Physical Therapy Pathophysiology
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Physical Therapy Pathophysiology examines the underlying mechanisms and biological processes that contribute to disease, injury, and physical dysfunction as they relate to the practice of physical therapy. The course explores key concepts in cellular injury, inflammation, tissue healing, and the progression of acute and chronic conditions affecting various body systems such as musculoskeletal, neurological, cardiovascular, and respiratory systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding how pathophysiological changes influence movement, functional limitations, and the rationale for physical therapy interventions. Students will apply foundational knowledge to case studies and clinical scenarios, developing critical thinking skills necessary for effective assessment and treatment planning in physical therapy practice.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
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28 Chapters
1204 Verified Questions
1204 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A situation when there is a higher than expected number of cases of an infectious disease within a given area is called a/an:
A) epidemic.
B) exacerbation.
C) morbidity.
D) pandemic.
Answer: A
Q2) The best definition of the term prognosis is the:
A) precipitating factors causing an acute episode.
B) number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness.
C) predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease.
D) exacerbations occurring during chronic illness.
Answer: C
Q3) The term disease refers to:
A) the period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state.
B) a deviation from the normal state of health and function.
C) the treatment measures used to promote recovery.
D) a basic collection of signs and symptoms.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compensation mechanisms in the body for dehydration would include:
A) increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
B) decreased aldosterone.
C) slow, strong heart contraction.
D) peripheral vasodilation.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following would likely be related to an elevated hematocrit reading?
A) Fluid excess
B) Fluid deficit
C) Increased sodium level
D) Decreased erythrocytes
Answer: B
Q3) The control center for thirst is located in the:
A) kidneys.
B) thalamus.
C) medulla.
D) hypothalamus.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the route of administration by which the largest proportion of the drug dose is likely lost before reaching the site of action?
A) Oral
B) Intramuscular
C) Sublingual
D) Intravenous
Answer: A
Q2) Antagonistic drugs may be used to:
A) increase the effectiveness of selected drugs.
B) prolong the action of a drug.
C) act as an antidote when necessary.
D) speed up the excretion of a drug.
Answer: C
Q3) Contraindications printed on the label of a drug identify:
A) those circumstances under which the drug should probably not be used.
B) those typical side effects associated with this drug.
C) the dosage limits associated with the use of the drug.
D) the maximum shelf life of the medication.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a common analgesic administered to control a moderate level of pain?
A) Meperidine
B) Acetaminophen
C) Codeine
D) Ibuprofen
Q2) A headache that results from pressure on the meninges surrounding the brain is referred to as a/an:
A) intracranial headache.
B) intrameningeal headache.
C) migraine headache.
D) cerebral headache.
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) The brain is more aware of pain impulses when the reticular activating system is depressed.
B) Acute pain does not cause a reflex response at the spinal cord synapses.
C) Young infants typically respond to pain with tachycardia and increased blood pressure.
D) Chronic pain is easier to tolerate without negative effects.
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6
Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are correct statements regarding wound healing EXCEPT:
A) Resolution occurs where there is minimal tissue damage and the cells can recover.
B) Granulation tissue forms a permanent replacement for damaged tissue.
C) Regeneration occurs where the cells are capable of mitosis.
D) Scar tissue forms where the surrounding cells are incapable of mitosis.
Q2) How does scar tissue usually cause obstructions to develop in tube-like structures?
A) Scar tissue continues to grow and spread, causing a blockage.
B) Scar tissue does not stretch, but rather shrinks in time, causing narrowing.
C) Scar tissue twists and forms knots as it develops.
D) Scar tissue attaches to nearby normal tissue, causing obstruction.
Q3) The cardinal signs of inflammation include all of the following EXCEPT: A) redness.
B) loss of function.
C) nausea.
D) swelling.
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Chapter 6: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors would NOT increase the virulence of a specific microbe?
