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Physical Therapy Fundamentals Test Questions - 359 Verified Questions

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Physical Therapy Fundamentals

Test Questions

Course Introduction

Physical Therapy Fundamentals introduces students to the foundational principles and practices of physical therapy within diverse healthcare settings. The course covers essential topics such as the history of physical therapy, the roles and responsibilities of physical therapists, and basic kinesiology and biomechanics. Students learn about common therapeutic techniques, patient assessments, and the development of individualized care plans. The course emphasizes ethical considerations, communication skills, and the importance of interdisciplinary collaboration, preparing students for further study and clinical experiences in the field of physical therapy.

Recommended Textbook

Clinical Kinesiology and Anatomy 5th Edition by Lynn S. Lippert PT MS

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22 Chapters

359 Verified Questions

359 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Basic Information

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a person steps forward to release a bowling ball,what type of motion of the body is occurring?

A) Angular motion

B) Linear motion

C) Kinematic motion

D) Torque motion

Answer: B

Q2) When a person abducts the shoulder to 90 degrees,then moves the arm backward,what is that motion called?

A) Medial rotation

B) Lateral rotation

C) Horizontal adduction

D) Horizontal abduction

Answer: D

Q3) Turning your head to look over your left shoulder involves cervical

A) left rotation.

B) right rotation.

C) left lateral bend.

D) right lateral bend.

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Skeletal System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A bone marking that consists of a rounded anterior projection is called a A) foramen.

B) crest.

C) head.

D) fossa.

Answer: C

Q2) The scapula is an example of which type of bone?

A) Short

B) Flat

C) Irregular

D) Sesamoid

Answer: B

Q3) A bone marking that consists of a hollow or depression is called a A) foramen.

B) crest.

C) head.

D) fossa.

Answer: D

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Articular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hip medial rotation occurs in which plane and around which axis?

A) Transverse plane through a vertical axis

B) Sagittal plane through a frontal axis

C) Frontal plane through a sagittal axis

D) None of the above

Answer: A

Q2) What type of structure is located where tendons pass over a bone or joint and serves to decrease friction?

A) Cartilage

B) Fat pad

C) Bursa

D) Fibrocartilage

Answer: C

Q3) The two bones of a joint are held together and supported by which of the following structures?

A) Tendon

B) Bursa

C) Ligament

D) Fibrocartilage

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Arthrokinematics

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a patient using a walker bears weight through the wrists,what type of accessory motion force is occurring at the wrist joints?

A) Shear

B) Traction

C) Approximation

D) Rotation forces

Q2) The type of arthrokinematic motion characterized by linear movement of a joint surface parallel to the plane of the adjoining joint surface is which of the following?

A) Roll

B) Spin

C) Glide

D) Shear

Q3) The type of joint end feel characterized by a leatherlike limitation with some give is A) bony.

B) soft tissue approximation.

C) capsular.

D) empty.

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Chapter 5: Muscular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) You can make a tighter fist with your wrist extended than with your wrist flexed because of

A) active insufficiency of the finger flexors.

B) active insufficiency of the finger extensors.

C) passive insufficiency of the finger flexors.

D) passive insufficiency of the finger extensors.

Q2) A contraction that causes no joint movement while producing muscle fiber tension is A) ISOK.

B) ISOT.

C) ISOM.

D) eccentric.

Q3) If a person threw a Frisbee and wanted wrist radial deviation,which muscle group would be the antagonist?

A) Wrist radial deviators

B) Wrist ulnar deviators

C) Wrist flexors

D) Wrist extensors

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Chapter 6: Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The white fatty substance present in the central nervous system (CNS)and peripheral nervous system (PNS)that serves to increase the speed of impulse conduction is called

A) myelin.

B) the node of Ranvier.

C) a neuron.

D) a tract.

Q2) A common pathology of the PNS characterized by weakness of the long thoracic nerve is which of the following?

