Physical Therapy Interventions
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Physical Therapy Interventions explores the foundational and advanced techniques utilized by physical therapists to promote mobility, restore function, alleviate pain, and prevent disability in patients across the lifespan. This course covers the selection, application, and evaluation of evidence-based therapeutic modalities, exercise prescription, manual therapy, functional training, and therapeutic technologies. Emphasis is placed on critical clinical decision-making, individualized patient care plans, and the integration of interventions within interdisciplinary healthcare settings. Students will develop hands-on skills through practical sessions and case studies, preparing them for effective clinical practice in diverse populations and environments.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Exercise Foundations and Techniques 6th Edition by Carolyn Kisner
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Chapter 1: Therapeutic Exercise: Foundational Concepts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is performing pelvic tilt exercises for the first time and needs verbal and tactile cues (feedback)to perform this exercise correctly.This represents which stage of motor learning?
A) Cognitive
B) Contemplative
C) Associative
D) Autonomous
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following terms,associated with aspects of physical function,which can be modified by therapeutic exercise,is used to describe the ability of the neuromuscular system to statically or dynamically hold proximal or distal body segments in appropriate positions using synergistic muscle action?
A) Muscle strength
B) Muscle power
C) Coordination
D) Stability
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Prevention, health, and Wellness
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Q1) Each of the following is a prescreening question that should be addressed before participation in a health promotion program,except:
A) Have you ever been diagnosed with a heart condition?
B) What is your blood pressure and heart rate normally?
C) Do you experience chest pain when you do physical activity?
D) Do you ever lose your balance or lose consciousness?
Answer: B
Q2) An individual who perceives a threat of contracting a disease follows specific health recommendations to prevent or reduce the risk of contracting the disease.These behaviors are aligned with what behavioral change theory or model?
A) Social cognitive theory
B) Health belief model
C) Transtheoretical model
D) Risk assessment theory
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Range of Motion
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Q1) Which of the following positions offers the greatest protection of control of the upper extremity when performing self-assisted shoulder flexion AAROM using a dowel rod?
A) Side-lying
B) Supine
C) Sitting
D) Standing Answer: B
Q2) You've been doing AROM for the left hip abductors and you wish to progress your patient to work this muscle group against gravity.Which of the following positions would you place him in?
A) Supine
B) Prone
C) Left side-lying
D) Right side-lying
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Stretching for Impaired Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Safe and effective stretching to increase ROM requires all of the following except:
A) Proper alignment and patient positioning.
B) Stabilization of the proximal attachment of the muscle.
C) Use of gained ROM in active function.
D) Strengthening of the agonist.
Q2) Your patient has significant limitation in right shoulder external rotation.As you perform stretch interventions to improve ROM,you also need to develop strength in which of the following agonists?
A) Subscapularis
B) Anterior deltoid
C) Infraspinatus
D) Pectoralis minor
Q3) The ability of soft tissue to assume a new and greater length after a stretch force is removed is called:
A) Plasticity.
B) Viscoelasticity.
C) Elasticity.
D) Tissue memory.
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Chapter 5: Peripheral Joint Mobilizationmanipulation
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Q1) Which of the following terms best describes movements that a patient can control actively/voluntarily?
A) Joint play
B) Accessory movement
C) Physiological movement
D) Component movement
Q2) A long-axis distraction of the humerus provides which direction of gliding?
A) Anterior
B) Inferior
C) Posterior
D) Superior
Q3) Which of the following is a false statement about joint arthrokinematics?
A) The more congruent the joint surfaces,the more rolling of one joint surface on the other occurs.
B) In normal ovoid joints,rolling and sliding both occur.
C) If a moving joint surface is convex,sliding of that surface is opposite that of its swinging bone.
D) Movement of the head of the radius against the capitulum during pronation/supination is called spin.
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Chapter 6: Resistance Exercise for Impaired Muscle
Performance
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Q1) Which of the following best describes cross-training or cross-exercise,a phenomenon that has been observed as a result of resistance training?
A) When resistance exercise is carried out by a muscle,the antagonist to that muscle also shows an increase in strength.
B) When exercise is carried out concentrically against resistance,an increase in eccentric muscle strength in the same leg also occurs.