A) Secretion of endotoxin
B) Presence of a bacterial capsule
C) Production of interferons
D) Secretion of invasive enzymes
Q2) Which of the following is a local sign of infection?
A) Fever and leukocytosis
B) Headache and anorexia
C) Pain, erythema, and swelling
D) Nausea, weight loss, and fatigue
Q3) Prions cannot be cultured in a PETRI plate of media because:
A) they take so long to grow.
B) they require extensive amounts of specialized nutrients.
C) they are proteinaceous particles, not living organisms.
D) they are viruses that don't grow on conventional media.
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Chapter 7: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by:
A) a chronic allergic condition.
B) development of an immune-deficient state.
C) a deficiency of T lymphocytes.
D) immune complex deposits of antinuclear antibodies.
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding immunoglobulins is TRUE?
A) They consist of a unique sequence of amino acids.
B) They are produced in the red bone marrow.
C) They are attached to mucosal membranes at entry points into the body.
D) IgA binds to allergens.
Q3) Which statement is TRUE regarding infants born to HIV-infected mothers?
A) Infants usually test negative for HIV after birth.
B) There is little risk of infected mothers passing the virus to their infants during delivery.
C) Breast milk does not contain HIV or antibodies.
D) Infants test positive for HIV because of the presence of maternal antibodies.
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9
Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following skin lesions are usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
A) Furuncles
B) Verrucae
C) Scabies
D) Tinea
Q2) Which lesion distinguishes Tinea corporis?
A) Small, brown pruritic lines
B) Painful and pruritic fissures
C) Erythematous ring of vesicles with a clear center
D) Firm, red, painful nodule or pustule
Q3) Choose the correct match of the skin condition and its usual location.
A) Scabies-fingers, wrists, waist
B) Impetigo-legs, feet
C) Pediculosis humanus corporis-scalp
D) Seborrheic keratosis-feet, hands
Q4) Which type of microbe causes Tinea infections?
A) Fungus
B) Virus
C) Gram-negative bacterium
D) Mite
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rickets results from:
A) excessive bone resorption by osteoclasts.
B) a deficit of vitamin D and phosphates.
C) replacement of bone by fibrous tissue.
D) hyperparathyroidism.
Q2) Systemic effects of rheumatoid arthritis are manifested as:
A) nodules in various tissues, severe fatigue, and anorexia.
B) headache, leukopenia, and high fever.
C) swelling and dysfunction in many organs.
D) progressive damage to a joint.
Q3) How is the articular cartilage damaged in rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Enzymatic destruction by the pannus
B) Inflamed synovial membrane covers the cartilage
C) Fibrous tissue connects the ends of the bones
D) Blood supply to the cartilage is lost
Q4) How does the joint appear during an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Relatively normal
B) Enlarged, firm, crepitus with movement
C) Deformed, pale, and nodular
D) Red, warm, swollen, and tender to touch
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Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following applies to erythropoietin?
A) It is produced by the liver.
B) It increases iron absorption for heme production.
C) It stimulates production of red blood cells.
D) Hypoxia stimulates the red bone marrow to produce erythropoietin.
Q2) Thrombophilia can result in conditions such as:
A) severe chronic kidney disease.
B) peripheral vascular disease.
C) deficient calcium levels in the long bones.
D) excessive bleeding of hematomas.
Q3) Petechiae and purpura are common signs of:
A) excessive hemolysis.
B) leucopenia.
C) increased bleeding.
D) hemoglobin deficit.
Q4) In individuals with pernicious anemia, antibodies form to:
A) vitamin B<sub>12</sub>.
B) intrinsic factor or parietal cells.
C) mucus-producing glands.
D) hydrochloric acid.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A rare illness that involves the overgrowth of lymphoid tissue, although not itself considered a cancer is:
A) Castleman disease.
B) hyperlymphatic disease.
C) hypolymphatic disease.
D) Ann Arbor disease.
Q2) The function of the hormones secreted by the thymus gland is to:
A) break down old erythrocytes and recycle the hemoglobin.
