Physical Therapy Modalities
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Physical Therapy Modalities focuses on the fundamental principles and applications of various therapeutic interventions used in physical therapy practice. The course covers a range of physical agents and modalities, including thermal, electrical, light, and mechanical therapies, used to manage pain, promote tissue healing, reduce inflammation, and improve functional mobility. Emphasis is placed on the physiological effects, indications, contraindications, proper usage, safety precautions, and outcome measurement of each modality. Students will engage in both theoretical learning and hands-on laboratory experiences to develop the skills necessary for evidence-based clinical decision-making and effective patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Modalities 4th Edition by Chad Starkey
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Chapter 1: The Injury Response Process
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Q1) Which is an accurate statement regarding the effect of modalities and the healing process?
A) Modalities attempt to provide the optimal environment for healing to occur.
B) Most modalities can speed up the healing of an injury.
C) Modality devices are primarily used to alter the body's psychological status to provide a good healing environment.
D) The stage of the healing process does not influence which modality is used.
Answer: A
Q2) What segment of a neuron is responsible for transmitting impulses toward the nerve body?
A) Dendrites
B) Axons
C) Electrical synapses
D) Chemical synapses
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Physiology and Psychology of Pain
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Q1) Which therapeutic modalities can provide mechanical pain reduction by removing swelling,restoring joint motion,decreasing pressure on nerve endings,and restoring blood flow? Select all that apply.
A) Intermittent compression
B) Continuous passive motion
C) Shortwave diathermy
D) Electrical stimulation
E) Cervical/lumbar traction
Answer: A,B,E
Q2) In pain control theory,which is considered a secondary pain control approach?
A) Target the perception of pain
B) Resolve physiological pain triggers
C) Decrease mechanical irritation
D) Decrease chemical irritation
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Development and Delivery of Intervention Strategies
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Q1) When treatment planning,what largely determines the types of modalities that will resolve a pathology?
A) Stage of the healing process
B) Length of application
C) Amplitude at which the modality is applied
D) Type of insurance carried by the patient
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following are considered external factors that affect the development of a treatment plan? Select all that apply.
A) Expertise of the staff
B) Financial constraints
C) Type of available equipment
D) Patient's motivation
E) Support the patient receives from friends and family
Answer: A,D,E
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Administrative Considerations
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Q1) What term best describes the tort when there is a duty to act but a failure to perform the act?
A) Malfeasance
B) Misfeasance
C) Nonfeasance
D) Malpractice
Q2) What term best identifies defamation of character through printed or electronic media?
A) Libel
B) Liability
C) Slander
D) Negligence
Q3) What can you be charged with if you provide care without consent in a nonemergent situation? Select all that apply.
A) Tort
B) Professional negligence
C) Battery
D) Slander
E) Mischief
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Thermal Modalities
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Q1) Which nerves are most susceptible to cold-induced neuropathy? Select all that apply.
A) Ulnar
B) Peroneal
C) Femoral
D) Tibial
E) Radial
Q2) Heat produces vasodilation through a combination of what mechanisms? Select all that apply.
A) Arteriole smooth muscle relaxes
B) Capillary smooth muscle relaxes
C) Release of neurotransmitters and peptides
D) Spinal level reflex
E) Cerebral cortex level reflex
Q3) What factors will influence skin temperature? Select all that apply.
A) Ambient temperature
B) Humidity
C) Exercise
D) Food consumption
E) Mood
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Chapter 6: Clinical Application of Thermal Modalities
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Q1) How many layers of terry-cloth towel should be placed between the skin and moist heat pack?
A) 3
B) 6
C) 9
D) 12
Q2) Cold whirlpools are able to produce which effects? Select all that apply.
A) Decreased muscle spasm
B) Decreased muscle spasticity
C) Muscle relaxation
D) Increased cellular metabolism
E) Increased blood flow to the area treated
Q3) Which technique commonly uses a layer of insulation without detriment to the therapeutic effects of the modality?
A) Reusable cold pack
B) Plastic bag with crushed ice
C) Cold compression therapy unit
D) Chemical cold pack
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8
Chapter 7: Therapeutic Ultrasound
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Q1) What temperature increase is required to decrease muscle spasm and pain?
A) 1°C
B) 2 to 3°C
C) 3 to 4°C
D) 5°C
Q2) Which medications commonly administered via phonophoresis target nerves,muscles,and subcutaneous tissues? Select all that apply.
