Physical Therapy Fundamentals
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Physical Therapy Fundamentals introduces students to the foundational principles and practices of physical therapy, emphasizing the role of movement, functional assessment, and therapeutic interventions in patient care. This course explores basic anatomy and physiology relevant to physical therapy, common musculoskeletal conditions, modalities for pain management, and introductory patient evaluation techniques. Students will also gain insight into the professional and ethical standards of the field, learn proper body mechanics and safety procedures, and develop essential communication skills necessary for effective patient interaction and interdisciplinary collaboration.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Kinesiology and Anatomy 5th Edition by
Lynn S. Lippert PT MS
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22 Chapters
359 Verified Questions
359 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ulna is where in relation to the humerus?
A) Medial
B) Lateral
C) Proximal
D) Distal
Answer: D
Q2) A movement of one bone on another bone to cause an increase in joint angle is called
A) flexion.
B) extension.
C) rotation.
D) circumduction.
Answer: B
Q3) Turning your head to look over your left shoulder involves cervical
A) left rotation.
B) right rotation.
C) left lateral bend.
D) right lateral bend.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of bone makes up the dense,hard outer shell?
A) Compact bone
B) Cancellous bone
C) Marrow
D) Periosteum
Answer: A
Q2) The membrane that surrounds the bone and contains nerves and blood vessels is the
A) epiphysis.
B) periosteum.
C) medullary canal.
D) metaphysis.
Answer: B
Q3) A bone marking that consists of a sharp ridge or border is called a A) foramen.
B) crest.
C) head.
D) fossa.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Articular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hip is an example of which type of joint?
A) Nonaxial
B) Uniaxial
C) Biaxial
D) Triaxial
Answer: D
Q2) Joints serve which of the following functions?
A) Bear weight and provide stability
B) Allow motion
C) Contain fluid that lubricates and nourishes the cartilage
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) The wrist is an example of which type of joint?
A) Nonaxial
B) Uniaxial
C) Biaxial
D) Triaxial
Answer: C
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5
Chapter 4: Arthrokinematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of joint end feel characterized by a leatherlike limitation with some give is A) bony.
B) soft tissue approximation.
C) capsular.
D) empty.
Q2) The type of arthrokinematic motion characterized by rotation of one surface on a fixed adjacent surface is called A) roll.
B) spin.
C) glide.
D) Any of the above
Q3) The close-packed position of the facet joints of the spine is in which of the following spinal positions?
A) Flexion
B) Extension
C) Lateral bend
D) Elevation
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Chapter 5: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement regarding oblique muscle fibers?
A) Oblique muscle fibers tend to be longer than parallel fibers,thus having more strength potential than parallel fibers.
B) Oblique muscle fibers tend to be longer than parallel fibers,thus having less strength potential than parallel fibers.
C) Oblique muscle fibers tend to be shorter than parallel fibers,thus having more strength potential than parallel fibers.
D) Oblique muscle fibers tend to be shorter than parallel fibers,thus having less strength potential than parallel fibers.
Q2) What is the term for a muscle contraction in which the proximal end moves toward the distal end?
A) Irritability
B) Extensibility
C) Reversal of muscle action
D) Active insufficiency
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Chapter 6: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with weakness of knee extension has damage to which of the following nerves?
A) Radial nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Common peroneal nerve
Q2) The white fatty substance present in the central nervous system (CNS)and peripheral nervous system (PNS)that serves to increase the speed of impulse conduction is called
A) myelin.
B) the node of Ranvier.
C) a neuron.
D) a tract.
Q3) The nerve plexus formed by the rami of C5 through T1 is called the A) cervical plexus.
B) brachial plexus.
C) thoracic plexus.
D) lumbosacral plexus.
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Chapter 7: Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The joining of vessels to provide alternate circulation in case of a blood vessel blockage is referred to as which of the following?
A) Aneurysm
B) Anastomosis
C) Arteriole
D) Angion
Q2) A type of cerebral hemorrhage that occurs in a vein with symptoms that occur over time is which of the following?
A) Epidural bleed
B) Ischemic bleed
C) Varicose bleed
D) Subdural bleed
Q3) Movement of lymph through the system is influenced by any of the following EXCEPT
A) skeletal muscle contraction.
B) diaphragm movement with abdominal breathing.
C) intestinal peristalsis.
D) stretch reflex of lymph angions.
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9
Chapter 8: Basic Biomechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a PTA wishes to manually resist the knee extensors for an athlete and wishes to make the exercise as difficult as possible for the client,the best placement of her hand would be which of the following?
A) Proximal to the knee joint
B) Just distal to the tibial tuberosity
C) Midpoint of the tibia
D) Just proximal to the talus
Q2) In order to decrease the challenge of a client working on balance,you would do which of the following?