C) When resistance exercise is carried out by a muscle group on the right side of the body,small gains in strength occur in the same unexercised muscle on the opposite side of the body.
D) When training is carried out for the purpose of developing strength,muscular endurance also develops in that same muscle.
Q2) Which factors affect the amount of resistance provided by elastic resistance bands during exercise?
A) Length of the muscle and stretch of the band
B) Stretch of the band and speed of movement
C) Stretch of the band and angle of the band in relation to the moving bone
D) Angle of the band in relation to the moving bone and length of the muscle
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Principles of Aerobic Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about an exercise program that is carefully planned?
A) It can slow the decrease in functional capacity of the elderly individual.
B) The cooldown period is intended to encourage rapid return of blood to the extremities.
C) A program of continuous training is the most effective way to improve aerobic conditioning.
D) Venous return is reduced during the warm-up period as blood flow is shifted centrally from the periphery.
Q2) Each of the following is true about phase I of a cardiac rehabilitation program for a patient who has had a myocardial infarction (MI)except:
A) Phase I begins after the patient's cardiovascular status has been stabilized and while the patient is hospitalized.
B) Phase I usually lasts at least 7-10 days.
C) A purpose of phase I is to initiate patient education about reducing risk factors.
D) Phase I often involves monitoring the heart rate and rhythm via electrocardiogram during standing activities and low-intensity ambulation.
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9
Chapter 8: Exercise for Impaired Balance
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Q1) To maintain balance in condition 3 (standing on a firm surface wearing a dome)of the Clinical Test of Sensory Integration on Balance,a person must rely solely on:
A) Somatosensory and vestibular information.
B) Vestibular information.
C) Visual and somatosensory information.
D) Visual and vestibular information.
Q2) The vestibular system provides which of the following types of sensory information for balance control?
A) Muscle tension and length
B) Joint movement and position
C) Position of the head and body with respect to inertial forces
D) Position of the head relative to the environment
Q3) Individuals with somatosensory deficits in the lower extremities,such as peripheral polyneuropathies,tend to use which of the following motor strategies in response to balance disturbances?
A) Ankle strategy
B) Hip strategy
C) Stepping strategy
D) Suspensory strategy
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Aquatic Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following describes the most effective patient position and use of the buoyancy of water for self-stretching the hamstrings?
A) In a buoyancy-supported supine position (flotation devices around the neck and hips),perform a unilateral straight-leg raise,lifting the leg to be stretched out of the water.
B) With a buoyancy device secured around the distal thigh of the leg to be stretched,stand on the opposite leg and hold on to the side of the pool for balance.Keep the knee relaxed as the buoyancy device lifts the thigh and flexes the hip.
C) Sit on the steps of a pool in waist-deep water,hips flexed to 90S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0,with a buoyancy device secured around the ankle of the leg to be stretched.
D) With a buoyancy device secured around the ankle of the leg to be stretched,stand on the opposite leg and hold on to the side of the pool for balance.Allow the buoyancy device to lift the leg to the surface of the water with the knee extended.
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11
Chapter 10: Soft Tissue Injury,repair,and Management
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Q1) Your patient reports having had a sudden onset of severe pain in the left posterior thigh yesterday while sprinting.Today he is unable to fully extend his left knee while walking because of pain.Which of the following interventions are most appropriate today?
A) Passive knee flexion/extension with the hip flexed to 90°
B) Passive knee flexion/extension with the hip positioned in 0°<sup> </sup>extension
C) Active knee flexion but no passive or active extension
D) Submaximal resisted knee flexion in the prone-lying position
Q2) Progressing resistance and stretching exercises vigorously during the early subacute stage of soft tissue healing:
A) Decreases recovery time.
B) Prolongs the inflammation and adhesion formation.
C) Increases the strength of the healing tissues.
D) Helps scar tissue resolve more quickly.
Q3) Overuse syndromes occur:
A) As the result of repetitive,submaximal stress of a muscle or tendon.
B) As the result of a severe blow to a muscle.
C) As a result of prolonged immobilization.
D) Only if there is impaired circulation to soft tissue.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Joint,connective Tissue,and Bone Disorders and Management
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Q1) Your patient has osteoarthritis of the left hip and states he experiences hip and thigh pain after walking for more than 20 to 30 minutes.As a therapist,which of the following is the most appropriate intervention for you to recommend?
