Chapter 3: Development and Delivery of Intervention Strategies
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Q1) Which factors should be considered when determining if a therapeutic modality would be effective in treating a specific condition? Select all that apply.
A) What is the cost of the therapeutic modality?
B) Does the modality produce the physiological response to promote healing?
C) Can the modality affect the target tissue?
D) Does the device improve patient outcomes?
E) What is the ease of applying the modality?
Answer: B,C,D
Q2) When treatment planning,what largely determines the types of modalities that will resolve a pathology?
A) Stage of the healing process
B) Length of application
C) Amplitude at which the modality is applied
D) Type of insurance carried by the patient
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Administrative Considerations
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Q1) All therapeutic equipment must be inspected and calibrated by a qualified technician at least _____________.
A) yearly
B) weekly
C) monthly
D) twice a year
Q2) When assessing for the possibility of professional negligence,what forms the benchmark for determining if care provided was standard or substandard? Select all that apply.
A) Professional standards of practice
B) Facility policies and procedures manual
C) State practice acts
D) Best practice standards
E) Patient opinion
Q3) Current Procedural Terminology (CPT)codes were established by what organization?
A) Health Care Finance Administration (HCFA)
B) National Center for Health Statistics
C) American Hospital Association (AHA)
D) American Medical Association (AMA)
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Thermal Modalities
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Q1) Which nerves are most susceptible to cold-induced neuropathy? Select all that apply.
A) Ulnar
B) Peroneal
C) Femoral
D) Tibial
E) Radial
Q2) Which is a primary hemodynamic effect of cold application?
A) Arteriole vasodilation
B) Increased blood viscosity
C) Increased blood flow
D) Capillary vasoconstriction
Q3) Maximum analgesia occurs when skin temperature drops to approximately ____°F,which occurs after around 20 minutes after ice pack application.
A) 58
B) 28
C) 32
D) 45
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Chapter 6: Clinical Application of Thermal Modalities
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Q1) What type of whirlpool should be used when utilizing the technique for wound cleansing or debridement?
A) Tile tub
B) Spa-type tub
C) Stainless sub
D) In-ground tub
Q2) What is the only true benefit from the use of a vapocoolant spray?
A) Temporary pain relief
B) Decreased swelling
C) Decreased muscle spasm
D) Decreased cell metabolism
Q3) What factors should be considered when determining the duration of cold pack treatment application? Select all that apply.
A) Type of tissue being targeted
B) Depth of the target tissue
C) Amount of overlying adipose tissues
D) Nerves that innervate the target tissue
E) Amount of hair on the skin overlying the target tissue
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8
Chapter 7: Therapeutic Ultrasound
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Q1) When using ultrasound,what depth of tissue will a 3-MHz output frequency effectively treat?
A) 1 cm
B) 2 to 3 cm
C) 3 to 4 cm
D) 4 to 5 cm
Q2) Over which areas can ultrasound be applied when caution is used? Select all that apply.
A) Vertebral column
B) Nerve roots
C) Large nerve plexus
D) Heart
E) Genitals
Q3) Due to its _____frequencies,ultrasound is unable to pass through the air and requires a dense transmission medium.
A) high
B) low
C) alternating
D) medium
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Clinical Application of Therapeutic Ultrasound
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Q1) Which of the following are indications for the use of therapeutic ultrasound? Select all that apply.
A) Spasticity
B) Warts
C) Neuroma
D) Stress fracture
E) Ischemic area
Q2) In which of the following scenarios is the use of therapeutic ultrasound contraindicated? Select all that apply.
A) Over lumbar region of menstruating female
B) Over sites of active infection
C) Ischemic area
D) Joint contracture
E) Over an area with scar tissue
Q3) Which of the following represents a good ultrasound setup if nonthermal effects are desired?