A) Raise the center of gravity and increase the base of support
B) Raise the center of gravity and decrease the base of support
C) Lower the center of gravity and increase the base of support
D) Lower the center of gravity and decrease the base of support
Q3) Two forces acting in equal but opposite directions and resulting in a turning effect is called a
A) stabilizing force.
B) dislocating force.
C) moment of force.
D) force couple.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bony landmark of the scapula that exists where the vertebral and axillary borders meet is the
A) superior angle.
B) inferior angle.
C) spine.
D) acromion process.
Q2) Which muscle originates on the nuchal ligament and occipital bone and inserts in the lateral third of the clavicle?
A) Serratus anterior
B) Rhomboids
C) Upper trapezius
D) Pectoralis major
Q3) The levator scapula and rhomboids have which of the following motions in common?
A) Elevation
B) Depression
C) Upward rotation
D) Depression.
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11
Chapter 10: Shoulder Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reason you have your client laterally rotate his shoulder when moving between 90 and 180 degrees of shoulder abduction is to prevent what structure from hitting the acromion process?
A) Deltoid tuberosity
B) Lesser tubercle
C) Adductor tubercle
D) Greater tubercle
Q2) Which muscle originates on the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula and inserts on the olecranon process of the ulna?
A) Long head of the triceps brachii
B) Lateral head of the triceps brachii
C) Long head of the biceps brachii
D) Short head of the biceps brachii
Q3) Which muscle flexes the shoulder through its entire range?
A) Subscapularis
B) Teres major
C) Pectoralis major,clavicular portion
D) Anterior deltoid
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Chapter 11: Elbow Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elbow extension occurs in which plane and through which axis?
A) Transverse plane through a vertical axis
B) Frontal plane through a sagittal axis
C) Sagittal plane through a frontal axis
D) Transverse plane through a transverse axis
Q2) The position of the elbow and shoulder that could potentially make the biceps brachii muscle actively insufficient would be which of the following?
A) Shoulder extension and elbow flexion
B) Shoulder flexion and elbow extension
C) Shoulder flexion and elbow flexion
D) Shoulder extension and elbow extension
Q3) The muscles that would act on the forearm to neutralize forearm supination would be which of the following muscles?
A) Triceps and pronator teres
B) Pronator teres and pronator quadratus
C) Brachialis and brachioradialis
D) Triceps and anconeus
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13
Chapter 12: Wrist Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle originates on the medial epicondyle of the humerus and inserts on the base of the second metacarpal?
A) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
B) Flexor digitorum profundus
C) Flexor carpi radialis
D) Extensor digitorum
Q2) The PT plan of care directs you to do ISOM strengthening of the wrist extensors in a shortened position.To do this you would place the wrist in which of the following positions?
A) Neutral
B) Flexion
C) Extension
D) Any of the above would be correct.
Q3) The ligament that attaches to the styloid process of the radius and to the scaphoid and trapezium bones is the
A) radial collateral ligament.
B) ulnar collateral ligament.
C) dorsal radiocarpal ligament.
D) interosseous membrane.
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Chapter 13: Hand
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle originates on the flexor digitorum profundus tendon and inserts on the tendon of the extensor digitorum muscle?
A) Palmar interossei
B) Dorsal interossei
C) Flexor pollicis brevis
D) Lumbricales
Q2) Which type of grip is used to pick up a coin?
A) Lumbrical grip
B) Pincer grip
C) Cylindrical grip
D) Spherical grip
Q3) Which bony arch is formed by the heads of the metacarpals?
A) Lumbrical arch
B) Proximal carpal arch
C) Distal carpal arch
D) Longitudinal arch
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Chapter 14: Temporomandibular Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protraction is primarily achieved by which of the following muscles?
A) Lateral pterygoid
B) Medial pterygoid
C) Masseter
D) A and B
Q2) Which muscle originates on the temporal fossa and inserts on the coronoid process and ramus of the mandible?
A) Temporalis
B) Masseter
C) Medial pterygoid
D) Lateral pterygoid
Q3) All of the following muscles are prime movers in mandibular elevation EXCEPT the A) lateral pterygoid.
B) medial pterygoid.
C) temporalis.
D) masseter.
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Chapter 15: Neck and Trunk
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscle that originates on the iliac crest and inserts on the 12th rib and transverse processes of T12 to L5 is the A) iliopsoas.
B) quadratus lumborum.
C) rectus abdominis.
D) internal oblique.
Q2) The bony landmark of the vertebra that makes up the anterior portion of the neural arch is called the A) lamina.
B) pedicle.
C) vertebral foramen.
D) spinous process.
Q3) All of the following muscles,when contracted unilaterally,will produce lateral bend of the spine EXCEPT the A) intertransversarii.
