Physical Therapy Interventions
Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Physical Therapy Interventions explores the principles, techniques, and evidence-based practices utilized by physical therapists to promote mobility, function, and quality of life across the lifespan. The course covers a range of intervention strategies including therapeutic exercise, manual therapy, neuromuscular re-education, functional training, modalities, and patient education. Students will study clinical reasoning for selecting appropriate interventions, adapting plans of care for diverse populations, and measuring outcomes. Emphasis is placed on safety, efficacy, and the integration of interventions within interdisciplinary healthcare teams.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Exercise Foundations and Techniques 7th Edition by Carolyn Kisner
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26 Chapters
512 Verified Questions
512 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Therapeutic Exercise: Foundational Concepts
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the definition of therapeutic exercise and the goal of designing an individualized program of therapeutic exercise, the physical therapist might develop a therapeutic exercise program in order to:
A)Restore function through the elimination of body structure impairments.
B)Improve function but not to remediate or reduce disability.
C)Optimize overall health status, fitness, or sense of well-being.
D)Remediate activity limitations but not to reduce health-related risk factors.
Answer: C
Q2) Helping a patient acquire the ability to shift his weight from side to side in a standing position by means of manual guidance by the therapist is called:
A)Summary feedback.
B)Delayed feedback.
C)Concurrent feedback.
D)Instantaneous postresponse feedback.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Prevention, Health, and Wellness
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is a prescreening question that should be addressed before participation in a health promotion program, except:
A)Have you ever been diagnosed with a heart condition?
B)What are your blood pressure and heart rate normally?
C)Do you experience chest pain when you engage in physical activity?
D)Do you ever lose your balance or lose consciousness?
Answer: B
Q2) An individual who perceives a threat of contracting a disease decides to follow specific health recommendations because he believes that he can prevent or reduce the risk of contracting the disease.These behaviors are aligned with what behavioral change theory or model?
A)Social cognitive theory
B)Health belief model
C)Transtheoretical model
D)Risk assessment theory
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Range of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are treating a patient with weak hip abductors (muscle grade is 2/5).Which of the following ROM exercises is most appropriate to prevent tightness of the hip adductors and maintain the current level of strength of the hip abductors?
A)Perform passive abduction of the hip with the patient positioned in the supine position
B)Have the patient perform active hip abduction through the available ROM while positioned in the side-lying position
C)Have the patient perform active hip abduction through the available ROM while positioned in the supine position as you support the weight of the leg
D)Perform passive abduction of the hip with the patient positioned in the side-lying position
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is a contraindication to PROM exercises?
A)When movement of a body segment is disruptive to the healing process
B)Presence of muscle weakness or paralysis
C)Presence of chronically impaired circulation
D)When a patient is in a coma
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Stretching for Improved Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an incorrect statement about hypomobility?
A)It may be associated with loss of passive or dynamic flexibility.
B)It may be caused by muscle imbalance or weakness.
C)It is usually associated with joint instability.
D)It may occur with or without tissue trauma.
Q2) To most effectively use the phenomenon of creep in a stretching routine:
A)The tissues should be warmed and the force (load) maintained as long as tolerated.
B)The force should be repeated in a cyclic manner.
C)A high-intensity, rapidly applied force should be used.
D)The force should be great enough to cause necking.
Q3) Each of the following is a contraindication to stretching adaptively shortened tissues except:
A)Sharp, acute pain during ROM.
B)When ROM is limited because scar tissue has reduced soft tissue extensibility.
C)A bony block.
D)When tight (shortened) soft tissues provide functional stability of a body segment affected by paralysis.
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Chapter 5: Peripheral Joint Mobilizationmanipulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following mobilization techniques can be used to stretch a joint?
A)Sustained grade I
B)Sustained grade II
C)Oscillation grade II
D)Oscillation grade III
Q2) Your patient had a cast removed last week following a distal tibiofibular fracture.He now has limited motion of the ankle and foot.Which of the following joint-mobilization techniques would you use to increase ankle dorsiflexion?
A)Dorsal glide of calcaneus on talus
B)Plantar glide of navicular on talus
C)Anterior glide of talus on tibia
D)Posterior glide of talus on tibia
Q3) Which of the following terms best describes movements that a patient can control actively/voluntarily?