A) Duty cycle of 25 percent and an intensity of 0.5 W per centimeter
B) Duty cycle of 25 percent and an intensity of 1.5 W per centimeter
C) Duty cycle of 50 percent and an intensity of 0.5 W per centimeter
D) Duty cycle of 50 percent and an intensity of 1.5 W per centimeter
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Chapter 9: Shortwave Diathermy
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Q1) Due to the complexity of setup and the potential for burns,what method is infrequently used?
A) Drum
B) Cable
C) Electrode
D) Pan
Q2) What is an accurate statement regarding the heat generated via induction field diathermy?
A) The amount of heat depends only on the strength of the magnetic field.
B) Increasing the distance between the source of the electromagnetic field and the tissue will increase the heating.
C) Heat is produced via the dipole effect.
D) Increased adipose tissue thickness will reduce the rate and magnitude of heating.
Q3) Shortwave diathermy is a(n)__frequency electrical current that produces deep-tissue heating.
A) high-
B) low-
C) alternating
D) pulsed
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Clinical Application of Shortwave Diathermy
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Q1) Adjusting what control will allow the clinician to maximize the energy exchange between generator and patient?
A) Tuning
B) Output intensity
C) Interrupt switch
D) Pulse frequency
Q2) Which is a true statement concerning the application of shortwave diathermy with an inductive drum?
A) Nothing should be placed between the drum and skin.
B) In general,the drum should be placed approximately 0.5 to 1 inch from the skin.
C) There is a direct relationship between the distance of the drum from the skin and the intensity of energy needed to treat.
D) The surface of the drum should not be placed parallel to the skin.
Q3) Which of the following is a precaution when treating with shortwave diathermy?
A) Anesthetic area with nonthermal mode
B) Acute injury with thermal mode
C) Ischemic area
D) Fracture site
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Chapter 11: Principles of Electrical Stimulation
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Q1) When using a monophasic current,what parameters are synonymous and refer to the same aspect of the current? Select all that apply.
A) Pulse
B) Waveform
C) Phase
D) Amplitude
E) Pulse duration
Q2) What type of electrical current is identified by the fact that electron flow is interrupted by discrete periods of no electron flow?
A) Direct current
B) Alternating current
C) Pulsed current
D) Polyphasic current
Q3) When using an alternating current,how many times would a current of 100 Hz change its direction of flow in two seconds?
A) 50
B) 100
C) 150
D) 200
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Electrical Stimulation Techniques
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Q1) Which of the following are accurate statements concerning the size of electrode? Select all that apply.
A) As electrode size increases,current density increases.
B) Smaller electrodes require less current to stimulate tissue.
C) Large electrodes yield a more comfortable treatment when superficial nerves are targeted.
D) Most electrodes have a current density that must not be exceeded.
E) Larger electrodes yield a more comfortable treatment when there is an adipose layer greater than 2 cm.
Q2) Which of the following is considered a trigger point?
A) The skin surface area of a muscle that is hypersensitive to electrical current flow
B) A pathological and localized area of pain that is hypersensitive to electrical current flow
C) Site on the skin that has a decreased electrical resistance and increased conductivity
D) Areas of the skin that connect to deeper channels that allow systemic regulation of body function
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Chapter 13: Clinical Application of Electrical Agents
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Q1) What electrotherapy agent strictly uses a monophasic current?
A) Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
B) High-voltage pulsed stimulation (HVPS)
C) Interferential stimulation (IFS)
D) Neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES)
Q2) What are indications for the use of microcurrent electrical stimulation? Select all that apply.
A) Sprain
B) Neuropathies
C) Superficial wound healing
D) Hyperhidrosis
E) Myofascial pain syndrome
Q3) Which of the following are indications for the use of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation? Select all that apply.
A) Acute pain
B) Increasing local blood flow
C) Postsurgical pain
D) Pain of unknown origin
E) Muscle reeducation
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Intermittent Compression
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Q1) When using external compression to treat lower leg edema,pressures of ___have been shown to increase venous flow by 175 percent.
