Physical Therapy Interventions
Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of therapeutic interventions used in the field of physical therapy to restore, maintain, and promote optimal physical function and well-being. Students will learn to assess patient needs, develop treatment plans, and apply a range of evidence-based techniques, such as therapeutic exercises, manual therapy, modalities, and functional training. Emphasis is placed on the clinical reasoning process, patient safety, and adapting interventions to diverse populations and diagnoses. The course integrates theoretical foundations with practical application, preparing students for effective patient care in various clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Exercise Foundations and Techniques 6th Edition by Carolyn Kisner
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25 Chapters
448 Verified Questions
448 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Therapeutic Exercise: Foundational Concepts
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Part of a preseason testing program for high school athletes includes testing the stability of the glenohumeral and scapulothoracic joints.If you identify an athlete with signs of shoulder instability,you will suggest an exercise program designed to prevent or reduce the risk of injury during the season.This is an example of what type of prevention?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Indirect
Answer: B
Q2) In the ICF model of functioning and disability endorsed by the APTA,a rotator cuff tear is considered a(n):
A) Health condition.
B) Impairment.
C) Functional limitation.
D) Disability.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Prevention, health, and Wellness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the target audience for a program of physical activity designed for primary prevention of childhood obesity?
A) A group of morbidly obese children who have been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes
B) A group of mildly obese children who are identified as being "at risk" for type 2 diabetes
C) A group of mildly obese children
D) A group of sedentary children whose weight is within normal limits
Answer: D
Q2) All of the following risk factors are common to both coronary artery disease (CAD)and osteoporosis except:
A) Prolonged use of corticosteroids
B) Smoking
C) Sedentary lifestyle
D) Family history
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Range of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The common substitution for shoulder internal and external rotation to watch for in a patient positioned supine for self-ROM is:
A) Scapular elevation.
B) Trunk rotation.
C) Trunk lateral bend.
D) Elbow flexion and extension.
Answer: D
Q2) You've been doing AROM for the left hip abductors and you wish to progress your patient to work this muscle group against gravity.Which of the following positions would you place him in?
A) Supine
B) Prone
C) Left side-lying
D) Right side-lying
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Stretching for Impaired Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) To help reduce post-stretch soreness after stretching into shoulder flexion,cold should be applied with the limb in which of the following positions?
A) End-range shoulder flexion
B) End-range shoulder extension
C) Mid-range shoulder flexion
D) Cold is not recommended after a stretch.
Q2) You are asked to do "selective stretching" with a patient with a spinal cord injury.Which of the following best describes the concept of this particular technique?
A) The duration and frequency of the treatment sessions are limited to 5 minutes once a day as a precaution.
B) Active and passive stretching techniques are alternated so that the muscle spindle will regenerate.
C) You allow tightness of specific muscles to remain in order to optimize function.
D) PNF patterns are used to encourage reflexive responses.
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Chapter 5: Peripheral Joint Mobilizationmanipulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes an inappropriate procedure for safe and effective application of joint-mobilization techniques?
A) Combine a grade III distraction with a grade III sustained glide
B) Initiate joint mobilization procedures with the joint in the resting position of the joint
C) Combine a grade I distraction with a grade III sustained glide
D) Stabilize one of the articulating bones while applying the mobilization force close to the joint
Q2) To increase flexion of the shoulder,position the patient in the supine position,stabilize the scapula,and:
A) Place the glenohumeral joint in the resting position and apply a posterior glide of the humeral head.
B) Place the shoulder in 90° flexion and apply an inferior glide of the humeral head.
C) Place the shoulder in neutral (along the patient's side)and apply long-axis traction of the humerus.
D) Place the glenohumeral joint in the resting position and apply an anterior glide of the humeral head.
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Chapter 6: Resistance Exercise for Impaired Muscle
Performance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the research evidence regarding the effective treatment of delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS)once it occurs?
A) Modalities consisting of ES and cold are the only treatments that are consistently effective at reducing muscle soreness experienced with DOMS.
B) Postexercise massage reduces both the signs and symptoms of DOMS in the elite athlete but not in the casual athlete.
C) Use of compression sleeves on the affected muscles improves the strength deficits that occur as a result of DOMS.
