Physical Therapy Fundamentals
Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Physical Therapy Fundamentals introduces students to the foundational principles, concepts, and practices of physical therapy. The course explores human anatomy, kinesiology, and the physiological responses to exercise and movement as they relate to rehabilitation and physical health. Students learn the roles and responsibilities of physical therapists, basic assessment techniques, principles of therapeutic exercise, and effective communication skills in clinical settings. Through lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on lab experiences, this course prepares students for advanced study in physical therapy and related healthcare fields.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Kinesiology and Anatomy 5th Edition by Lynn S. Lippert PT MS
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22 Chapters
359 Verified Questions
359 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fibula is on which side of the lower leg?
A) Medial
B) Lateral
C) Proximal
D) Distal
Answer: B
Q2) A movement of one bone on another bone to cause an increase in joint angle is called
A) flexion.
B) extension.
C) rotation.
D) circumduction.
Answer: B
Q3) When the scapula moves into a protracted position,they move in what direction in relation to the spine?
A) Superior
B) Inferior
C) Medial
D) Lateral
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of bone that makes up most of the appendicular skeleton is the A) irregular bone.
B) flat bone.
C) long bone.
D) sesamoid bone.
Answer: C
Q2) A bone marking that consists of a hollow or depression is called a A) foramen.
B) crest.
C) head.
D) fossa.
Answer: D
Q3) The structure of the bone where growth occurs is the A) diaphysis.
B) medullary canal.
C) endosteum.
D) epiphyseal plate.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Articular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of a ligament?
A) They provide support to a joint.
B) They can serve as an attachment for cartilage.
C) They can serve as an attachment for fascia.
D) All of the above are true of a ligament.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following types of joints is NOT a fibrous joint?
A) Gomphosis
B) Synarthrosis
C) Synovial joint
D) Syndesmosis
Answer: C
Q3) Hip medial rotation occurs in which plane and around which axis?
A) Transverse plane through a vertical axis
B) Sagittal plane through a frontal axis
C) Frontal plane through a sagittal axis
D) None of the above
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Arthrokinematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The close-packed position of the facet joints of the spine is in which of the following spinal positions?
A) Flexion
B) Extension
C) Lateral bend
D) Elevation
Q2) The loose-packed position of the hip is best described as
A) 30 degrees flexion,30 degrees abduction,and slight external rotation.
B) full extension.
C) full extension and internal rotation.
D) full flexion.
Q3) The type of arthrokinematic motion characterized by rotation of one surface on a fixed adjacent surface is called
A) roll.
B) spin.
C) glide.
D) Any of the above
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Chapter 5: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of a muscle to recoil or return to normal resting length after a stretching or shortening force is removed is called
A) irritability.
B) contractility.
C) elasticity.
D) extensibility.
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement regarding oblique muscle fibers?
A) Oblique muscle fibers tend to be longer than parallel fibers,thus having more strength potential than parallel fibers.
B) Oblique muscle fibers tend to be longer than parallel fibers,thus having less strength potential than parallel fibers.
C) Oblique muscle fibers tend to be shorter than parallel fibers,thus having more strength potential than parallel fibers.
D) Oblique muscle fibers tend to be shorter than parallel fibers,thus having less strength potential than parallel fibers.
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Chapter 6: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person experiencing "ape hand" has damage to which of the following nerves?
A) Radial nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Common peroneal nerve
Q2) A common pathology of the PNS characterized by weakness of the long thoracic nerve is which of the following?
A) Scapular winging
B) Thoracic outlet syndrome
C) Bell's palsy
D) Carpal tunnel syndrome
Q3) The white fatty substance present in the central nervous system (CNS)and peripheral nervous system (PNS)that serves to increase the speed of impulse conduction is called
A) myelin.
B) the node of Ranvier.
C) a neuron.
D) a tract.
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8
Chapter 7: Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A circulatory pathology characterized by inflammation of a vein is which of the following?
A) Aneurysm
B) Phlebitis
C) Embolism
D) Occlusion
Q2) The outermost layer of a blood vessel is made up of which type of tissue?
A) Endothelium
B) Smooth muscle
C) Elastic fiber
D) Connective tissue
Q3) A cardiac pathology characterized by the heart's inability to pump blood and leading to fluid congestion in tissues of the body is which of the following?
A) Congestive heart failure
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Heart murmur
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Chapter 8: Basic Biomechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reason that a large-handled object is easier to turn is that the mechanical advantage is larger.
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In order to decrease the challenge of a client working on balance,you would do which of the following?
A) Raise the center of gravity and increase the base of support
B) Raise the center of gravity and decrease the base of support
C) Lower the center of gravity and increase the base of support
D) Lower the center of gravity and decrease the base of support
Q3) If a PTA wishes to manually resist the knee extensors for an athlete and wishes to make the exercise as difficult as possible for the client,the best placement of her hand would be which of the following?