A)Joint play
B)Accessory movement
C)Physiological movement
D)Component movement
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Chapter 6: Resistance Exercise for Impaired Muscle
Performance
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following forms of resistance training is most appropriate for a 9-year-old child with weakness of the elbow musculature as the result of an elbow sprain, followed by several weeks of elbow immobilization combined with daily active (nonresisted) ROM?
A)High-load, low-repetition biceps curls on equipment specifically designed to adjust to a child's body proportions
B)Low-load, high-repetition biceps curls on equipment usually used by the adult patient population
C)Supervised exercise by unlicensed support personnel
D)Underhand bilateral toss of a weighted ball
Q2) Which factors affect the amount of resistance provided by elastic resistance bands during exercise?
A)Length of the muscle and stretch of the band
B)Stretch of the band and speed of movement
C)Stretch of the band and angle of the band in relation to the moving bone
D)Angle of the band in relation to the moving bone and length of the muscle
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8
Chapter 7: Principles of Aerobic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) Four methods of training are known to challenge the aerobic system.Which method of training is characterized by a period of exercise followed by a brief period of relief?
A)Continuous
B)Interval
C)Circuit
D)Circuit-interval
Q2) As part of a circuit weight training program, your patient performs 2 sets of 10 repetitions of biceps curls at 70% of a 1 repetition maximum (RM), resting briefly between sets.Which of the following energy systems is primarily being used?
A)Phosphagen system
B)Anaerobic-glycolytic system
C)Aerobic system
D)ATP-PC (adenosine triphosphate-phosphocreatine) system
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9
Chapter 8: Exercise for Impaired Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals who become unstable or fall in condition 5 (standing on foam with eyes closed) and condition 6 (standing on foam wearing a dome) during the Clinical Test of Sensory Integration on Balance Test (Foam and Dome Test) most likely have deficits in:
A)Proprioception.
B)Somatosensation.
C)Vestibular function.
D)Vision.
Q2) Which of the following terms is defined as "the sway boundaries in which an individual can maintain equilibrium without changing his/her base of support"?
A)Center of mass
B)Limits of stability
C)Limits of pressure
D)Center of gravity
Q3) The center of gravity in most adult humans is located slightly:
A)Posterior to the L2 vertebra.
B)Posterior to the S2 vertebra.
C)Anterior to the L2 vertebra.
D)Anterior to the S2 vertebra.
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Chapter 9: Aquatic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) If present, which of the following conditions is a contraindication to having a patient perform an exercise program in an aquatic environment?
A)Tracheotomy
B)Fear of water
C)Influenza
D)High blood pressure
Q2) The difficulty of exercises can be controlled with the depth of immersion and the body's physiological response to hydrostatic pressure.According to Barbosa and colleagues, which of the following best describes a proper progression of a patient's exercise program in order to increase physiological demands?
A)Land exercises to aquatic chest depth to hip depth
B)Aquatic hip depth to neck depth to land exercises
C)Alternate land exercises with aquatic chest depth exercises
D)Aquatic chest depth to hip depth to land exercises
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11
Chapter 10: Soft Tissue Injury, Repair, and Management
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transient or intermittent pain that occurs during the chronic stage of soft tissue healing is best relieved by:
A)Stretching and strengthening the healing tissues.
B)Applying cold.
C)Applying heat and massage.
D)Resting.
Q2) Muscle guarding is best treated by:
A)Applying modalities and then massaging the muscle.
B)Identifying and treating the cause of the guarding.
C)Gentle muscle setting exercises with the muscle in a shortened position.
D)Massaging the muscle.
Q3) During the repair process following tissue injury, the newly developing collagen fibrils are:
A)Ready to withstand normal stresses by 3 weeks.
B)Slow to be deposited.
C)Laid down in alignment exactly replicating the fibers that were damaged.
D)Thin and unorganized.
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12
Chapter 11: Joint, Connective Tissue, and Bone Disorders and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following interventions would be appropriate for myofascial pain syndrome but not for fibromyalgia, based on the etiology of the two conditions?
A)Providing education with a focus on activity modification
B)Eliminating trigger points with techniques such as muscle elongation with contract-relax procedures, spray and stretch techniques, and dry needling
C)Reducing postural stresses and improving posture
D)Treating muscular pain with low-intensity strengthening and aerobic exercise
Q2) A patient with a diagnosis of osteoporosis wishes to participate in a fitness program at her local community center.All of the following describe precautions that she should adhere to during exercise except:
A)Avoid sitting abdominal machines and supine curl-ups and sit-ups to strengthen the abdominals.
