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Physical Therapy Fundamentals introduces students to the essential principles and practices of physical therapy within the healthcare system. The course covers foundational knowledge in anatomy, physiology, biomechanics, and therapeutic exercise, emphasizing the role of physical therapists in assessment, diagnosis, and treatment of movement dysfunction. Students will explore evidence-based approaches to patient care, develop an understanding of professional communication and ethical practice, and gain introductory skills in manual therapy, patient mobility, and assistive device usage, preparing them for advanced study and clinical application in the field of physical therapy.
Recommended Textbook
Pierson and Fairchilds Principles Techniques of Patient Care 5th Edition by Sheryl L. Fairchild
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13 Chapters
260 Verified Questions
260 Flashcards
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Q1) Which of the following statements might a therapist avoid to facilitate appropriate communication with a patient who has a visual impairment?
A) "Let's go over the plan one step at a time."
B) "Did you hear about the big fire?"
C) "I'll see you later."
D) "I want you to walk through this sequence of exercises."
Answer: C
Q2) What is the term used for a type of medical event during which no harm occurs either due to intervention by an individual or due to chance?
A) Sentinel event
B) Potential adverse event
C) Active event
D) Latent event
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following is appropriate with respect to maintaining a sterile field?
A) A sterile field must not be left unattended.
B) It's acceptable to turn your back to a sterile field as long as you remain in the same room.
C) Talking is allowed across a sterile field, but sneezing, coughing, and reaching across it must be avoided.
D) The base of a sterile field should be slightly moist.
Answer: A
Q2) Microorganisms move from place to place by various means in a cyclical manner.What are the five elements in the cycle of infection?
A) Reservoir, exit, transmission, infection, and susception
B) Isolation, wound, contamination, infection, and sterilization
C) Infection, contamination, decontamination, transmission, and exit
D) Susception, reservoir, wound, isolation, and exit
Answer: A
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Q1) For patients unable to maintain a thermometer in the mouth,which secondary source may be used to obtain a body temperature measurement?
A) The rectum or ear canal
B) The axilla or posterior knee
C) The forehead
D) The palm
Answer: A
Q2) What is the appropriate method for assessing a patient's pulse at the brachial artery?
A) Use your thumb and apply significant pressure on the artery.
B) Use two or three fingertips to apply gentle pressure on the artery, avoiding use of the thumb.
C) Use one finger with significant pressure applied on the artery.
D) Use the pad of the thumb, placed gently over the artery.
Answer: B
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Q1) Which lift involves placing the object to be lifted on the thigh of the flexed lower extremity and moving it close to the body before the flexed lower extremity begins rising to standing?
A) Straight leg lift
B) One-leg stance lift
C) Deep squat lift
D) Half-kneeling lift
Q2) How are compressive forces directed to intervertebral discs during lumbar lordosis?
A) Anteriorly
B) Posteriorly
C) Laterally
D) Superiorly
Q3) Which muscle group is most important for movements and lifts that require extra effort?
A) Scapular stabilizers
B) Core stabilizers
C) Ankle stabilizers
D) Knee stabilizers
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Q1) What is a potential adverse effect of the placement of a small bolster behind the knees of a supine patient?
A) Quadriceps and hip extensor contractures
B) Erector spinae and ankle dorsiflexor contractures
C) Iliopsoas and hamstring contractures
D) Hip adductor and extensor contractures
Q2) Which positions are most detrimental to a patient with a transtibial amputation?
A) Prolonged hip and knee extension
B) Prolonged hip and trunk extension
C) Prolonged hip and knee flexion
D) Prolonged hip adduction and knee extension
Q3) Which positions of the involved upper extremity are most detrimental to a patient with hemiplegia?
A) Prolonged shoulder adduction and internal rotation, and elbow flexion
B) Prolonged shoulder abduction and internal rotation, and elbow extension
C) Prolonged shoulder adduction and external rotation, and elbow flexion
D) Prolonged shoulder abduction and external rotation, and elbow extension
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Q1) Which type of range-of-motion exercise is most appropriate at the site of an unhealed fracture?
A) PROM
B) AROM
C) AAROM
D) All of the above are appropriate
Q2) When a person is supine,how do the shoulder extensors function from 0 to 90 degrees of active shoulder flexion?
A) Isometrically
B) Concentrically
C) Eccentrically
D) None of the above
Q3) If a joint or soft tissue is painful when moved through its range,or when inflammation is present in the area,which type of exercise should be used to maintain muscle tone?
