Physical Therapy Fundamentals
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Physical Therapy Fundamentals provides a comprehensive introduction to the foundational concepts, principles, and practices central to the field of physical therapy. This course covers the basics of musculoskeletal and neuromuscular systems, patient assessment techniques, therapeutic interventions, and rehabilitation strategies. Students will explore human movement sciences, functional anatomy, and the role of physical therapists in various healthcare settings. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practice, ethical considerations, and the development of professional communication and clinical reasoning skills necessary for effective patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Exercise Foundations and Techniques 6th Edition by Carolyn Kisner
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25 Chapters
448 Verified Questions
448 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Therapeutic Exercise: Foundational Concepts
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23 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is performing pelvic tilt exercises for the first time and needs verbal and tactile cues (feedback)to perform this exercise correctly.This represents which stage of motor learning?
A) Cognitive
B) Contemplative
C) Associative
D) Autonomous
Answer: A
Q2) Ms.L is a 78-year-old who underwent surgery for internal fixation of an intertrochanteric fracture of the (L)hip 3 days ago.For the next few weeks she must remain non-weight bearing on the operated side and has begun to use a walker for ambulation.She is able to walk for short distances around her hospital bed but is not yet able to rise from a chair to standing.The inability to stand from a sitting position is classified as a(n):
A) Health condition.
B) Impairment.
C) Activity limitation.
D) Participation restriction.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Prevention, health, and Wellness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the target audience for a program of physical activity designed for primary prevention of childhood obesity?
A) A group of morbidly obese children who have been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes
B) A group of mildly obese children who are identified as being "at risk" for type 2 diabetes
C) A group of mildly obese children
D) A group of sedentary children whose weight is within normal limits
Answer: D
Q2) An individual who perceives a threat of contracting a disease follows specific health recommendations to prevent or reduce the risk of contracting the disease.These behaviors are aligned with what behavioral change theory or model?
A) Social cognitive theory
B) Health belief model
C) Transtheoretical model
D) Risk assessment theory
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Range of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a benefit of using CPM?
A) Increased synovial fluid lubrication of the joint
B) Prevents development of adhesions
C) Long-term functional gains
D) Enhancing incisional healing
Answer: C
Q2) Interventions to improve impaired mobility include all of the following except:
A) Range of motion exercises.
B) Joint-mobilization exercises.
C) Proprioceptive exercises.
D) Stretching exercises.
Answer: C
Q3) According to the authors,the suggested number of repetitions for AROM to any given joint is:
A) 2-3.
B) 3-5.
C) 5-10.
D) 15-20.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Stretching for Impaired Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Safe and effective stretching to increase ROM requires all of the following except:
A) Proper alignment and patient positioning.
B) Stabilization of the proximal attachment of the muscle.
C) Use of gained ROM in active function.
D) Strengthening of the agonist.
Q2) Your patient develops a contracture as the result of hypertonicity after a traumatic brain injury.This type of hip contracture is called a(n):
A) Arthrogenic contracture.
B) Pseudomyostatic contracture.
C) Fibrotic contracture.
D) Myostatic contracture.
Q3) The type of stretching technique that utilizes a high-speed,high-intensity,and short-duration stretch force is called a:
A) Ballistic stretch.
B) Static stretch.
C) Cyclic stretch.
D) Mechanical stretch.
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6
Chapter 5: Peripheral Joint Mobilizationmanipulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) To increase flexion of the carpometacarpal (CMC)joint of the thumb:
A) Glide the base of the first metacarpal in an ulnar direction on the trapezium.
B) Glide the base of the first metacarpal dorsally on the trapezium.
C) Glide the base of the first metacarpal radially on the trapezium.
D) Glide the base of the first metacarpal in a volar direction on the trapezium.
Q2) The safest way to progress stretching the glenohumeral joint capsule to increase external rotation is:
A) Position the arm in 90S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 abduction with the humerus in neutral position and do an anterior glide.
B) Position the arm in 90S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0abduction with the humerus externally rotated as far as possible and do an anterior glide.
C) Position the arm in the resting position with the humerus externally rotated as far as possible and do a distraction.
D) Position the arm in the resting position with the humerus externally rotated as far as possible and do an anterior glide.