D) Continuation of the training program that has induced DOMS does not worsen the muscle damage or slow the process of recovery.
Q2) Which of the following best defines muscle strength?
A) Ability of muscle to contract repeatedly against a load
B) Work produced by a muscle per unit of time
C) Produce or control forces imposed during functional activities
D) Force generated during a single maximum effort
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8
Chapter 7: Principles of Aerobic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mary is 30 lb overweight and wants to start exercising for fitness and to lose weight before her high school class reunion next year.For motivation,she has set a specific goal to run a 10K race in 6 months.The best method of training for this event would be:
A) Bicycling 2 days a week and fast walking 4 days a week.
B) Fast walking,progressing to running 5 to 6 days a week.
C) Bicycling and running 3 days a week for each activity.
D) Swimming 1 day a week,bicycling 2 days a week,and running 3 days a week.
Q2) A stress test should be terminated if:
A) There is a significant drop in systolic blood pressure in response to an increasing workload.
B) Cheeks become flushed.
C) Blood pressure increases 7 to 10 mm Hg per MET of physical activity.
D) Respiratory rate and depth increase without shortness of breath.
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding aerobic exercise training (aerobic conditioning)?
A) Dependent on sufficient intensity,time,and frequency of exercise
B) Measured by muscular endurance
C) Produces significant crossover effects for various physical activities
D) Requires 6 weeks for evidence of improvement
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Exercise for Impaired Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) To maintain balance in condition 3 (standing on a firm surface wearing a dome)of the Clinical Test of Sensory Integration on Balance,a person must rely solely on:
A) Somatosensory and vestibular information.
B) Vestibular information.
C) Visual and somatosensory information.
D) Visual and vestibular information.
Q2) A balance test that can reliably detect deficits in individuals with chronic ankle instability is the:
A) Functional Reach Test.
B) Multi-Directional Reach Test.
C) Star Excursion Test.
D) Postural Stress Test.
Q3) When a hip strategy is used for balance control in response to a posterior displacement of the support surface,which muscle groups are activated and in what sequence?
A) Abdominals followed by the quadriceps
B) Quadriceps followed by the abdominals
C) Hamstrings followed by the paraspinals
D) Paraspinals followed by the hamstrings
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Aquatic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of the body to regulate temperature must be considered with the prescription of aquatic therapy for both the healthy and the rehabilitating patient.All of the following are true of temperature regulation except:
A) The body is not as efficient at dissipating heat in the water as it is on land.
B) Patients are unable to maintain adequate core warmth at water temperatures below 25°C.
C) The ambient air temperature should be equal to the water temperature to avoid overheating or chilling while in the pool area.
D) Water temperatures above 37°C cause increased cardiac demand both at rest and while exercising,especially with prolonged time or deep immersion.
Q2) After a musculoskeletal injury of the lower extremity,you develop an aquatic exercise program for your patient.An aquatic exercise program is the least effective for:
A) Transfer of training to land-based functional activities.
B) Reducing risk of reinjury during the early stage of rehabilitation.
C) Enabling early weight bearing.
D) Increasing ROM.
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Chapter 10: Soft Tissue Injury,repair,and Management
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are considerations for interventions when establishing a rehab program for a patient diagnosed with chronic inflammation resulting from repetitive trauma except:
A) Tissues subjected to repetitive trauma may never completely heal.
B) Connective tissue sustains structural weakening as a result of the perpetuated inflammatory tissue response.
C) Initiation of resistance exercise should begin with eccentric (muscle lengthening)techniques as soon as pain subsides to avoid tissue contracture.
D) Inflammatory response must first be managed by controlling the inflammation with modalities or other conservative measures.
Q2) What is the best method for determining the progression of exercise during the subacute stage of healing?
A) Increase range of motion 10S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0each treatment session
B) Increase strength training by 1 lb each treatment session
C) Increase endurance exercises by 3 repetitions each treatment session
D) Let patient response guide the progression of exercise
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Chapter 11: Joint,connective Tissue,and Bone Disorders and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your 80-year-old patient fractured his distal radius and ulna 6 weeks ago.He wore a cast during this period,extending from the mid-humerus to,but not including,the MCP joints.His cast was removed yesterday because of evidence of clinical union,and he has been cleared to begin exercise.ROM is limited (wrist flexion and extension,thumb flexion,forearm supination,and elbow extension).Which type of exercise is contraindicated at this time?