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Dexamethasone 0.4 percent
C) Myoflex
D) Lidocaine
E) Benzydamine
Q3) Ultrasound with continuous output produces energy 100 percent of the time.In what terms is the output measured?
A) Spatial average intensity
B) Spatial average temporal peak intensity
C) Spatial average temporal average intensity
D) Spatial average peak-to-peak intensity
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9
Chapter 8: Clinical Application of Therapeutic Ultrasound
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Q1) At a depth of 5 cm,what rate will tissue temperature increase when 1-MHz ultrasound is used at 2 W/cm<sup>2</sup>?
A) 0.04°C/minute
B) 0.2°C/minute
C) 0.3°C/minute
D) 0.4°C/minute
Q2) When applying underwater ultrasound,about how far should the ultrasound head be from the body part?
A) 1 cm
B) 2 cm
C) 1 in.
D) 2 in.
Q3) In which of the following scenarios is the use of therapeutic ultrasound contraindicated? Select all that apply.
A) Over lumbar region of menstruating female
B) Over sites of active infection
C) Ischemic area
D) Joint contracture
E) Over an area with scar tissue
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Shortwave Diathermy
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Q1) Which of the following are similar between shortwave diathermy and ultrasound?
A) Thermal and nonthermal effects
B) Volume of tissue treated
C) Bone's reflection of energy
D) Depth of treatment
Q2) Which of the following statements is accurate regarding inductive shortwave diathermy?
A) The generator produces the greatest heat directly adjacent to the coil.
B) The amount of heating is highly dependent on water content.
C) The heating is tissue-type specific.
D) Inductive is considered safer than capacitive.
Q3) According to the practical evidence,what is one of the most common clinical uses of shortwave diathermy?
A) Osteoarthritic knees
B) Hip flexor strain
C) Posterior thigh muscle spasm
D) Deep-vein thrombosis
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Chapter 10: Clinical Application of Shortwave Diathermy
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Q1) Which of the following contraindicate the use of shortwave diathermy? Select all that apply.
A) Cancer
B) Thrombophlebitis
C) Sinusitis
D) Hematoma
E) Muscle spasm
Q2) Which of the following heating modalities is capable of penetrating all the tissues of the body?
A) Ultrasound
B) Shortwave diathermy
C) Warm whirlpool
D) Moist heat pack
Q3) At moderate intensities,what is an appropriate treatment duration for shortwave diathermy?
A) 5 to 10 min
B) 10 to 20 min
C) 20 to 30 min
D) 60 min
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Principles of Electrical Stimulation
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Q1) What parameter of interferential current identified as the distance from the peak on the positive side of the baseline to the peak on the negative side?
A) Peak-to-peak amplitude
B) Peak value
C) Cycle duration
D) Peak frequency
Q2) What property of electrical current identifies the maximum distance that the pulse rises above or below the isoelectric point?
A) Amplitude
B) Phase duration
C) Pulse width
D) Pulse charge
Q3) What is used to measure a material's resistance to the movement of electrons?
A) Ampere
B) Henry
C) Ohm
D) Mho
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13
Chapter 12: Electrical Stimulation Techniques
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Q1) Due to summation,at what pulse frequency do individual muscle contractions become less distinguishable?
A) Less than 15 pps
B) 15 to 25 pps
C) 30 to 40 pps
D) 40 to 50 pps
Q2) Which is an accurate statement regarding the use of motor-level stimulation to reduce swelling?
A) Motor-level stimulation has more clinical efficacy than the sensory-level stimulation.
B) If the generator does not allow for a duty cycle,a high-pulse frequency-60 to 100 pps-should be used.
C) High-voltage pulsed stimulation is the only current that can be utilized to reduce swelling via motor-level stimulation.
D) According to the practical evidence,motor-level swelling reduction is most effective during the acute inflammatory phase of injury response.
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14
Chapter 13: Clinical Application of Electrical Agents
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Q1) Which of the following are indications for the use of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation? Select all that apply.
A) Acute pain
B) Increasing local blood flow
C) Postsurgical pain
D) Pain of unknown origin
E) Muscle reeducation
Q2) What electrotherapy agent strictly uses a monophasic current?
A) Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
B) High-voltage pulsed stimulation (HVPS)
C) Interferential stimulation (IFS)
D) Neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES)
Q3) Most effects of electrical stimulation are the direct result of stimulation to what? Select all that apply.