A) Proximal to the knee joint
B) Just distal to the tibial tuberosity
C) Midpoint of the tibia
D) Just proximal to the talus
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Weakness of the rhomboid muscles could indicate trauma to which of the following nerves?
A) Cranial nerve XI
B) Dorsal scapular nerve
C) Long thoracic nerve
D) Medial pectoral nerve
Q2) A client who needs scapular depressor strengthening would need attention to which of the following muscles?
A) Rhomboids and middle trapezius
B) Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor
C) Pectoralis minor and lower trapezius
D) Pectoralis minor and pectoralis major
Q3) Which muscle is responsible for scapular protraction?
A) Pectoralis major
B) Serratus anterior
C) Coracobrachialis
D) Middle trapezius
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11
Chapter 10: Shoulder Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle originates on the anterior surface of the scapula and inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus?
A) Teres major
B) Teres minor
C) Subscapularis
D) Serratus anterior
Q2) Damage to which of the following nerves could result in weakness of the deltoid muscle?
A) Radial nerve
B) Musculocutaneous nerve
C) Axillary nerve
D) Suprascapular nerve
Q3) Which muscle originates on the medial one-third of the clavicle and inserts on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove?
A) Anterior deltoid
B) Supraspinatus
C) Pectoralis major,clavicular portion
D) Coracobrachialis
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12
Chapter 11: Elbow Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscles that would act on the forearm to neutralize forearm supination would be which of the following muscles?
A) Triceps and pronator teres
B) Pronator teres and pronator quadratus
C) Brachialis and brachioradialis
D) Triceps and anconeus
Q2) Which muscle originates on the humeral lateral condyle and inserts on the radial styloid process?
A) Brachioradialis
B) Flexor carpi radialis
C) Pronator teres
D) Pronator quadratus
Q3) The elbow flexor that is most effective (strongest)with the forearm in the neutral position is which of the following muscles?
A) Biceps brachii
B) Brachioradialis
C) Brachialis
D) Coracobrachialis
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Chapter 12: Wrist Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the extensor carpi ulnaris and flexor carpi ulnaris contract simultaneously,which motions are neutralized?
A) Flexion and extension of the wrist
B) Radial and ulnar deviation
C) Wrist circumduction
D) None of the above
Q2) Which muscle originates on the medial epicondyle of the humerus and inserts on the palmar fascia?
A) Palmaris longus
B) Extensor carpi radialis longus
C) Flexor carpi ulnaris
D) Extensor carpi ulnaris
Q3) The PT plan of care directs you to do ISOM strengthening of the wrist extensors in a shortened position.To do this you would place the wrist in which of the following positions?
A) Neutral
B) Flexion
C) Extension
D) Any of the above would be correct.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Hand
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Sample Questions
Q1) The intrinsic muscle mass on the little finger side of the palm is made up of which set of muscles?
A) Thenar muscles
B) Radial muscles
C) Opponens muscles
D) Hypothenar muscles
Q2) Which muscle does NOT make up the anatomical snuffbox?
A) Abductor pollicis brevis
B) Extensor pollicis brevis
C) Extensor pollicis longus
D) Abductor pollicis longus
Q3) Which muscle originates on the lateral humeral epicondyle and inserts at the base of the distal phalanx of the fifth finger?
A) Palmaris longus
B) Extensor digiti minimi
C) Flexor digiti minimi
D) Extensor indicis
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Chapter 14: Temporomandibular Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normal ROM for mouth opening in an adult would be which of the following?
A) One finger between the upper and lower teeth
B) Half a finger between the upper and lower teeth
C) Two to three fingers between the upper and lower teeth
D) Four fingers between the upper and lower teeth
Q2) Clenching the teeth is an ISOM contraction of which muscle?
A) Medial pterygoid
B) Lateral pterygoid
C) Temporalis
D) Masseter
Q3) Which prime movers of the TMJ are innervated by the facial nerve?
A) Temporalis
B) Masseter
C) Lateral pterygoid
D) None of the above
Q4) Which cranial nerve is involved if your client has sensory loss to the face?
A) Cranial nerve V
B) Cranial nerve VI
C) Cranial nerve VII
D) A and C
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Chapter 15: Neck and Trunk
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the best instruction to most effectively stretch the left sternocleidomastoid muscle?
A) Flex and laterally bend to the right; rotate to the left side
B) Flex and laterally bend to the right; rotate to the right side
C) Flex and laterally bend to the left; rotate to the left side
D) Flex and laterally bend to the left; rotate to the right side
Q2) The quadratus lumborum is a prime mover in which of the following trunk motions?
A) Trunk flexion
B) Compression of abdominal contents
C) Trunk extension
D) Lateral bending
Q3) The trunk muscle that originates on the pubis and inserts on the costal cartilages of the fifth,sixth,and seventh ribs is the
A) external oblique.