A) Grade II distraction of the humeroulnar joint
B) Active ROM of all limited joints
C) Passive stretching to increase wrist,forearm,and elbow ROM
D) Grade III joint mobilization (gliding technique)to increase flexion of the thumb
Q2) A balance of bone resorption that equals bone replacement occurs normally during growth and development until peak bone mass is reached.This typically occurs:
A) About age 18 for females and 21 for males.
B) During the third decade of life.
C) At puberty.
D) During the sixth decade of life.
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Chapter 12: Surgical Interventions and Postoperative Management
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following surgical procedures typically is performed with an arthroscope?
A) Minimally invasive joint replacement procedures
B) Reduction and internal fixation of a displaced fracture
C) Removal of a portion of a meniscus at the knee
D) Arthrodesis of the wrist
Q2) All of the following are signs and symptoms your patient may exhibit that would alert you to a possible pulmonary embolism except:
A) Sudden onset of dyspnea.
B) Chest pain alleviated with deep breathing and rib compression.
C) Rapid,shallow breathing.
D) Diaphoresis with minimal activity.
Q3) Which of the following postoperative complications is least likely to be prevented by adherence to a carefully progressed postoperative exercise program?
A) Formation of adhesions
B) Local infection at the wound site
C) Subluxation or dislocation of a joint
D) Rupture of repaired soft tissue
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Chapter 13: Peripheral Nerve Disorders and Management
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To effectively treat complex regional pain syndrome type I (reflex sympathetic dystrophy),a physical therapist:
A) Performs a sympathetic block prior to any manual or exercise interventions.
B) Utilizes an approach that manages the physical symptoms of pain,edema,stiffness,and muscle changes.
C) Bombards the autonomic nervous system with stimuli using desensitization techniques.
D) Avoids the "no pain,no gain" philosophy and encourages the patient to minimize activity if it causes discomfort.
Q2) Dominant signs of complex regional pain syndrome type I (reflex sympathetic dystrophy)that should alert you to the potential of this condition developing are:
A) Pain,osteoporosis,swelling,and paresthesias.
B) Pain,swelling,stiffness,and discoloration of the hand.
C) Pain,muscle atrophy,stiffness,and brittle nails.
D) Recent injury;pain;and red,hot,swollen tissue.
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15
Chapter 14: The Spine: Structure, function, and Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Motion at a functional unit of the spine is defined by what is occurring with the:
A) Anterior portion of the body of the superior vertebrae.
B) Anterior portion of the body of the inferior vertebrae.
C) Spinous process of the superior vertebrae.
D) Spinous process of the inferior vertebrae.
Q2) A flatback posture:
A) Is the best posture for a healthy spine.
B) Is typically associated with tight hip flexor muscles.
C) Reduces the shock-absorbing function of the spinal curves.
D) Should be the goal of all back-rehabilitation programs.
Q3) The spinal muscles that are activated first with rapid arm movements are the:
A) Erector spinae and rectus abdominis.
B) Internal and external obliques.
C) Multifidus and internal obliques.
D) Transversus abdominis and multifidus.
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Chapter 15: The Spine: Management Guidelines
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are techniques to increase temporomandibular joint motion except:
A) Placing tongue blades between the front teeth and progressively adding more as tolerated.
B) Placing your thumb and index finger against the patient's incisors and pressing the mandible caudally.
C) Placing dental rolls between the patient's molars and asking him to attempt to close the front teeth.
D) For home exercises,having the patient chew gum for at least 10 minutes,three times a day.
Q2) To prevent adhesions from forming around a nerve root when an individual has an inflammation from a disk lesion,trauma,or surgery:
A) Passive press-ups should be taught.
B) Passive joint mobilizations should be done.
C) Passive straight-leg raises should be done.
D) Passive knee to chest should be done.