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7
Chapter 6: Resistance Exercise for Impaired Muscle
Performance
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Sample Questions
Q1) You test the muscle strength of the middle deltoid and determine it to be 2/5.The goal of an exercise you are having a patient do is to increase muscular endurance of the middle deltoid.Of the exercises described,which is most appropriate to meet the goal at this point in the exercise program?
A) Place the patient in a side-lying position and have her actively abduct the arm without assistance as many times as possible.
B) Place the patient in a sitting position with the elbow flexed and have her abduct the arm through the full ROM 8 to 10 times against light resistance.
C) Place the patient in a supine position on a large mat.As you support the weight of the arm,have the patient abduct the arm through a full ROM as many times as possible against a minimal amount of manual resistance.
D) Have the patient assume the supine position.Provide as much assistance as needed to enable the patient to flex the shoulder from 0S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 to 90S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 for as many repetitions as possible.
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8
Chapter 7: Principles of Aerobic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is correct about the intensity of exercise and achieving a conditioning response?
A) For a young,healthy individual,training at an intensity of 70% maximum heart rate is considered the maximum-level stimulus for a safe training program.
B) If an adult is young,healthy,and accustomed to exercise,training at 100% of the maximum heart rate is recommended to achieve a conditioning response.
C) For a sedentary,deconditioned individual,an initial training intensity at 70% the maximum heart rate is the level of training typically required to achieve a conditioning response.
D) For a sedentary,deconditioned individual,low-intensity exercise at the 40% to 60% level is usually sufficient to induce an initial conditioning response.
Q2) A stress test should be terminated if:
A) There is a significant drop in systolic blood pressure in response to an increasing workload.
B) Cheeks become flushed.
C) Blood pressure increases 7 to 10 mm Hg per MET of physical activity.
D) Respiratory rate and depth increase without shortness of breath.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Exercise for Impaired Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The center of gravity (COG)in most adult humans is located slightly:
A) Posterior to the L2 vertebra.
B) Posterior to the S2 vertebra.
C) Anterior to the L2 vertebra.
D) Anterior to the S2 vertebra.
Q2) An 82-year-old woman is referred to physical therapy with a history of two falls in the past month.The patient lives alone and relies on her daughter for transportation.The best choice of an exercise program for this person is:
A) Otago Exercise Program.
B) Nitz and Choy Circuit Exercise Program.
C) Tai Chi Exercise Program.
D) Group Balance Exercise Program by Means and colleagues.
Q3) Individuals who become unstable or fall in condition 5 (standing on foam with eyes closed)and condition 6 (standing on foam wearing a dome)during the Clinical Test of Sensory Integration on Balance most likely have deficits in:
A) Proprioception.
B) Somatosensation.
C) Vestibular function.
D) Vision.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Aquatic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a person is standing in chest-deep water,the percentage of weight bearing is approximately what percentage of body weight?
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 33%
D) 50%
Q2) Your patient had a total hip replacement several weeks ago.Now that her incision is well healed,she has clearance from her orthopedic surgeon to begin an aquatic exercise program to improve lower extremity strength.Which combination of the following patient positions and velocities of limb movement in water is the most appropriate to begin to improve the strength of the hip abductors/adductors at the initiation of the aquatic exercise program?
A) Fast repetitions while standing in chest-deep water
B) Slow,controlled motions while standing in chest-deep water
C) Fast repetitions,buoyancy-supported in a supine position
D) Slow,controlled repetitions buoyancy-supported in supine position
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Chapter 10: Soft Tissue Injury,repair,and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pain that occurs during the chronic stage of soft tissue healing is best relieved by:
A) Stretching and strengthening the healing tissues.
B) Applying cold.
C) Applying heat and massage.
D) Resting.
Q2) During your evaluation,you identify signs of chronic inflammation of a muscle group.Each of the following techniques is tissue-specific for this condition at this time except:
A) Cross-fiber massage.
B) Grade II joint mobilization.
C) ROM within the limits of pain.
D) Muscle setting in pain-free positions.
Q3) Muscle guarding is best treated by:
A) Applying modalities and then massaging the muscle.
B) Identifying and treating the cause of the guarding.
C) Gentle muscle-setting exercises with the muscle in a shortened position.
D) Massaging the muscle.