B) concentrate the lymph and filter out toxins.
C) stimulate lymph production.
D) enable lymphocytes to develop into mature T cells.
Q3) The spleen has a number of important functions, which include:
A) lymph production, hematopoiesis, platelet production.
B) hematopoiesis, destruction of old erythrocytes, blood reservoir.
C) defense from infection, metabolism of vitamins, platelet production.
D) lipid metabolism, production of hemoglobin, water absorption.
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13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the period immediately following a myocardial infarction, the manifestations of pallor and diaphoresis, rapid pulse, and anxiety result from:
A) onset of circulatory shock.
B) the inflammatory response.
C) release of enzymes from necrotic tissue.
D) heart failure.
Q2) In patients with congestive heart failure, ACE inhibitor drugs are useful because they:
A) reduce renin and aldosterone secretion.
B) slow the heart rate.
C) strengthen myocardial contraction.
D) block arrhythmias.
Q3) Typical early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction include:
A) brief, substernal pain radiating to the right arm, with labored breathing.
B) persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse.
C) bradycardia, increased blood pressure, and severe dyspnea.
D) flushed face, rapid respirations, left-side weakness, and numbness.
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lobar pneumonia is usually caused by:
A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) Legionella pneumophila.
D) Pneumocystis carinii.
Q2) Select the statement related to tuberculosis:
A) The microbe is present in the sputum of all patients with a positive TB skin test.
B) The infection is transmitted primarily by blood from an infected person.
C) TB is usually caused by an acid-fast bacillus, resistant to many disinfectants.
D) The microbe is quickly destroyed by the immune response.
Q3) How is primary tuberculosis identified?
A) Cavitation in the lungs and spread of the microbe to other organs
B) Persistent productive cough, low-grade fever, and fatigue
C) Caseation necrosis and formation of a tubercle in the lungs
D) Multiple granulomas in the lungs and rapid spread of the microbe
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15
Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is marked by focal signs?
A) Meningitis
B) Brain abscess
C) Encephalitis
D) Intracerebral hemorrhage
Q2) As intracranial pressure rises, the pupil of the eye, ipsilateral to the lesion, becomes dilated and unresponsive to light because of pressure on the:
A) optic nerve.
B) peripheral nervous system (PNS) fibers in cranial nerve III.
C) sympathetic nervous system (SNS) nerve to the eye.
D) occipital lobe.
Q3) What does the term otorrhea mean?
A) Bleeding from the nose.
B) CSF leaking from the ear.
C) Torn meninges but no skull fracture.
D) Hemorrhage from the ear.
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Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does otosclerosis cause hearing loss?
A) Fixation of the stapes to the oval window
B) Adhesions between the ossicles
C) Fibrosis in the tympanic membrane
D) Overgrowth of bone obstructing the auditory tube
Q2) Which of the statements apply to infection of the eye by Staphylococcus aureus?
1) It involves the conjunctiva.
2) It is highly contagious.
3) It is commonly known as "pinkeye."
4) It usually causes keratitis and permanent visual loss.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q3) The area providing the greatest visual acuity is the:
A) Macula lutea
B) Fovea centralis
C) Optic disc
D) Lens
17
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes Addison's disease?
A) Increased glucocorticoids
B) Decreased glucocorticoids
C) Deficit of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
D) Deficit of T<sub>3</sub> and T<sub>4</sub>
Q2) Which of the following often causes hyperparathyroidism?
A) A malignant tumor in the parathyroid glands
B) End-stage renal failure
C) Osteoporosis
D) Radiation involving the thyroid gland and neck area
Q3) Goiters may be caused by:
A) hypothyroid conditions only.
B) either hypothyroid or hyperthyroid conditions.
C) hyperthyroid conditions only.
D) fungal infections such as candidiasis.
Q4) What causes loss of consciousness in a person with diabetic ketoacidosis?
A) Toxic effects of excessive insulin
B) Excessive glucose in the blood
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) Lack of glucose in brain cells
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the typical changes occurring with Crohn's disease?