A) A period of complete rest or immobility
B) Application of heat and massage after periods of walking
C) Measures to decrease the mechanical stresses on the hip joint,such as use of a cane when walking over an extended period of time
D) Use of anti-inflammatory medication
Q2) A balance of bone resorption that equals bone replacement occurs normally during growth and development until peak bone mass is reached.This typically occurs:
A) About age 18 for females and 21 for males.
B) During the third decade of life.
C) At puberty.
D) During the sixth decade of life.
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13
Chapter 12: Surgical Interventions and Postoperative Management
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Q1) What is the term used to describe a postoperative rehabilitation program in which a patient is progressed from one phase of rehabilitation to the next based on the attainment of predetermined levels of performance?
A) Norm-based rehabilitation
B) Time-based rehabilitation
C) Phase-specific rehabilitation
D) Criterion-based rehabilitation
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about the use of autografts and allografts for repair of tissue lesions?
A) An autograft can be used to repair soft tissues,such as a torn ligament,but cannot be used for repair of articular cartilage lesions.
B) A risk associated with an autograft is potential weakening of a patient's otherwise healthy tissue at the donor site.
C) There is a greater risk of disease transmission with use of an autograft than an allograft.
D) There is a greater risk of graft failure with use of an autograft than an allograft.
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Chapter 13: Peripheral Nerve Disorders and Management
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Q1) Nonoperative management of carpal tunnel syndrome emphasizes:
A) Vigorous stretching to gain mobility of the structures in the carpal tunnel.
B) Activity modification and joint,nerve,and tendon mobilization.
C) Strengthening exercises,especially to the muscles of the thenar eminence.
D) Immobilization.
Q2) The chronic phase of recovery following nerve injury occurs when:
A) The patient has significant residual effects from lack of regeneration and must learn to compensate for lost function.
B) The nerve is regenerating,and strength and sensory recovery are emphasized in the rehabilitation program.
C) Innervation is complete and emphasis is placed on retraining and reeducation.
D) The surrounding connective tissue can withstand normal tensile stresses,and the patient can return to all functional activities.
Q3) The pain associated with CRPS type I (reflex sympathetic dystrophy)characteristically is:
A) Entirely psychogenic and responsive to antidepressants.
B) Intermittent and related to body and head position.
C) Out of proportion to the report of history of injury or precipitating event.
D) Always responsive to modalities,primarily cold and electrical stimulation.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Spine: Structure, function, and Posture
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Q1) The difference between a lordotic posture and a slouched posture is:
A) Only the lordotic posture has lumbar lordosis.
B) Flexion in the upper lumbar and lower thoracic spine with the slouched posture.
C) Extension of the pelvis on the femurs with the lordotic posture.
D) There is no difference;both affect the pelvis and lumbar spine the same way.
Q2) Spinal stability is provided by:
A) Elasticity of passive restraints.
B) Interaction of passive restraints and muscle control.
C) Interaction of muscle control modulated by the central nervous system and passive restraints.
D) Muscle activity maintaining balance in the neutral zone.
Q3) Your patient complains of cervical pain and headaches.You notice that she has a forward head and round back posture.The complaints could be derived from all of the following except:
A) Impingement on the neurovascular bundle from anterior scalene muscle tightness.
B) Increased tension in the muscles of mastication.
C) Irritation of the facet joints in the upper cervical spine.
D) Impingement of the suboccipital nerves.
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Chapter 15: The Spine: Management Guidelines
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Q1) To prevent adhesions from forming around a nerve root when an individual has an inflammation from a disk lesion,trauma,or surgery:
A) Passive press-ups should be taught.
B) Passive joint mobilizations should be done.
C) Passive straight-leg raises should be done.
D) Passive knee to chest should be done.
Q2) All of these are reasons to assess the thoracic spine during evaluation of patients who present with cervical spine dysfunction except:
A) The thoracic spine becomes unstable with pain and soft tissue dysfunction in the cervical spine.
B) The thoracic spine is prone to hypomobility.
C) There are common muscle attachments between the cervical and thoracic areas.
D) Joint manipulation performed along with high-velocity thrust of the thoracic spine often improves outcomes in patients with cervical complaints.