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12
Chapter 11: Joint,connective Tissue,and Bone Disorders and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true regarding principles of joint protection and energy conservation for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis experiencing a flare of the disease except:
A) Stop activities for a period of time when pain or fatigue begin to develop.
B) Perform stretching exercises once a day to help maintain joint alignment.
C) Use adaptive equipment to avoid deforming forces during functional activities.
D) Maintain inflamed joints in positions opposite the positions of deformity during periods of rest.
Q2) A therapist's role in diagnosing arthritic conditions is to:
A) Identify the underlying pathological process and inform the physician.
B) Order laboratory tests or radiological imaging that may confirm or rule out the diagnosis.
C) Determine the type of arthritis that is causing the patient's symptoms.
D) Identify impairments,such as the pattern and extent of ROM and joint mobility limitations,contributing to a patient's activity limitations and participation restrictions.
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Chapter 12: Surgical Interventions and Postoperative Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are several types of grafts that can be used to reconstruct a torn knee or ankle ligament.Of the following,which is the best description of an allograft?
A) Graft made of synthetic material
B) Patient's own tissue harvested from the identical ligament on the contralateral (noninvolved)extremity
C) Patient's own tissue harvested from one of many possible donor sites
D) Tissue graft from a cadaver
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about the phases of postoperative rehabilitation?
A) Phases are based on the stages of tissue healing and each patient's responses to interventions.
B) It is important to strictly adhere to a progression of interventions spelled out in a predetermined protocol.
C) During the maximum protection phase of postoperative rehabilitation,movement of the operated body segment is contraindicated regardless of the type of surgery.
D) Once a patient reaches the minimum protection phase after surgery,there is no value to continuing postoperative exercise.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Peripheral Nerve Disorders and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient injured her ulnar nerve falling up some steps and catching herself on the medial side of her hand 2 days ago.She currently has constant tingling and decreased sensation to pressure and touch in the little finger and ulnar half of the ring finger.Your intervention during the first week of treatment will be all of the following except:
A) Protect the nerve by immobilizing the wrist in a splint.
B) Teach active ROM to wrist and fingers.
C) Emphasize the importance of resistive exercises to prevent muscle atrophy.
D) Inform the patient about ways to protect the hand from further injury.
Q2) The pain associated with CRPS type I (reflex sympathetic dystrophy)characteristically is:
A) Entirely psychogenic and responsive to antidepressants.
B) Intermittent and related to body and head position.
C) Out of proportion to the report of history of injury or precipitating event.
D) Always responsive to modalities,primarily cold and electrical stimulation.
Q3) Nonoperative management of carpal tunnel syndrome emphasizes:
A) Vigorous stretching to gain mobility of the structures in the carpal tunnel.
B) Activity modification and joint,nerve,and tendon mobilization.
C) Strengthening exercises,especially to the muscles of the thenar eminence.
D) Immobilization.
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Chapter 14: The Spine: Structure, function, and Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient describes posterior cervical pain and headaches that get progressively worse throughout each workday.She is a computer programmer,plays tennis on the weekends,and is an aerobic walker in the evenings.Your evaluation reveals a person who is physically fit with well-balanced flexibility and strength.Your treatment emphasis will be:
A) Stretching the short suboccipital muscles,levator,and scalene muscles.
B) Teaching tension-reducing postures and modification of chair,desk,and computer height.
C) Teaching proper warm-up exercises and progressing her aerobic program to running.
D) Changing her sleeping posture and pillow height.
Q2) Your patient describes increased pain in the back in the morning before getting out of bed.The patient should be:
A) Advised to never sleep prone.
B) Evaluated as to the sleeping posture and advised in mechanically safe adaptations.
C) Advised to sleep with a pillow under her knees if she tends to sleep supine.
D) Advised to place a board under a soft mattresses.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Spine: Management Guidelines
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent adhesions from forming around a nerve root when an individual has an inflammation from a disk lesion,trauma,or surgery:
A) Passive press-ups should be taught.
B) Passive joint mobilizations should be done.
C) Passive straight-leg raises should be done.
D) Passive knee to chest should be done.
Q2) Following recovery of a posterolateral disk protrusion,your patient will be returning to a job that requires prolonged forward bending and stooping.Your instructions to the patient must include:
A) Interruption of the flexed postures at frequent intervals by standing upright and bending backward.