B)Avoid high-velocity movements of the spine and extremities.
C)Avoid strength training with free weights or the use of a weighted vest during walking or jogging.
D)Avoid end-range resisted movements of the spine combining flexion and rotation.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Surgical Interventions and Postoperative Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a correct statement about surgical repair of a torn or ruptured muscle or tendon?
A)A surgically repaired muscle or tendon is immobilized in a shortened position for a period of time after surgery.
B)After a tear or rupture of a muscle, the best results are achieved if the torn tissue is repaired immediately after injury rather than delaying the repair for 48 to 72 hours after injury.
C)During postoperative rehabilitation for a muscle or tendon repair muscle setting exercises are contraindicated during the acute phase until immobilization is removed.
D)A longer immobilization period is required for a repaired muscle than for a repaired tendon because the degree of inflammation and edema is greater.
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A)It may occur in the greater saphenous veins.
B)It is most common in the deep arterial system of the calf muscles.
C)It usually resolves without complication if the patient is active.
D)It may result in a pulmonary embolism if undetected.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Peripheral Nerve Disorders and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) On examination, your patient reports that he is an avid cyclist and over the past 2 months has been experiencing numbness of the little finger and the ulnar side of his ring finger that has become painful over the past week with an inability to effectively grasp the handlebars.One area of possible nerve compression producing these signs and symptoms is:
A)Carpal tunnel.
B)Tunnel of Guyon.
C)Thoracic outlet.
D)Tarsal tunnel.
Q2) You have been treating a patient with a diagnosis of TOS for 1 week; she describes increased burning pain over the past week.She also has ischemic symptoms in the upper extremity whenever she exercises or while engaging in simple functional activities.This means:
A)There could be progressive axonal disruption and compromise of the vascular supply; the physician should be notified.
B)The patient has not been compliant with instructions for posture and safe exercises.
C)The exercises have been too vigorous and should be decreased in intensity.
D)This is a typical reaction to exercises for TOS.
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Chapter 14: The Spine: Structure, Function, and Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Motion at a functional unit of the spine is defined by what is occurring with the:
A)Anterior portion of the body of the superior vertebrae.
B)Anterior portion of the body of the inferior vertebrae.
C)Spinous process of the superior vertebrae.
D)Spinous process of the inferior vertebrae.
Q2) Postural stability of the spine is provided by:
A)Elasticity of passive restraints.
B)Interaction of passive restraints and muscle control.
C)Interaction of muscle control modulated by the central nervous system and passive restraints.
D)Muscle activity maintaining balance in the neutral zone.
Q3) The difference between a lordotic posture and a slouched posture is:
A)Only the lordotic posture has lumbar lordosis.
B)Flexion in both the upper lumbar and lower thoracic spine occurs with the slouched posture.
C)Extension of the pelvis on the femurs occurs with the lordotic posture.
D)There is no difference; both affect the pelvis and lumbar spine the same way.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Spine: Management Guidelines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following recovery of a posterolateral disk protrusion, your patient will be returning to a job that requires prolonged forward bending and stooping.Your instructions to the patient must include:
A)Interruption of the flexed postures at frequent intervals by standing upright and bending backward.
B)Advice to quit that job and find one that is sedentary.
C)No advice-forward bending helps maintain mobility in the spine.
D)Preparing for the forward bending by posterior tilting of the pelvis before bending and stooping.
Q2) Scheuermann's disease:
A)Is a rheumatic disorder.
B)Results from weakened vertebral end-plates.
C)Begins with radicular signs that diminish over time.
D)Requires functionally increasing the lumbar lordosis to prevent development of kyphosis.
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Chapter 16: The Spine: Exercise and Manipulation
Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fundamental techniques that every patient with spinal impairments should learn before progressing to basic and advanced training exercises include:
A)Strengthening exercises for the cervical and trunk stabilizers, including the abdominals, longus colli, quadratus lumborum, and cervical and lumbar multifidus muscles.
B)Safe use of weights and elastic resistance while maintaining the spine in a neutral posture.
C)Safe stretching techniques prior to any stabilization, strengthening, or power training.
D)Kinesthetic awareness of safe spinal positions and movement, activation of deep segmental muscles, and global muscle control of spinal posture when moving the extremities or moving from one position to another.