A) Scapular winging

B) Thoracic outlet syndrome

C) Bell's palsy

D) Carpal tunnel syndrome

Q3) Sensory impulses from the peripheral nervous system (PNS)enter the cord through the anterior horn.

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Circulatory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) At which vertebral level does the descending aorta branch into the common iliac arteries?

A) T10

B) T12

C) L2

D) L4

Q2) The lymphatic system functions to do all of the following EXCEPT

A) collect extracellular fluid.

B) filter bacteria and waste products.

C) exchange carbon dioxide for oxygen.

D) assist to maintain adequate blood volume and pressure.

Q3) Movement of lymph through the system is influenced by any of the following EXCEPT A) skeletal muscle contraction.

B) diaphragm movement with abdominal breathing.

C) intestinal peristalsis.

D) stretch reflex of lymph angions.

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Chapter 8: Basic Biomechanics

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Sample Questions

Q1) In order to decrease the challenge of a client working on balance,you would do which of the following?

A) Raise the center of gravity and increase the base of support

B) Raise the center of gravity and decrease the base of support

C) Lower the center of gravity and increase the base of support

D) Lower the center of gravity and decrease the base of support

Q2) Two forces acting in equal but opposite directions and resulting in a turning effect is called a

A) stabilizing force.

B) dislocating force.

C) moment of force.

D) force couple.

Q3) If a PTA wishes to manually resist the knee extensors for an athlete and wishes to make the exercise as difficult as possible for the client,the best placement of her hand would be which of the following?

A) Proximal to the knee joint

B) Just distal to the tibial tuberosity

C) Midpoint of the tibia

D) Just proximal to the talus

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Shoulder Girdle

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which muscle originates from the spinous processes of T4-T12 and inserts at the base of the scapular spine?

A) Serratus anterior

B) Upper trapezius

C) Lower trapezius

D) Infraspinatus

Q2) Winging of the scapula is caused by weakness of which shoulder girdle muscle?

A) Pectoralis minor

B) Levator scapula

C) Serratus anterior

D) Middle trapezius

Q3) If shoulder girdle retraction is the desired motion,which two muscles are agonists in this motion?

A) Pectoralis minor and pectoralis major

B) Levator scapula and upper trapezius

C) Middle trapezius and rhomboids

D) Serratus anterior and latissimus dorsi

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11

Chapter 10: Shoulder Joint

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which muscle originates on the lateral clavicle,the top of the acromion,and the scapular spine and inserts on the midpoint of the humerus on the lateral side?

A) All fibers of the deltoid

B) All fibers of the trapezius

C) All fibers of the pectoralis major

D) Latissimus dorsi

Q2) Damage to which of the following nerves could result in weakness of the coracobrachialis muscle?

A) Radial nerve

B) Musculocutaneous nerve

C) Axillary nerve

D) Suprascapular nerve

Q3) All of the following can contribute to joint subluxation of the glenohumeral joint EXCEPT

A) weight of the upper extremity.

B) gravity.

C) shallow glenoid fossa.

D) strong lateral capsular ligaments.

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Chapter 11: Elbow Joint

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your patient has point tenderness at the common flexor origin at the elbow.Given this symptom,which diagnosis is likely?

A) Medial epicondylitis

B) Lateral epicondylitis

C) Tendonitis of biceps tendon

D) Volkmann's ischemic contracture

Q2) The muscles that would act on the forearm to neutralize forearm supination would be which of the following muscles?

A) Triceps and pronator teres

B) Pronator teres and pronator quadratus

C) Brachialis and brachioradialis

D) Triceps and anconeus

Q3) A common elbow pathology often caused by repetitive wrist extension activities is which of the following?

A) Medial epicondylitis

B) Lateral epicondylitis

C) Tendonitis of biceps tendon

D) Volkmann's ischemic contracture

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Chapter 12: Wrist Joint

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Sample Questions

Q1) When the flexor carpi radialis and the extensor carpi radialis longus contract simultaneously,which motion results?