B) Advice to quit that job.
C) No advice-forward bending helps maintain mobility in the spine.
D) Preparing for the forward bending by posterior tilting of the pelvis before bending and stooping
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Chapter 16: The Spine: Exercise and Manipulation
Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a patient to be able to learn good body mechanics for lifting:
A) The abdominal muscles must be strong enough to maintain a posterior pelvic tilt.
B) The patient must be able to maintain a neutral spinal posture against the force being lifted.
C) The spine needs to be braced in extension by the trunk muscles.
D) Emphasis should be placed on strengthening the lower extremity musculature,not the spinal musculature.
Q2) The first step in training a patient with spinal stabilization techniques should be:
A) Performing posterior pelvic tilt followed by alternating arm and leg motions.
B) Developing muscular endurance prior to strength.
C) Teaching awareness of safe spinal motions and functional position.
D) Developing control of extremity motions while in the functional position.
Q3) Spinal manipulation techniques are contraindicated:
A) In pregnant women.
B) In patients with osteoporosis.
C) In patients currently using corticosteroids.
D) In the high cervical spine due to risk of vertebral artery compromise.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Shoulder and Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Impingement syndromes of the shoulder are associated with both intrinsic and extrinsic factors affecting the structures in the suprahumeral space and resulting in shoulder pain.Of the following contributing factors,which is classified as an intrinsic factor?
A) Vascular changes in the rotator cuff tendons
B) Hypertrophic degenerative changes of the AC joint
C) The shape of the acromion
D) Increased thoracic extension
Q2) Muscles that typically are shortened in patients with shoulder impingement syndrome are the:
A) Teres major and minor,subscapularis,infraspinatus,and levator scapulae.
B) Pectoralis major and minor,latissimus dorsi,infraspinatus,and teres minor.
C) Pectoralis major and minor,teres major and minor,and serratus anterior.
D) Pectoralis major and minor and the subscapularis and levator scapulae.
Q3) Results of numerous outcome studies have demonstrated that the most predictable outcome after shoulder arthroplasty is:
A) Increased active shoulder ROM.
B) Increased shoulder-joint stability.
C) Pain relief.
D) Improved function of the rotator cuff mechanism.
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Chapter 18: The Elbow and Forearm Complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tennis elbow may involve all of the following structures except the:
A) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
B) Extensor communis
C) Pronator teres
D) Annular ligament
Q2) Your goal is to increase end-range elbow flexion using joint-mobilization techniques.Which of the following techniques is appropriate?
A) Stabilize the distal humerus and apply a proximal glide of the ulna
B) Apply a valgus stress at the elbow
C) Stabilize the humerus and apply a dorsal glide to the head of the radius
D) Stabilize the distal humerus and apply an ulnar (lateral)glide of the ulna
Q3) Current research shows that the "survival rate" for total elbow arthroplasty (TEA)is:
A) 30% over a 10-year period.
B) Greater for patients with RA than for those with traumatic arthritis or OA.
C) Highly correlated with the type of implant (prosthesis).
D) 82% over a 5.5-year period.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: The Wrist and Hand
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true about the use of early controlled motion after tendon repair in the hand and forearm except:
A) When ROM exercises are initiated,they are performed within a protected range to minimize the risk of excessive stress on the repair site and gapping of the repaired tendon ends.
B) It has been shown to increase the tensile strength of the scar at the repair site more effectively than the use of prolonged immobilization after a surgical repair.
C) It is thought to improve synovial fluid diffusion,thereby improving tendon nutrition and promoting tendon healing.
D) It is used more often after extensor tendon repair than after flexor tendon repair.
Q2) During the subacute stage of soft tissue healing after injury and repair of the flexor tendons of the hand or forearm,each of the following is an important intervention except:
A) Scar management with pressure on the scar.
B) Tendon gliding exercises.
C) Gentle prolonged stretch.
D) Progressive resistance exercise.
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21
Chapter 20: The Hip
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are initiating postoperative treatment for a 78-year-old woman who sustained an intertrochanteric fracture of the proximal femur 3 days ago and immediately underwent open reduction with internal fixation (screw-plate fixation).She has been referred to physical therapy for postoperative exercise and gait/functional training (initially with minimal weight bearing on the operated side).A decision has not yet been made as to whether this patient will be discharged directly to home where she lives with her husband or to a subacute skilled nursing facility.Prior to discharge from the hospital during the next few days,which of the following is the lowest priority intervention?