A) Degeneration and flattening of the villi in the small intestine
B) Multiple herniations of the mucosa through weak areas of the muscularis
C) A continuous area of mucosal inflammation and ulceration in the rectum and colon
D) Inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum alternating with thick fibrotic or normal areas
Q2) In which structure is oxygenated blood (arterial) mixed with unoxygenated blood (venous) so as to support the functions of the structure?
A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Small intestine
D) Spleen
Q3) What is the likely effect of long-term exposure to a hepatotoxin?
A) Full recovery to normal tissue after the toxic material has been removed
B) Acute onset of vomiting, steatorrhea, and jaundice
C) Continued mild inflammation of the liver without permanent damage
D) Gradual irreversible damage to the liver and cirrhosis
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Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why may acute pyelonephritis and cystitis follow untreated prostatitis?
A) Microbes spread through the circulation.
B) Antibodies have not yet formed.
C) There is no effective treatment.
D) There is a continuous mucosa along the involved structures.
Q2) Cystitis is more common in females because:
A) the mucosa in the urinary tract is continuous.
B) the urethra is short, wide, and adjacent to areas with resident flora.
C) the pH of urine is more acidic in females.
D) females have a higher incidence of congenital anomalies.
Q3) Which of the following does NOT usually result from nephrosclerosis?
A) Secondary hypertension
B) Chronic renal failure
C) Acute renal failure
D) Increased renin and aldosterone secretions
Q4) Which of the following indicates the early stage of acute renal failure?
A) Polyuria with urine of fixed and low specific gravity
B) Hypotension and increased urine output
C) Development of decompensated acidosis
D) Very low GFR and increased serum urea
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Testicular cancer usually spreads first to the:
A) lungs.
B) bone.
C) pelvic lymph nodes.
D) brain.
Q2) Which of the following STDs is considered to be a systemic infection?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Chlamydia
C) Syphilis
D) Condylomata acuminate
Q3) Which statement about spermatogenesis is TRUE?
A) The complete process takes about 28 days.
B) Maturation of sperm takes place in the seminal vesicles.
C) It is controlled by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone.
D) The process is initiated after each ejaculation.
Q4) Which of the following applies to benign prostatic hypertrophy?
A) The tumor usually becomes malignant in time.
B) The gland becomes small, nodular, and firm.
C) Manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and frequency.
D) Lower abdominal or pelvic pain develops.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor provides the basis for the grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors?
A) Size of the tumor
B) Number of metastases
C) Degree of differentiation of the cells
D) Number of lymph nodes involved
Q2) Vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment because:
A) the gastrointestinal tract is irritated.
B) the chemicals stimulate the emetic center.
C) the drugs have an unpleasant odor.
D) A and B
Q3) Antiangiogenesis drugs act on a malignant tumor by:
A) promoting the immune response and removal of abnormal tumor cells.
B) blocking hormonal stimulation of tumor cells.
C) reducing blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells.
D) transporting radioisotopes into the tumor.
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Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be detected using amniotic fluid?
A) Chromosomal abnormalities
B) Metabolic disorders
C) Certain structural abnormalities
D) All the above
Q2) What is an example of a multifactorial congenital disorder?
A) Type AB blood
B) Down syndrome
C) Color blindness
D) Cleft lip and palate
Q3) A mother is a carrier of Duchenne muscular dystrophy; the father is unaffected. They have one son with muscular dystrophy. Another male child is expected. The probability of the second son having muscular dystrophy is:
A) 100%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 0%
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Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
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Q1) Adolescent pregnancy is often considered high risk because of:
A) inadequate prenatal care.
B) poor nutrition and lack of vitamin supplements.
C) iron deficiency anemia.
D) All of the above
Q2) Diagnosis of pregnancy is confirmed through elevated serum levels of:
A) hCG.
B) testosterone.
C) AFP.
D) aldosterone.