Q2) The quadratus lumborum is an important stabilizer of the spine in which planes of motion?
A)Frontal and sagittal
B)Sagittal and coronal
C)Transverse and frontal
D)Sagittal and transverse
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Chapter 17: The Shoulder and Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about glenohumeral arthroplasty?
A)Hemiarthroplasty is most often performed using an arthroscopic approach.
B)The primary indication for glenohumeral arthroplasty is limited mobility of the shoulder.
C)A reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) is an appropriate procedure for a patient with marked instability of the glenohumeral joint and a rotator cuff that is not repairable.
D)For adequate exposure of the joint during surgery, the muscle that routinely must be released (and reattached prior to closure) is the anterior deltoid.
Q2) Results of numerous outcome studies have demonstrated that the most predictable outcome after shoulder arthroplasty is:
A)Increased active shoulder ROM.
B)Increased shoulder-joint stability.
C)Pain relief.
D)Improved function of the rotator cuff mechanism.
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Chapter 18: The Elbow and Forearm Complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) To strengthen the elbow extensors in a closed chain, you have the patient perform push-ups, using body weight as the source of resistance.Which of the following variations of push-ups provides the greatest amount of resistance to the elbow extensors?
A)Bilateral push-ups while in a fully prone position on the floor with weight on the hands and toes
B)Bilateral wall push-ups while in a standing position and leaning into and pushing away from the wall
C)Bilateral push-ups while standing and leaning on the hands on a kitchen countertop
D)Bilateral push-ups in a prone position with weight on the hands and knees
Q2) Current research shows that the "survival rate" for TEA is:
A)30% over a 10-year period.
B)Greater for patients with rheumatoid arthritis than for those with traumatic arthritis or osteoarthritis.
C)Highly correlated with the type of implant (prosthesis).
D)Greater for young, active adults who provide consistent stress to the fixation, encouraging increased bone formation and less loosening of the implant.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: The Wrist and Hand
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is correct about PIP arthroplasty, associated soft tissue reconstruction, and postoperative management except:
A)Because correction of a boutonnière deformity during PIP arthroplasty involves a central slip-splitting approach, it is important to postpone resisted PIP extension exercises for at least 6 to 8 weeks.
B)When initiating ROM of the PIP joint after PIP arthroplasty, stabilize the MP and DIP joints in neutral.
C)For functional grasp after PIP arthroplasty, more flexion of the PIP joints of the index and middle fingers is necessary than flexion of the ring and little fingers.
D)After PIP arthroplasty that included correction of a swan-neck deformity, emphasize PIP flexion and DIP extension more so than PIP extension and DIP flexion.
Q2) Prerequisites for successful PIP arthroplasty include all of the following except:
A)Adequate bone stock.
B)No history of chronic synovitis.
C)Intact neurovascular system.
D)Functioning flexor/extensor mechanism.
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21
Chapter 20: The Hip
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Sample Questions
Q1) When applying mobilization with movement techniques at the hip with the patient lying on a table in the supine position, the primary purpose of the mobilization belt is to:
A)Apply a pain-free inferolateral glide of the femur.
B)Apply a pain-free inferior glide of the femur.
C)Apply a pain-free inferomedial glide of the femur.
D)Support the weight of the leg, making it easier for the therapist to perform the mobilization maneuvers.
Q2) Osteoarthritis of the hip is typically characterized by a progressive decrease in range of motion (ROM) of the following movement combinations:
A)External rotation and extension.
B)Internal rotation and extension.
C)External rotation and adduction.
D)Equal loss of internal and external rotation.
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22
Chapter 21: The Knee
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the initial assessment of a patient who complains of a recent onset of "knee pain" when descending stairs and a sense of "giving way" both on the stairs and when walking, you ask several questions about recent knee injuries.Which of the following injuries would lead you to believe the patient might have injured his ACL?
A)A forward fall onto his knee directly striking his patella
B)A blow to the inside of his knee when his dog was jumping up to greet him
C)A twisting injury when he slipped off the curb and his knee buckled inward
D)A running injury resulting in pain along the inferior border of the patella and the tibial tubercle
Q2) The "minimally invasive knee arthroplasty" is one type of surgical approach for performing TKA.When the surgeon chooses this approach, it is because:
A)It is easier to perform and therefore is the choice of the less-experienced surgeon.