A) Gait training with a walker and transfer/bed mobility training
B) Assisted,progressing to active,range of motion of the operated hip
C) Open-chain,resistance exercises for the operated lower extremity
D) Closed-chain,resisted exercises for the upper extremities and sound lower extremity,emphasizing extension in functional patterns
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Chapter 21: The Knee
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true about guidelines for rehabilitation after a procedure to repair an articular cartilage defect except:
A) ROM exercises (within a protected range)typically are begun a few days postoperatively.
B) Protective bracing is worn during early weight bearing and exercises.
C) The larger the articular defect,the slower the progression of postoperative rehabilitation.
D) There is a longer period of protected weight bearing after microfracture than after an osteochondral autograft transplantation or autologous chondrocyte implantation.
Q2) A quadriceps lag may be described as:
A) Patient has full active knee extension but exhibits increased time to peak torque when knee extensors are evaluated on an isokinetic dynamometer.
B) Patient has full passive knee flexion but limited passive knee extension.
C) Patient cannot actively extend the knee to full extension even though there is full passive knee extension.
D) Another term for knee extension contracture.
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Chapter 22: The Ankle and Foot
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has rheumatoid arthritis and is complaining of pain in her ankles and feet when walking.You observe her gait and notice short steps and poor push-off.This is consistent with what deformity in rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Everted calcaneus and pronated forefoot
B) Inverted calcaneus and pronated forefoot
C) Everted calcaneus and supinated forefoot
D) Inverted calcaneus and supinated forefoot
Q2) Following a severe (grade 3)inversion sprain,your patient complains of pain just distal and lateral to the knee joint.The pain is likely the result of:
A) Subluxation of the proximal tibiofibular joint.
B) Tear of the lateral collateral ligament.
C) Tear of the lateral head of the gastrocnemius.
D) Referred pain from gait deviations due to sore ankle joints and ligaments.
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Chapter 23: Advanced Functional Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phase of a plyometric activity during which the muscle reverses its action from deceleration to acceleration of the load is called the:
A) Stretch phase
B) Amortization phase
C) Concentric Phase
D) Eccentric Phase
Q2) Plyometric training drills are an example of an intervention to develop primarily which of the following?
A) Coordination
B) Power
C) Balance
D) Endurance
Q3) Which of the following describes a proper progression of positions to increase balance and postural stability?
A) Standing to tall kneeling
B) Unilateral stance to tandem stance
C) Half-kneeling to sitting without foot support
D) Reaching activities in bilateral stance to unilateral stance
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25
Chapter 24: Womens Health: Obstetrics and Pelvic Floor
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common postural changes/deviations that develop or become exaggerated during pregnancy include each of the following except:
A) Decreased thoracic kyphosis.
B) Increased internal rotation of the shoulders.
C) Excessive lumbar lordosis.
D) Genu recurvatum.
Q2) Which of the following statements adequately represents aerobic exercise guidelines for a woman during an uncomplicated pregnancy?
A) Continue exercise at levels prior to pregnancy with the understanding that a lower intensity of exercise results in the same level of exertion.
B) Limit exercise to three times a week at a target heart rate during exercise based on a conventional age-based calculation.
C) Women who have not been exercising prior to pregnancy should wait for 3 months after delivery to begin an exercise program.
D) If a woman has exercised prior to pregnancy,all types of exercise can be continued throughout pregnancy,including those with ballistic,end-range movements and rapid changes of direction.
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Chapter 25: Management of Lymphatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have completed the examination and evaluation and determined that your patient presents with right upper extremity lymphedema.The edema is soft and pitting without evidence of tissue fibrosis,and the patient reports that elevation of the extremity reduces the swelling temporarily.What stage of lymphedema do you document?
A) Stage 0-latency stage
B) Stage I-reversible stage
C) Stage II-spontaneously irreversible
D) Stage III-lymphostatic elephantiasis
Q2) Signs and symptoms of chronic venous insufficiency can include any of the following except:
A) Venous distention in the affected limb.
B) Dependent peripheral edema.
C) Brownish pigmentation of the affected limb.
D) Severe pain with the limb in an elevated position.
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