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17
Chapter 16: The Spine: Exercise and Manipulation
Interventions
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Q1) The quadratus lumborum is an important stabilizer of the spine in which planes of motion?
A) Frontal and sagittal
B) Sagittal and coronal
C) Transverse and frontal
D) Sagittal and transverse
Q2) Rhythmic stabilization exercises are important in a spinal rehabilitation program because they:
A) Develop postural muscle response to external disturbances.
B) Make the patient feel good.
C) Develop strength using isometric holds.
D) Develop awareness of the neutral spinal posture.
Q3) The first step in training a patient with spinal stabilization techniques should be:
A) Performing posterior pelvic tilt followed by alternating arm and leg motions.
B) Developing muscular endurance prior to strength.
C) Teaching awareness of safe spinal motions and functional position.
D) Developing control of extremity motions while in the functional position.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Shoulder and Shoulder Girdle
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Q1) Results of numerous outcome studies have demonstrated that the most predictable outcome after shoulder arthroplasty is:
A) Increased active shoulder ROM.
B) Increased shoulder-joint stability.
C) Pain relief.
D) Improved function of the rotator cuff mechanism.
Q2) Which of the following is an inappropriate component of an exercise program 1 to 3 weeks postoperatively for a patient without preoperative rotator cuff deficiency who underwent total shoulder replacement?
A) Wand exercises for active-assistive external rotation to neutral with the arm positioned near the side of the chest
B) Wand exercises for active-assistive shoulder extension (combined with internal rotation)by placing the wand behind the back and sliding it up the back
C) Pendulum exercises
D) Wand exercises for active-assistive elevation of the arm in the plane of the scapula to approximately 90S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 while in a supine or sitting position
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19
Chapter 18: The Elbow and Forearm Complex
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Q1) You place your patient's wrist in a splint because he is experiencing an acute episode of lateral epicondylitis.Which of the following is the least appropriate intervention while the inflamed soft tissue is healing?
A) Have the patient wear a splint to immobilize the wrist continuously for at least 2 weeks or until there is no pain.
B) Have the patient remove the splint several times each day and perform active or self-assisted ROM of the wrist within pain-free ranges.
C) Have the patient remove the splint several times a day and perform gentle muscle-setting exercises,elongating the involved muscle-tendon unit slightly after each contraction but not beyond the pain-free ranges.
D) Apply cross-fiber massage at the site of the lesion.
Q2) Current research shows that the "survival rate" for total elbow arthroplasty (TEA)is:
A) 30% over a 10-year period.
B) Greater for patients with RA than for those with traumatic arthritis or OA.
C) Highly correlated with the type of implant (prosthesis).
D) 82% over a 5.5-year period.
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20
Chapter 19: The Wrist and Hand
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Q1) Each of the following is true about the use of early controlled motion after tendon repair in the hand and forearm except:
A) When ROM exercises are initiated,they are performed within a protected range to minimize the risk of excessive stress on the repair site and gapping of the repaired tendon ends.
B) It has been shown to increase the tensile strength of the scar at the repair site more effectively than the use of prolonged immobilization after a surgical repair.
C) It is thought to improve synovial fluid diffusion,thereby improving tendon nutrition and promoting tendon healing.
D) It is used more often after extensor tendon repair than after flexor tendon repair.
Q2) During the subacute stage of soft tissue healing after injury and repair of the flexor tendons of the hand or forearm,each of the following is an important intervention except:
A) Scar management with pressure on the scar.
B) Tendon gliding exercises.
C) Gentle prolonged stretch.
D) Progressive resistance exercise.
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21
Chapter 20: The Hip
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Q1) In an elderly patient,which of the following types of hip fracture is managed most often with hemireplacement of the hip (hemiarthroplasty)?
A) Noncomminuted intertrochanteric fracture
B) Displaced subcapital (intracapsular)fracture
C) Unstable subtrochanteric fracture
D) Hemiarthroplasty is equally indicated for intracapsular and extracapsular fractures
Q2) When applying mobilization with movement (MWM)techniques at the hip with the patient lying on a table in the supine position,the primary purpose of the mobilization belt is to:
A) Apply a pain-free inferolateral glide of the femur.
B) Apply a pain-free inferior glide of the femur.
C) Apply a pain-free inferomedial glide of the femur.
