bacterium.
B) virus.
C) fungus.
D) parasite.
Q3) A 4-month-old develops oral white spots and shallow ulcers.The pediatrician diagnoses thrush which is caused by:
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Streptococcal bacteria.
C) Candida albicans.
D) Staphylococcal bacteria.
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