B)The incidence of intraoperative complications is lower.
C)It is an arthroscopic procedure, so the rehabilitation is shorter.
D)It is less disruptive to the soft tissue, with increased rate of postoperative recovery and less postoperative pain.
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23
Chapter 22: The Ankle and Foot
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following a severe, third-degree (grade 3) inversion sprain, your patient complains of pain just distal and lateral to the knee joint.The pain is likely the result of:
A)Subluxation of the proximal tibiofibular joint.
B)Tear of the lateral collateral ligament.
C)Tear of the lateral head of the gastrocnemius.
D)Referred pain from gait deviations due to sore ankle joints and ligaments.
Q2) Your patient has regained normal strength (5/5) and ROM during rehabilitation following a traumatic injury that severely stressed several ligaments and joints of the ankle.He continues to have poor control while walking on gravel or other uneven surfaces.To address this problem, your exercise program should focus on:
A)Strengthening exercises for the invertor and evertor muscles of the ankle using elastic resistance.
B)Stretching the invertor and evertor muscles of the ankle.
C)Performing progressive balance training with closed-chain disturbed balance activities on a rocker/balance board.
D)Practicing walking on uneven surfaces while wearing a custom-made ankle/foot orthosis that controls inversion and eversion.
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Chapter 23: Advanced Functional Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) When designing an exercise program to return a patient to his/her prior functional level, each of the following guidelines is true except:
A)Proximal stability is a requirement for controlled distal mobility.
B)Coordinated segmental and global stability of the spine is needed for execution of functional tasks with safe body mechanics.
C)Stability of each joint is necessary for effective function of the extremities.
D)Exercises for strength and power should precede balance and stability exercises.
Q2) All of the following are examples of plyometric activities for the upper extremities except:
A)Overhead catching and throwing a weighted ball to a rebounder.
B)Performing diagonal patterns with a barbell weight.
C)Dribbling a basketball.
D)Swinging a weighted golf club.
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Chapter 24: Exercise in the Older Adult
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Q1) Exercise is described as planned, structured, and repetitive in nature.All of the following are examples of exercises for the older adult except:
A)Tai Chi classes.
B)Aerobic classes.
C)Fixing meals.
D)Walking with a weighted vest.
Q2) Which of the following combinations of activities best describes a balanced multidimensional exercise program designed for the older adult to emphasize healthy living?
A)Passive range of motion (PROM), ambulation, resistance training with less than 5 pounds for the arms and less than 10 pounds for the legs
B)Low-impact aerobics, water resistance exercises, active range of motion (AROM)
C)Aerobics, flexibility, strengthening, balance
D)Unweighted rowing, bicycling, neutral incline treadmill walking
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Chapter 25: Womens Health: Obstetrics and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) An exercise program that includes posture training to counter the expected postural changes that occur during pregnancy should emphasize each of the following except:
A)Strengthening scapular retractors.
B)Strengthening hip extensors.
C)Strengthening abdominals (low-intensity).
D)Strengthening shoulder internal rotators.
Q2) During pregnancy, each of the following changes in the respiratory system occurs except:
A)Increased respiratory rate.
B)Increased O consumption and increased work of breathing.
C)Relatively unchanged or slightly decreased total lung capacity.
D)State of hyperventilation throughout pregnancy.
Q3) Each of the following is a normal change during pregnancy except:
A)Increased secretion of insulin.
B)Decreased ligamentous stability.
C)Decreased resting heart rate.
D)Increased thyroid activity.
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Chapter 26: Management of Lymphatic Disorders
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Q1) There are many interventions used to manage the signs and symptoms of lymphedema.Of the following, which is considered to be the least effective based on current evidence?
A)Liposuction
B)Manual lymphatic drainage
C)Pneumatic compression pump
D)Exercise
Q2) As part of the patient evaluation, you perform tests and measures to document your findings in a standard and objective way.You document a positive Stemmer sign when you find which of the following?
A)There is tenderness of the lymph nodes on palpation.
B)Skin on the dorsum of the fingers could not be pinched.
C)Skin is shiny and red.
D)Viscous fluid is weeping from the skin.
Q3) The purpose of the lymphatic system is to collect and transport fluid from the:
A)Lungs to the venous system.
B)Interstitial spaces to the venous system.
C)Interstitial spaces to the kidneys.
D)Interstitial spaces to the blood capillaries.
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