D) Support the weight of the leg,making it easier for the therapist to perform the mobilization maneuvers.
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Chapter 21: The Knee
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Q1) You are seeing a patient to initiate exercises 5 days after reconstruction of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)with a patellar tendon autograft.During the first phase of the postoperative exercise program,your primary concern is:
A) Preventing contractures at the knee.
B) Preventing atrophy and reflex inhibition of the quadriceps.
C) Imposing controlled loads on the knee while protecting the graft from excessive stresses.
D) Preventing joint swelling.
Q2) Your patient reports a sudden onset of severe pain yesterday in the (L)posterior thigh while sprinting.Today he is unable to fully extend his (L)knee while walking because of pain.Which of the following interventions is most appropriate to use when initiating therapy today?
A) Passive knee flexion/extension within the pain-free range with the hip flexed to 90S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0
B) Passive knee flexion/extension within the pain-free range with the hip positioned in 0S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0<sup> </sup>extension
C) Active knee flexion but no passive or active extension
D) Submaximal resisted knee flexion in the prone-lying position
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Chapter 22: The Ankle and Foot
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Q1) Your patient has rheumatoid arthritis and is complaining of pain in her ankles and feet when walking.You observe her gait and notice short steps and poor push-off.This is consistent with what deformity in rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Everted calcaneus and pronated forefoot
B) Inverted calcaneus and pronated forefoot
C) Everted calcaneus and supinated forefoot
D) Inverted calcaneus and supinated forefoot
Q2) Each of the following is an expected improvement after total ankle arthroplasty for advanced arthritis except:
A) Increased mediolateral stability of the ankle.
B) Alleviation of pain.
C) Sufficient range of motion of the ankle for functional activities.
D) Decreased joint deformity.
Q3) Which one of the following ligaments of the ankle is most frequently stressed with an inversion sprain?
A) Posterior talofibular
B) Anterior talofibular
C) Calcaneofibular
D) Deltoid
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Advanced Functional Training
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Q1) Plyometric training drills are an example of an intervention to develop primarily which of the following?
A) Coordination
B) Power
C) Balance
D) Endurance
Q2) Which of the following accurately describes a method to progress the challenge of balance exercises?
A) Narrow to wide base of support
B) Standing activities to sitting activities
C) Open environment to closed environment
D) Low-magnitude to high-magnitude perturbations
Q3) Which of the following describes a proper progression of positions to increase balance and postural stability?
A) Standing to tall kneeling
B) Unilateral stance to tandem stance
C) Half-kneeling to sitting without foot support
D) Reaching activities in bilateral stance to unilateral stance
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25
Chapter 24: Womens Health: Obstetrics and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) During pregnancy,each of the following changes in the respiratory system occurs except:
A) Increased respiratory rate.
B) Increased O<sub>2</sub> consumption and increased work of breathing.
C) Relatively unchanged or slightly decreased total lung capacity.
D) State of hyperventilation throughout pregnancy.
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about diastasis recti?
A) It affects function of only the rectus abdominis muscle.
B) It is characterized by a separation of abdominal muscles at the linea alba.
C) Corrective exercise is recommended if the diastasis is greater than 1 cm.
D) The etiology during pregnancy is well understood.
Q3) Which of the following is true about sacroiliac (SI)joint pain experienced during pregnancy?
A) Pain often radiates from the buttock region,distally to the foot.
B) Asymmetrical lower extremity weight-bearing activities aggravate the pain.
C) Resting on a soft support surface typically alleviates the pain.
D) Hypomobility of the SI joint typically is evident.
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Chapter 25: Management of Lymphatic Disorders
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Q1) The treatment of lymphedema with compression therapy to the limb involves a combination of bandaging and use of compression garments.The decision of which type of compression to use depends on the phase of lymphedema treatment and the desired outcome.Which of the following is true regarding the proper utilization of compression treatment?
A) During phase II,a custom compression bandage or an Ace wrap can be used by the patient for self-management.
B) During phase I,only high-stretch bandages are used to provide continuous high resting and working pressure until limb reduction is achieved.
C) Low-stretch bandaging is used to achieve limb reduction in phase I and to continue limb reduction intervention at night during phase II.
D) Ace wraps are used during phase I to achieve limb reduction and during phase II to control limb size during vigorous activity.
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