Q3) Which of the following is a serious potential complication of abruptio placentae indicated by low serum levels of clotting factors?
A) Severe hypertension
B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
C) Jaundice
D) Thromboembolism
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Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
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Q1) Which of the following would confirm reduced normal linear growth during adolescence?
A) Levels of androgens
B) Abnormally thin epiphyseal plate seen on X-ray
C) Lack of a broader pelvis in males
D) Development of kyphosis
Q2) Obesity in adolescents is:
A) determined by calculating body mass index (BMI).
B) a significant factor in a teen's self-image.
C) related to increased intake of high fat and high carbohydrate snacks, "fast foods."
D) All of the above
Q3) What is a lateral curvature of the spine called?
A) Lordosis
B) Kyphosis
C) Scoliosis
D) Kyphoscoliosis
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25
Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the increasing life span of the general population?
A) Reduced cognitive and social activities
B) Improved living conditions
C) Better nutrition
D) Advancements in health care
Q2) The term given to the change that occurs in women at around age 50 with the cessation of the menstrual cycle is:
A) menopause.
B) dysmenorrhea.
C) amenorrhea.
D) menarche.
Q3) What is a major factor leading to increased occurrence of cancer in the elderly?
A) Widespread vascular degeneration
B) Cumulative exposure to carcinogens
C) Hereditary factors
D) Increased immune surveillance
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26
Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
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Q1) Immobility may lead to dehydration primarily as a result of:
A) changes in hormonal secretions due to increased blood in the thorax.
B) destruction of the kidneys as a result of ischemia and necrosis.
C) blockage of the ureters, causing retention of urine.
D) toxins being produced by infectious microorganisms.
Q2) Lack of weight-bearing and skeletal muscle activity for a prolonged period leads to:
A) bone demineralization.
B) lengthening of tendons and ligaments.
C) decreased skeletal muscle mass.
D) A and C
Q3) Prolonged immobility may predispose to ___________ in the kidneys.
A) urinary stasis
B) renal calculi
C) infection
D) All of the above
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Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
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Q1) In which of the following situations would the stress response be used to prevent blood pressure from dropping too low?
A) Increasing anger during an argument
B) Writing a final examination
C) Fear about a medical diagnosis
D) Internal hemorrhage from injuries in a car accident
Q2) Severe, prolonged stress may cause acute renal failure or stress ulcers to develop as a result of:
A) a deficit of glucose and oxygen in the body.
B) the development of decompensated acidosis.
C) prolonged vasoconstriction and ischemia.
D) the supply of hormones having been exhausted.
Q3) Selye defined three stages in the stress response. The third stage is designated as the:
A) alarm stage.
B) resistance stage.
C) stage of exhaustion.
D) maladaptive stage.
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28
Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
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Q1) When an increased dosage of a drug causes toxic effects, it is called:
A) synergism.
B) neurostimulant.
C) overdose.
D) detoxification.
Q2) What is physiological dependence?
A) An intense emotional need for a drug in order to function
B) Adaptation of the body to a drug, resulting in withdrawal signs after the drug is discontinued
C) The need for an ever-increasing dose to produce the same effect
D) Continuing to take a drug when it is not required medically
Q3) Which of the following statements is characteristic of alcohol?
A) It is primarily a CNS stimulant.
B) It may cause congenital defects in infants born to alcoholic mothers.
C) It does not interact with other drugs in the CNS.
D) It usually causes severe kidney damage.
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Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
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Q1) Inhalants can be:
A) a particulate such as asbestos.
B) gaseous, such as sulfur dioxide.
C) a solvent, such as benzene.
D) A, B, and C
Q2) During the development of hyperthermia, the state of heat exhaustion is indicated when:
A) body core temperature is very high.
B) skeletal muscle spasms occur.
C) hypovolemia and fainting occur.
D) the cool-down process is too rapid.
Q3) Which of the following is considered carcinogenic?
A) Lead
B) Carbon monoxide
C) Inhaled particulates
D) Mercury
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