A) 35 to 55 mm Hg
B) 10 to 30 mm Hg
C) 65 to 95 mm Hg
D) 90 to 100 mm Hg
Q2) Through what mechanism(s)does external compression reduce pain? Select all that apply.
A) Decreasing mechanical pressure
B) Restoring normal joint range of motion
C) Restoring normal joint function
D) Reducing secondary cell death
E) Blocking the transmission of nociceptive signals
Q3) Compression units should not be used until what pathologies have been ruled out? Select all that apply.
A) Fracture
B) Compartment syndrome
C) Acute sprain
D) Acute strain
E) Chronic arthritis
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Chapter 15: Continuous Passive Motion
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Q1) Robert Salter originally proposed the use of continuous passive motion and hypothesized that its application would be beneficial in which ways? Select all that apply.
A) Enhancing the nutrition and metabolic activity of articular cartilage
B) Stimulating tissue remodeling and regrowth of articular cartilage
C) Accelerating the healing of articular cartilage,tendons,and ligaments
D) Accelerating the healing of muscle tissues
E) Stimulating an increase in muscular strength and metabolic activity
Q2) Continuous passive motion is more effective than static stretching when increasing range of motion due to soft tissue restriction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Throughout a range of motion,when is joint volume normally at its greatest?
A) Full extension
B) Full flexion
C) Midrange between flexion and extension
D) Volume does not change throughout a range of motion
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17
Chapter 16: Cervical and Lumbar Traction
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Q1) Which statement best describes sustained traction?
A) It is applied with a relatively small force for 45 minutes or less.
B) It is applied with a relatively small force for 60 minutes or more.
C) It is applied with a relatively large force for 45 minutes or less.
D) It is applied with a relatively large force for 60 minutes or more.
Q2) In general,what percentage of the body weight will cause separation of the cervical spine when the patient is in a reclined position?
A) 5 percent
B) 10 percent
C) 20 percent
D) 30 percent
Q3) Which pathology can eventually cause the formation of osteophytes,which can cause the vertebral column to straighten?
A) Degenerative disk disease
B) Disk protrusion
C) Nerve root compression
D) Facet joint pathology
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18
Chapter 17: Therapeutic Massage
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Q1) Which of the following is an indication for the use of friction massage and not petrissage?
A) Chronic conditions
B) Areas of multiple muscles
C) Superficial muscles
D) Realignment of scar tissue
Q2) Which is an accurate statement regarding self-myofascial release?
A) The athlete should start with a high-density foam roller.
B) The athlete should roll perpendicular to the muscle fiber direction.
C) The athlete should hold a location of hypersensitivity for a maximum of 30 seconds.
D) Self-myofascial release should be done only once a week due to resulting soreness.
Q3) Petrissage includes what actions? Select all that apply.
A) Lifting
B) Kneading
C) Rolling
D) Pulling
E) Tapping
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Chapter 18: Electromyographic Biofeedback
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Q1) According to the practical evidence,when is it most beneficial to incorporate electromyographic biofeedback in a neuromuscular rehabilitation?
A) Early on
B) Middle of the program
C) Toward the end of the program
D) Timing of application does not alter the benefits of biofeedback.
Q2) Which of the following modalities does not deliver energy to the body?
A) Ice pack
B) Moist heat pack
C) Ultrasound
D) Electromyographic biofeedback
Q3) When compared to standard flexibility exercises,the use of relaxation biofeedback has been shown to significantly increase flexibility in healthy individuals.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Low-Level Laser Therapy
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Q1) Which of the following is considered a primary effect of therapeutic laser treatment?
A) Vasodilation of microvessels
B) Decreased ATP production
C) Decreased collagen production
D) Decreased macrophage activity
Q2) In the United States,which of the following laser wavelengths is in the range considered to be therapeutic?
A) 200 nm
B) 500 nm
C) 1000 nm
D) 1500 nm
Q3) Lasers produce highly refined,_________light in the ultraviolet,visible,or infrared range.
A) monochromatic
B) bichromatic
C) trichromatic
D) multichromatic
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