A) Isokinetic
B) Isotonic
C) Isometric
D) Eccentric
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Q1) Which wheelchair feature would be most beneficial for a user who has poor trunk stability?
A) Elevating leg rests
B) Toggle locks
C) Chest and lap belts
D) Removable armrests
Q2) How does the "amputee" wheelchair differ from standard wheelchairs?
A) The seat is lowered approximately 2 inches.
B) The rear wheel axles are positioned 2 inches posterior to their normal position.
C) The seat is widened approximately 2 inches.
D) The rear wheel axles are positioned 2 inches anterior to their normal position.
Q3) Which of the following is not an advantage of a chair cushion?
A) Helps distribute pressure to reduce skin breakdown
B) Provides support for the pelvis
C) Adds comfort
D) Eliminates pressure to the ischial tuberosities
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Q1) Where should a caregiver not allow a patient to place his or her upper extremities during a standing,dependent pivot transfer?
A) Around the caregiver's neck
B) Around the caregiver's upper back
C) Around the caregiver's middle back
D) Across the patient's chest
Q2) In transferring a patient with a recent total hip replacement from a chair to a bed,which motions should be avoided?
A) Adduction of the replaced hip beyond midline
B) Excessive internal or external rotation
C) Hip flexion beyond 60-90 degrees
D) All of the above
Q3) Where should the caregiver position a patient's upper extremities when a mechanical lift is used?
A) Folded over the abdomen
B) Around the outside of the sling
C) Holding onto the spreader bar
D) Above the head
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Q1) In determining proper walker height for a patient,where are the rear tips of the walker positioned?
A) Slightly ahead of the toes
B) Opposite the midportion of the feet
C) Next to the patient's heels
D) 2 inches behind the heels
Q2) For forearm crutches,what is the proper location for the top of the forearm cuff?
A) 1 to 1.5 inches distal to the olecranon process
B) 1 to 1.5 inches proximal to the ulnar styloid process
C) 5-6 inches distal to the olecranon process
D) 5-6 inches proximal to the ulnar styloid process
Q3) At what level should the handgrip of a walker be placed?
A) The patient's fingertips
B) The patient's waist
C) The patient's olecranon process
D) The patient's wrist crease
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Q1) Which of the following is a graphical record of the heart's electrical action?
A) EKG
B) ETT
C) INR
D) MI
Q2) Which treatment is used for patients who experience ESRD?
A) Traction
B) Dialysis
C) External fixation
D) Internal fixation
Q3) What level of oxygen saturation in the blood should be maintained when a patient exercises?
A) Minimum of 70 percent
B) Minimum of 80 percent
C) Minimum of 90 percent
D) Minimum of 95 percent
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Q1) The vascular,exudates,and reparative phases occur in which stage of wound healing?
A) Inflammatory
B) Proliferative
C) Remodeling
D) Maturation
Q2) Which type of debridement uses a scalpel or scissors to remove necrotic tissue?
A) Sharp
B) Mechanical
C) Chemical
D) Autolysis
Q3) According to the rule of nines,what percentage of the total body area is each upper extremity assigned?
A) 9 percent
B) 18 percent
C) 27 percent
D) 36 percent
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Q1) Which of the following are symptoms of heat exhaustion?
A) Dry skin
B) Slow, deep breathing
C) Nausea and headache
D) Convulsions
Q2) How should a seizing person be handled?
A) All extremities should be restrained during the seizure
B) Motions of the lower extremities should be restricted
C) Head motion should be restrained
D) Convulsions should not be restrained or restricted
Q3) Which of the following are signs of hyperglycemia?
A) Dry tongue
B) Large amounts of glucose in urine
C) Drowsy behavior
D) All of the above
Q4) Which of the following are signs of hypoglycemia?
A) Fruity breath odor
B) Vomiting
C) Excited, agitated behavior
D) Deep, labored breathing

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Q1) How much of a deduction does the IRS allow per year for expenses associated with the removal of qualifying architectural and transportation barriers?
A) $5,000
B) $10,000
C) $15,000
D) $20,000
Q2) What garage height is needed for a wheelchair-accessible home if a raised-roof van is used?
A) 8 feet minimum
B) 10 feet minimum
C) 12 feet minimum
D) 14 feet minimum
Q3) For a wheelchair-accessible home,what is the minimum door width?
A) 30 inches
B) 32 inches
C) 36 inches
D) 40 inches
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