A) Supination of the forearm

B) Wrist extension

C) Wrist radial deviation

D) Wrist circumduction

Q2) The three wrist extensors are innervated by which nerve?

A) Median nerve

B) Ulnar nerve

C) Radial nerve

D) Musculocutaneous nerve

Q3) Which muscle originates on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus and inserts at the base of the third metacarpal?

A) Palmaris longus

B) Extensor carpi radialis longus

C) Extensor carpi radialis brevis

D) Extensor carpi ulnaris

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Chapter 13: Hand

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Sample Questions

Q1) A person with inflammation in the carpal tunnel could have weakness in any of the following muscles EXCEPT the

A) extensor digitorum.

B) flexor digitorum superficialis.

C) flexor digitorum profundus.

D) abductor pollicis brevis.

Q2) The intrinsic muscle mass on the little finger side of the palm is made up of which set of muscles?

A) Thenar muscles

B) Radial muscles

C) Opponens muscles

D) Hypothenar muscles

Q3) Which muscle originates on the scaphoid,trapezium,and flexor retinaculum and inserts on the proximal phalanx of the thumb?

A) Abductor pollicis brevis

B) Opponens pollicis

C) Flexor digiti minimi

D) Abductor digiti minimi

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15

Chapter 14: Temporomandibular Joint

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Sample Questions

Q1) Protraction is primarily achieved by which of the following muscles?

A) Lateral pterygoid

B) Medial pterygoid

C) Masseter

D) A and B

Q2) All of the following muscles are prime movers in mandibular elevation EXCEPT the

A) lateral pterygoid.

B) medial pterygoid.

C) temporalis.

D) masseter.

Q3) Which prime movers of the TMJ are innervated by the facial nerve?

A) Temporalis

B) Masseter

C) Lateral pterygoid

D) None of the above

Q4) Clenching the teeth is an ISOM contraction of which muscle?

A) Medial pterygoid

B) Lateral pterygoid

C) Temporalis

D) Masseter

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Chapter 15: Neck and Trunk

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Sample Questions

Q1) The muscle that originates on the iliac crest and inserts on the 12th rib and transverse processes of T12 to L5 is the A) iliopsoas.

B) quadratus lumborum.

C) rectus abdominis.

D) internal oblique.

Q2) Which is the best position and instruction for a scoliosis client to strengthen lateral benders of the right side of the trunk?

A) Supine,laterally bend to right

B) Prone,laterally bend to left

C) Side-lying over an exercise ball,laterally bend to right

D) Any of the above are equally effective.

Q3) The muscle that originates on the spinous processes of T3 through T6 and inserts on the transverse processes of C1 through C3 is the A) scalene.

B) sternocleidomastoid.

C) splenius cervicis.

D) clavicular portion of the pectoralis major.

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17

Chapter 16: Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A chronic lung pathology characterized by loss of elasticity of the alveolar walls is which of the following?

A) Pneumonia

B) Bronchitis

C) Emphysema

D) Pleurisy

Q2) Patients in hospitals will often use an instrument called an incentive spirometer to assist in fully expanding the lungs after surgery or prolonged bedrest.This has the patient focus on deep inspiration and activates all of the following muscles EXCEPT the A) diaphragm.

B) external intercostals.

C) scalenes.

D) rectus abdominis.

Q3) At rest,what is the shape of the diaphragm muscle?

A) Concave

B) Dome-shaped

C) Convex

D) The diaphragm doesn't change shape with rest or when contracted.

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18

Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle

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Sample Questions

Q1) A person with tight hamstrings will likely adopt which of the following compensatory postures?

A) Posterior tilt of pelvis and flattened lumbar curve

B) Anterior tilt of pelvis and lumbar curve hyperextension

C) Posterior tilt of pelvis and lumbar curve hyperextension

D) Anterior tilt of pelvis and flattened lumbar curve

Q2) The rotation of the pelvis when the left foot begins the swing phase in gait is

A) anterior left rotation.