A) Sensory nerves
B) Motor nerves
C) Adipose tissue
D) Fascia
E) Muscle fibers
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Intermittent Compression
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Q1) According to the practical evidence,in comparison to intermittent compression,constant compression units are primarily used for what two purposes?
A) Preventing swelling and assisting in venous return
B) Preventing swelling and activating the lymphatic return mechanism
C) Activating the lymphatic return mechanism and assisting in venous return
D) Assisting in venous return and reduce ecchymosis
Q2) Which are indications for the use of intermittent compression as a treatment? Select all that apply.
A) Post-traumatic edema
B) Postsurgical edema
C) Prevention of deep-vein thrombosis
D) Dermatitis
E) Acute pulmonary edema
Q3) What is the normal pressure range when using intermittent compression to treat the upper extremity?
A) 30 to 60 mm Hg
B) 10 to 30 mm Hg
C) 60 to 100 mm Hg
D) 100 to 120 mm Hg
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Continuous Passive Motion
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Q1) Which form of continuous passive motion device allows for compensatory motion between the patient's extremity and the carriage of the device?
A) Free linkage design
B) Anatomic design
C) Nonanatomic design
D) Locked linkage design
Q2) Which of the following is not a benefit realized through the use of continuous passive motion?
A) Increased strength
B) Decreased apprehension to joint movement after surgery
C) Restoration of range of motion
D) Decreased functional shortening of muscle
Q3) After surgery,continuous passive motion is typically used for ___hours a day.
A) 8 to 10
B) 2 to 4
C) 4 to 6
D) 6 to 8
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Chapter 16: Cervical and Lumbar Traction
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Q1) To distract the vertebrae,the force applied must overcome the sum of resistance.What factors create the sum of resistance? Select all that apply.
A) Weight of the body part
B) Tension of the soft tissue
C) Force of friction between patient and table
D) Force of gravity
E) Weight of the traction cable
Q2) What plane is associated with the use of either a flexion or extension traction angle?
A) Transverse plane
B) Frontal plane
C) Sagittal plane
D) Frontal and sagittal plane
Q3) What type of traction is best suited for treating degenerative disk disease of the cervical spine?
A) Sustained traction with a flexion angle
B) Sustained traction with an extension angle
C) Intermittent traction with a flexion angle
D) Intermittent traction with an extension angle
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18
Chapter 17: Therapeutic Massage
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Q1) Due to the possibility of misuse,many states require what type of regulation for massage therapists?
A) Licensure
B) Certification
C) Registration
D) No regulation is required.
Q2) What is the most fundamental form of myofascial release?
A) J-stroke
B) Focused stretching
C) Skin rolling
D) Diagonal release
Q3) Which of the following accurately describes a general form of myofascial release application?
A) Stabilize distal portion with one hand while applying a stretch with the other.
B) Pull the tissues in opposite directions.
C) Use the patient's body weight to stabilize the extremity while a transverse stretch is applied.
D) Stabilize the superior with one hand while stretching with the other.
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Chapter 18: Electromyographic Biofeedback
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Q1) The benefits of biofeedback can be enhanced by performing which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Educating the patient on the concept of biofeedback
B) Incorporating learning strategies
C) Setting patient goals
D) Providing verbal feedback from the clinician while producing muscle contraction
E) Educating the patient on the physiology of muscle contractions
Q2) What step in the electromyographic biofeedback signal process involves taking the absolute value of the negative electrical activity and making it a mathematically positive number?
A) Amplification
B) Integration
C) Rectification
D) Identification
Q3) The most sensitive EMG surface monitors have electrodes made with what metal?
A) Silver
B) Zinc
C) Gold
D) Copper
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Low-Level Laser Therapy
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Q1) Current evidence suggests that the biophysical benefits of laser are related to what?
A) Photomechanical or photothermal effects
B) Photochemical or photothermal effects
C) Photomechanical or photochemical effects
D) Photomechanical,photochemical,and photothermal effects
Q2) Effects of laser therapy that occur from the absorption of photons are termed "indirect effects."
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement is true concerning a gallium arsenide (GaAs)laser?
A) GaAs is produced by a semiconductor diode chip.
B) GaAs produces a visible red light.
C) GaAs energy can penetrate tissues up to 5 cm deep.
D) GaAs delivers a light wave at 670 nm.
Q4) What laser wavelength is associated with infrared light?
A) Greater than 780 nm
B) Less than 380 nm
C) 520 nm
D) 670 nm
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