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Chapter 16: The Spine: Exercise and Manipulation
Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient describes frequent headaches,especially when working at her computer,which get progressively worse during the day.The following limitations in motion are noted: capital flexion,lower cervical extension,cervical side bending,and lateral rotation of the shoulders.Use of a pressure cuff to test control of capital flexion shows the ability to maintain an increase in pressure of 8 mm Hg for 3 seconds.She is not able to lie prone and perform axial extension by lifting her forehead off the table.All of the following would be appropriate methods for initiating your interventions except:
A) Gentle manual traction to the suboccipital region followed by passive capital flexion to increase flexibility.
B) Training of deep cervical flexors to maintain capital flexion for 10-second holds,using a pressure cuff for feedback.
C) Prone-lying axial extension with the head over the end of the table,holding for 10 seconds at a time.
D) Supine lying with a foam roller placed longitudinally under the spine and head,allowing the shoulders to roll outward into external rotation.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Shoulder and Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Neer's classification of rotator cuff disease,which of the following stages is seen most often in patients 25 to 39 years of age and characterized by tendonitis or bursitis but not a rotator cuff tendon rupture?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q2) Your patient exhibits a forward head posture and excessive thoracic kyphosis.Considering the muscles that typically are weak with this faulty posture,which of the following muscles of the shoulder girdle are most important to strengthen using the exercise program you are developing for this patient?
A) Pectoralis minor and levator scapulae
B) Serratus anterior and levator scapulae
C) Upper and lower trapezius and serratus anterior
D) Upper and lower trapezius and pectoralis minor
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Chapter 18: The Elbow and Forearm Complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about total elbow arthroplasty (TEA)?
A) A semiconstrained,linked prosthesis allows flexion and extension of the elbow but not varus,valgus,or rotational motions.
B) The typical method of fixation of the implants is all-cementless (all-biological)fixation.
C) The surgical approach most often used leaves the triceps tendon intact.
D) One of the more common,long-term complications after TEA is joint instability,particularly with unlinked implants or if the patient previously underwent excision of the radial head.
Q2) Current research shows that the "survival rate" for total elbow arthroplasty (TEA)is:
A) 30% over a 10-year period.
B) Greater for patients with RA than for those with traumatic arthritis or OA.
C) Highly correlated with the type of implant (prosthesis).
D) 82% over a 5.5-year period.
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20
Chapter 19: The Wrist and Hand
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are evaluating a patient with rheumatoid arthritis of the hand and wrist.You notice several deformities,including hyperextension of the PIP joints and flexion of the DIP joints of digits 2,3,and 4.This deformity is called:
A) Swan-neck deformity.
B) Heberden's deformity.
C) Boutonnière deformity.
D) Saddleback deformity.
Q2) Each of the following is true about flexor tendon-gliding exercises except:
A) Maintain or develop free-gliding between the FDS and FDP tendons.
B) To perform these exercises,the patient actively moves the fingers into five different positions.
C) To perform these exercises,the therapist passively moves the patient's fingers into five different positions in a particular sequence.
D) Maintain or develop free-gliding between the FDS and FDP tendons and adjacent bones.
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Chapter 20: The Hip
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "hybrid" total hip arthroplasty refers to a(n):
A) Hip replacement with a cemented femoral component and a noncemented acetabular component.
B) Total hip replacement that is all metal.
C) Alternate term for bipolar hemiarthroplasty of the hip.
D) Alternate term for minimally invasive arthroplasty.
Q2) Recent advances in arthroscopy of the hip now allow all of the following procedures to be performed using this less invasive technique except for:
A) Microfracture to stimulate fibrocartilage growth.
B) Acetabular labral repair.
C) Resurfacing arthroplasty.
D) Capsulorrhaphy for capsular laxity.
Q3) The clinical prediction rule for the diagnosis of osteoarthritis of the hip developed by Sutlive and colleagues includes consideration of all of the following variables except:
A) Self-reported squatting aggravates symptoms.
B) Walking more than 1 block causes groin and anterior thigh pain.
C) Passive internal rotation is less than or equal to 25°.
D) Scour test with adduction causes lateral hip or groin pain.