B) posterior left rotation.

C) anterior right rotation.

D) posterior right rotation.

Q3) A lateral tilt (unsupported side)of the pelvis results in which of the following motions of the vertebral column?

A) Flexion

B) Hyperextension

C) Lateral bend to the opposite side

D) Lateral bend to the same side

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Chapter 18: Hip Joint

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Sample Questions

Q1) The gluteus minimus is a prime mover in which hip motion?

A) Flexion

B) Lateral rotation

C) Medial rotation

D) Adduction

Q2) Which of the following will most effectively work the hip extensors in a closed chain manner?

A) Prone,extend hip with knee flexed

B) Prone,extend hip with knee extended

C) Supine,flex hip

D) Standing lunges

Q3) Which one-joint muscle extends the hip?

A) Biceps femoris

B) Semitendinosus

C) Vastus intermedialis

D) Gluteus maximus

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Knee Joint

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Sample Questions

Q1) A crush injury to the tibial nerve could cause weakness of which of the following muscles?

A) Rectus femoris

B) Semimembranosus

C) Short head of biceps femoris

D) Gastrocnemius

Q2) The bony landmark of the tibia that comprises the proximal medial end is called the A) medial malleolus.

B) medial condyle.

C) medial tubercle.

D) tibial tuberosity.

Q3) Which of the following would be an effective closed-chain exercise to strengthen the quadriceps and the hamstring muscles?

A) Mini-squats

B) Step-ups

C) Lunges

D) All of the above

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21

Chapter 20: Ankle Joint and Foot

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Sample Questions

Q1) With an ankle sprain,the most common direction of the twist and the tissue damaged is which of the following?

A) Rolling to an everted position and spraining the deltoid ligament

B) Rolling to an everted position and spraining the lateral ligament

C) Rolling to an inverted position and spraining the deltoid ligament

D) Rolling to an inverted position and spraining the lateral ligament

Q2) Which intrinsic muscle is the only intrinsic located on the dorsal surface of the foot?

A) Abductor hallucis

B) Lumbricales

C) Extensor digitorum brevis

D) Flexor digiti minimi

Q3) Which muscle originates on the fibula and runs behind the lateral malleolus to the base of the fifth metatarsal?

A) Peroneus brevis

B) Peroneus tertius

C) Tibialis anterior

D) Tibialis posterior

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Chapter 21: Posture

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Sample Questions

Q1) Postural sway is a normal phenomenon that is largely controlled by gravity and which of the following muscle groups?

A) Quadriceps and hamstrings

B) Hip extensors and flexors

C) Ankle plantar flexors and dorsiflexors

D) Ankle invertors and evertors

Q2) For optimal lateral view standing posture,a plumb line should be aligned with all of the following landmarks except

A) through the earlobe.

B) through the acromion process of the shoulder.

C) the anterior to the greater trochanter.

D) the posterior to the patella.

Q3) The antigravity muscles are considered to be all of the following EXCEPT the A) hip and knee extensors.

B) trunk rotators.

C) neck extensors.

D) ankle pronators and supinators.

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23

Chapter 22: Gait

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Sample Questions

Q1) Vertical displacement of the center of gravity is at its lowest at which point in the gait cycle?

A) Midstance

B) Midswing

C) Initial contact

D) Preswing

Q2) You will be working with a patient who has had a stroke.You expect which of the following descriptions to best characterize the typical gait pattern that you will see?

A) Excessive anterior pelvic tilt and lumbar lordosis with exaggerated arm swing

B) A shift of the trunk to the affected side with weight-bearing

C) Weight shift to the uninvolved side with circumduction of the involved leg

D) A quick shift posteriorly of the trunk at the moment of heel strike

Q3) A verbal cue that you could give a patient with poor balance to improve their gait safety is

A) increase the cadence.

B) decrease the step length.

C) increase the width of walking base.

D) B and C

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