B) scalene.
C) rectus abdominis.
D) external oblique.
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17
Chapter 16: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most inferior tip of the sternum is called the A) xiphoid process.
B) manubrium.
C) demifacet.
D) tubercle.
Q2) At rest,what is the shape of the diaphragm muscle?
A) Concave
B) Dome-shaped
C) Convex
D) The diaphragm doesn't change shape with rest or when contracted.
Q3) Which muscle originates on the xiphoid process,the ribs,and the lumbar vertebra and inserts on the central tendon?
A) Internal intercostals
B) External intercostals
C) Diaphragm
D) Pectoralis major
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Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The supporting ligament of the symphysis pubis that attaches to the pubic tubercles is the
A) sacrospinous ligament.
B) iliolumbar ligament.
C) inferior pubic ligament.
D) superior pubic ligament.
Q2) The bony landmark of the sacrum that makes up the lateral surface and articulates with the ilium is called the
A) ala.
B) auricular surface.
C) superior articular process.
D) pelvic surface.
Q3) The pelvic force couple that combines to maintain a level pelvis when the left leg is unsupported during the gait cycle is which of the following?
A) Left trunk lateral benders and right hip abductors
B) Right trunk lateral benders and left hip abductors
C) Left trunk lateral benders and left hip abductors
D) Right trunk lateral benders and right hip abductors
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Chapter 18: Hip Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle is NOT a prime mover in hip flexion?
A) Tensor fascia latae
B) Biceps femoris
C) Rectus femoris
D) Iliopsoas
Q2) Your patient has had a crush injury to the sciatic nerve.You would expect to see weakness in any of the following muscles EXCEPT the A) semimembranosus.
B) biceps femoris.
C) rectus femoris.
D) All of these could be affected by a sciatic nerve injury.
Q3) The muscle that originates on the iliac fossa and lateral surfaces of T12 through L5 and inserts on the lesser trochanter is the A) pectineus.
B) quadratus lumborum.
C) deep rotator.
D) iliopsoas.
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Chapter 19: Knee Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle has its origin at the medial and lateral condyles of the femur and its insertion at the posterior calcaneus?
A) Popliteus
B) Gastrocnemius
C) Plantaris
D) Soleus
Q2) You are asked to instruct your client in eccentric strengthening of the quadriceps.The BEST instruction would be which of the following?
A) Seated,extend the knee
B) Seated with knee extended,slowly lower the foot,flexing the knee
C) Supine with knee flexed over a bolster,extend the knee
D) Prone with knee flexed,lower foot,extending the knee
Q3) Which of the following ligaments prevents excessive forward movement of the tibia on the femur?
A) Lateral meniscus
B) Medial collateral
C) Anterior cruciate ligament
D) Genu labrum
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Chapter 20: Ankle Joint and Foot
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be an effective closed chain exercise for strengthening all muscles of the ankle and foot?
A) Mini squats
B) Step-ups
C) Lunges
D) All of the above
Q2) The majority of the intrinsic muscles of the foot are innervated by which of the following nerves?
A) Medial and lateral plantar nerves
B) Superficial peroneal nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Deep peroneal nerve
Q3) Which muscle originates from the posterior tibia and inserts on the distal phalanges of the four lesser toes?
A) Tibialis posterior
B) Flexor digitorum longus
C) Flexor hallucis longus
D) Dorsal interossei
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22
Chapter 21: Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with a facet joint problem in the spine is generally most comfortable in which of the following positions?
A) Lying prone
B) Lying supine with legs extended
C) Side-lying with top leg extended behind the body
D) Side-lying with both legs flexed toward the chest
Q2) For optimal lateral view standing posture,a plumb line should be aligned with all of the following landmarks except
A) through the earlobe.
B) through the acromion process of the shoulder.
C) the anterior to the greater trochanter.
D) the posterior to the patella.
Q3) Which two spinal curves are considered to be the secondary (antigravity)curves?
A) Cervical and thoracic
B) Thoracic and sacral
C) Cervical and lumbar
D) Lumbar and sacral
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23
Chapter 22: Gait
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you note a problem with gait that occurs when the non-weight-bearing limb is directly under the body,you are speaking of which part of the swing phase?
A) Preswing
B) Initial swing
C) Midswing
D) Terminal swing
Q2) Your patient has a long leg cast on the left leg but is allowed to bear weight while ambulating.During the swing phase,what will you likely see that person do to move that limb forward?
A) Extend the trunk
B) Shift the trunk to the left side during swing phase
C) Circumduct the left hip
D) Flex the knee on the right side
Q3) The term used to describe walking speed is
A) cadence.
B) stride length.
C) gait cycle.
D) period of nonsupport.
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