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22
Chapter 21: The Knee
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research studies in the literature surrounding ACL rehabilitation have coined the terms "potential copers" and "potential noncopers" to identify and classify individuals with ACL injury who are good versus poor candidates for nonoperative rehabilitation."True copers" applies to individuals who:
A) Resolve personally to use a gait-assistive device and reduce their activity level to avoid surgery and have no incidence of knee buckling for at least 1 year.
B) Complete a course of rehabilitation in preparation for surgical repair of the ACL in order to return to vigorous work or sporting activities within 1 year of injury.
C) Successfully return to full pre-injury activity 1 year after injury with no episodes of knee buckling,following a rehab program without surgery.
D) Do nothing and develop a quad avoidance gait pattern within 1 year of injury.
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Chapter 22: The Ankle and Foot
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Q1) Your patient has a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis and is developing a capsular pattern in the foot and ankle.Which joint-mobilization technique could perpetuate or worsen the impairment/deformity typically associated with RA of the foot and ankle?
A) Stabilize the mortise and glide the talus in an anterior direction
B) Stabilize the calcaneus and glide the cuboid in a plantar direction
C) Stabilize the talus and glide the navicular in a dorsal direction
D) Stabilize the talus and glide the calcaneus in a lateral direction
Q2) A 40-year-old teacher who has been referred to you has experienced pain along the plantar aspect of the heel for more than 6 months.It is most noticeable when getting out of bed in the morning,upon standing after sitting for longer than 1 hour,and after playing racquetball.During walking,pain is most noticeable at the terminal stance/preswing phase of gait.The mostly likely disorder causing these symptoms is:
A) Plantar fasciitis.
B) Calcaneal bursitis.
C) Achilles tendinitis.
D) Posterior tibialis tendinitis.
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Chapter 23: Advanced Functional Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phase of a plyometric activity during which the muscle reverses its action from deceleration to acceleration of the load is called the:
A) Stretch phase
B) Amortization phase
C) Concentric Phase
D) Eccentric Phase
Q2) Examples of plyometric activities for the upper extremities could include any of the following except:
A) Seated push-ups.
B) Clap push-ups.
C) Catching and throwing a weighted ball.
D) Dribbling a ball against the wall.
Q3) Which of the following describes a proper progression of positions to increase balance and postural stability?
A) Standing to tall kneeling
B) Unilateral stance to tandem stance
C) Half-kneeling to sitting without foot support
D) Reaching activities in bilateral stance to unilateral stance
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25
Chapter 24: Womens Health: Obstetrics and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) Common postural changes/deviations that develop or become exaggerated during pregnancy include each of the following except:
A) Decreased thoracic kyphosis.
B) Increased internal rotation of the shoulders.
C) Excessive lumbar lordosis.
D) Genu recurvatum.
Q2) During pregnancy,in which direction does the center of gravity of the body move?
A) Superior and posterior
B) Superior and anterior
C) Inferior and posterior
D) Inferior and anterior
Q3) During pregnancy,each of the following changes in the respiratory system occurs except:
A) Increased respiratory rate.
B) Increased O<sub>2</sub> consumption and increased work of breathing.
C) Relatively unchanged or slightly decreased total lung capacity.
D) State of hyperventilation throughout pregnancy.
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Chapter 25: Management of Lymphatic Disorders
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Q1) Axillary web syndrome is a relatively common condition that develops after treatment for breast cancer and is recognized by which of the following signs and symptoms?
A) A feeling of heaviness in the upper extremity during active flexion and adduction,indicating the initial sign of lymphedema.
B) Muscle guarding and tenderness of the cervical muscles with fibrosis of the sternocleidomastoid muscle limiting range of motion of the neck.
C) Cording of the lymphatic vessels from the axilla to the antecubital space and/or forearm restricting shoulder mobility.
D) Weakness of the serratus anterior after lymph node dissection resulting from surgical damage to the long thoracic nerve.
Q2) As part of the patient evaluation,you perform tests and measures to document your findings in a standard and objective way.You document a positive Stemmer sign when you find which of the following?
A) There is tenderness of the lymph nodes on palpation.
B) Skin on the dorsum of the fingers could not be pinched.
C) Skin is shiny and red.
D) Viscous fluid is weeping from the skin.
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