B) internal oblique.
C) transverse abdominis.
D) rectus abdominis.
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Chapter 16: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another term for forced expiration is
A) air hunger.
B) pneumothorax.
C) pleurisy.
D) reversal of muscle action.
Q2) A person with a spinal cord injury above which of the following levels would require ventilator dependency?
A) L1
B) T8
C) C6
D) C3
Q3) Which muscles originate on the rib above and insert on the rib below and serve to elevate the ribs?
A) Internal intercostals
B) External intercostals
C) Diaphragm
D) Pectoralis major
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Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rotation of the pelvis when the left foot begins the swing phase in gait is
A) anterior left rotation.
B) posterior left rotation.
C) anterior right rotation.
D) posterior right rotation.
Q2) The bony landmark of the sacrum that makes up the lateral surface and articulates with the ilium is called the
A) ala.
B) auricular surface.
C) superior articular process.
D) pelvic surface.
Q3) The pelvic force couple that combines to maintain a level pelvis when the left leg is unsupported during the gait cycle is which of the following?
A) Left trunk lateral benders and right hip abductors
B) Right trunk lateral benders and left hip abductors
C) Left trunk lateral benders and left hip abductors
D) Right trunk lateral benders and right hip abductors
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19
Chapter 18: Hip Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle originates on the pubis and inserts on the medial proximal tibia?
A) Adductor longus
B) Rectus femoris
C) Adductor brevis
D) Gracilis
Q2) A person who has had a hip replacement surgery will have a surgical incision on the lateral surface of the hip.The hip muscle group most likely to need strengthening after this procedure is the
A) hip flexors.
B) hip adductors.
C) hip extensors.
D) hip abductors.
Q3) The pectineus is a prime mover in which hip motion?
A) Extension
B) Abduction
C) Medial rotation
D) Adduction
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Knee Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are asked to instruct your client in eccentric strengthening of the quadriceps.The BEST instruction would be which of the following?
A) Seated,extend the knee
B) Seated with knee extended,slowly lower the foot,flexing the knee
C) Supine with knee flexed over a bolster,extend the knee
D) Prone with knee flexed,lower foot,extending the knee
Q2) Which of the following ligaments prevents excessive forward movement of the tibia on the femur?
A) Lateral meniscus
B) Medial collateral
C) Anterior cruciate ligament
D) Genu labrum
Q3) Which muscle has its origin at the linea aspera,runs lateral at the thigh,and has its insertion at the tibial tuberosity via the patellar tendon?
A) Vastus medialis
B) Adductor magnus
C) Tensor fascia latae
D) Vastus lateralis
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Chapter 20: Ankle Joint and Foot
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Sample Questions
Q1) Walking on the lateral borders of your feet involves an isometric contraction of which group of muscles at the ankle?
A) Ankle evertors
B) Ankle plantar flexors
C) Ankle dorsiflexors
D) Ankle invertors
Q2) Which muscle originates from the posterior tibia and inserts on the distal phalanges of the four lesser toes?
A) Tibialis posterior
B) Flexor digitorum longus
C) Flexor hallucis longus
D) Dorsal interossei
Q3) Which muscle originates on the posterior interosseus membrane and inserts on the navicular and most tarsals and metatarsals?
A) Anterior tibialis
B) Flexor digitorum longus
C) Posterior tibialis
D) Peroneus longus
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Chapter 21: Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) If your patient's treatment plan asks her to work on dynamic posture,which of the following activities would be appropriate to have your patient do?
A) Seated stationary posture at a computer station
B) Loading office supplies into a file cabinet
C) Moving files from one shelf to another in a storeroom
D) B and C
Q2) A person with a facet joint problem in the spine is generally most comfortable in which of the following positions?
A) Lying prone
B) Lying supine with legs extended
C) Side-lying with top leg extended behind the body
D) Side-lying with both legs flexed toward the chest
Q3) A person with a lumbar disc problem is generally most comfortable in which of the following positions?
A) Lying prone
B) Lying supine with pillows under the knees
C) Side-lying with top leg extending behind the body
D) Side-lying with both legs flexed toward the chest
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Chapter 22: Gait
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you are describing a gait abnormality that occurs when the heel leaves the ground but the ball of the foot and toes remain in contact with the ground,you are speaking of which portion of the stance phase?
A) Initial contact
B) Midstance
C) Terminal stance
D) Terminal swing
Q2) Your patient has a tendency to cross the unsupported limb in front of the other during swing phase.This could indicate spasticity of which of the following muscle groups?
A) Hip flexors
B) Hip adductors
C) Knee extensors
D) Ankle plantar flexors
Q3) A verbal cue that you could give a patient with poor balance to improve their gait safety is
A) increase the cadence.
B) decrease the step length.
C) increase the width of walking base.
D) B and C
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