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Physical Therapy Foundations introduces students to the core principles, concepts, and professional roles within the field of physical therapy. The course explores foundational topics such as human anatomy, physiology, kinesiology, and biomechanics, emphasizing their relevance to patient care and rehabilitation. Students learn about the historical development and ethical standards of the profession, common patient assessment techniques, and the importance of evidence-based practice. Through lectures, lab experiences, and clinical observations, students develop essential communication, documentation, and problem-solving skills required for subsequent coursework and clinical practice in physical therapy.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 14th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Q1) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of functional changes associated with disease and aging?
A)exercise physiology
B)renal physiology
C)pathophysiology
D)cardiovascular physiology
E)immunology
Answer: C
Q2) Which subspecialty of anatomy deals with the study of structural changes associated with disease?
A)embryology
B)developmental biology
C)radiographic anatomy
D)pathological anatomy
E)immunology
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a property of enzymes?
A)Enzymes are catalytic proteins.
B)Enzymes are highly specific.
C)Enzymes are efficient.
D)Enzymes are subject to a variety of cellular controls.
E)Enzymes are irreversibly changed by the reactions that they catalyze.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following describes the major significance of the element nitrogen in the human body?
A)ionized form makes body fluids acidic
B)ionized form is most plentiful anion in extracellular fluid
C)ionized form is needed for action of many enzymes
D)is a component of all proteins and nucleic acids
E)ionized form is most plentiful cation in extracellular fluid
Answer: D
Q3) Describe the structural characteristics of an amino acid.
Answer: Amino acids contain a central carbon atom with 1)a hydrogen atom,2)an amino group,3)an acidic carboxyl group,and 4)a side chain attached to it.
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Q1) In this transport process,the energy from hydrolysis of ATP is used to drive substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradients.
A)primary active transport
B)secondary active transport
C)facilitated diffusion
D)passive diffusion
E)osmosis
Answer: A
Q2) List the steps involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis.
Answer: The steps involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis include 1)ligand binding,2)vesicle formation,3)uncoating of the vesicle,4)fusion of the vesicle with endosome,5)recycling of receptors to the plasma membrane,and 6)degradation of the ligand in the lysosome.
Question
Q3) Describe the difference between the cytoplasm and the cytosol.
Answer: The cytoplasm is all the cellular material (organelles and fluid)between the plasma membrane and the nucleus,while the cytosol is only the fluid portion of the cytoplasm.
Question
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Q1) Which of the following is an abnormal joining of tissues resulting from the formation of scar tissue at a previous site of inflammation or surgical repair?
A)adhesions
B)articulations
C)cysts
D)granulomas
E)osteophytes
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of epithelial tissues?
A)Cells are tightly packed together.
B)Large amount of extracellular matrix.
C)Contains no blood vessels within tissue.
D)Found on the exposed surfaces of the body.
E)Line the inside of blood vessels.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the main tissue types found in the human body?
A)epithelial
B)connective
C)myocardial
D)muscle
E)nervous
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Q1) Which of the following terms refers to reddened,elevated,and itchy patches of skin commonly caused by emotional stress,physical trauma,or certain food allergies?
A)wart
B)hives
C)papule
D)cyst
E)eczema
Q2) Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus,which is the thickening of the _____ of the epidermis.
A)stratum basale
B)stratum spinosum
C)stratum granulosum
D)stratum lucidum
E)stratum corneum
Q3) Describe the structure and function of arrector pili.
Q4) List and briefly describe the major functions of the skin.
Q5) Describe the major differences between thin skin and thick skin.
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Q6) Describe the structure and function of the different types of exocrine glands found in the skin

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Q1) Briefly,explain how blood calcium level is regulated.
Q2) What is the region of long bone found between the diaphysis and the epiphysis called?
A)epiphyseal plate
B)epiphyseal line
C)metaphysis
D)diaphyseal line
E)diaphyseal plate
Q3) During endochondral ossification in a fetus,bones initially develop as a cartilage model surrounded by a connective tissue covering called the A)periosteum.
B)endosteum.
C)perichondrium.
D)perimysium.
E)trabeculae.
Q4) List and briefly describe the six main functions of the skeletal system.
Q5) Briefly describe the processes by which bone increases in length and diameter.
Q6) Briefly describe the steps in bone resorption.
Q7) Briefly describe the steps in bone deposition.
Q8) Describe the steps in bone repair.
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Q1) Joe was found dead.His hyoid bone was broken.What was the most likely cause of death?
A)Natural causes
B)Cardiac arrest
C)Gun shot
D)Strangulation
E)Choking
Q2) What is inflammation of one or more costal cartilage called?
A)Costochondritis
B)Arthritis
C)Cartilaginous distension
D)Otitis
E)Intercostal space distension
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of surface markings on bone?
A)They allow the passage of nerves and blood vessels.
B)They provide sites of attachment for muscles.
C)They allow bones to shorten or lengthen.
D)They help form joints.
E)They can be depressions or projections.
Q4) Briefly describe the function of the fontanels.
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Q1) Which process on the femur serves as an attachment point for tendons of several thigh muscles?
A)Gluteal tuberosity
B)Linea aspera
C)Medial epicondyle
D)Both gluteal tuberosity and linea aspera
E)Both linea aspera and medial epicondyle
Q2) The medial and lateral epicondyles are found on the distal end of the humerus and are used for
A)formation of the elbow joint.
B)tendon attachment.
C)passage of nerves and blood vessels through the bone into the marrow cavity.
D)Both formation of the elbow joint and tendon attachment.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the structures listed below is NOT part of the knee joint?
A)Lateral condyle of the femur
B)Medial condyle of the femur
C)Lateral malleolus of the fibula
D)Condyles of the tibia
E)Patella
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an anatomical component of the elbow?
A)articular capsule.
B)ulnar collateral ligament.
C)radial collateral ligament.
D)anular ligament of the radius.
E)tendon of the biceps brachii muscle.
Q2) Briefly describe what is happening when a person "cracks their knuckles".
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of synovial joints?
A)Contain a joint cavity
B)Are freely moveable
C)Articulating bones are covered with hyaline cartilage
D)Include elastic cartilage
E)Have ligaments holding the joint together
Q4) Flexion and extension usually occur along which plane?
A)Frontal
B)Transverse
C)Sagittal
D)Oblique
E)None of these choices
Q5) List and briefly describe the three common types of arthritis.
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Q1) Which of the following regions of the sarcomere contain thick filaments?
A)zone of overlap
B)A band
C)H zone
D)both A band and H zone
E)All of these answer choices are correct.
Q2) How does a nerve impulse elicit a muscle action potential?
Q3) )Cross bridges are formed during muscle contraction when _____ on the thick filaments binds to _____ on the thin filaments.
A)myosin;troponin
B)myosin;troponin.
C)myosin;actin
D)actin;myosin
E)actin;tropomyosin
Q4) Which of the regions of a sarcomere contain titin?
A)the A band only
B)the H zone only
C)the zone of overlap only
D)from M line to Z disc
E)the I band only
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Q1) With reference to the effort and load,describe the main difference between a lever operating with a mechanical advantage versus a lever operating at a mechanical disadvantage.
Q2) Briefly describe the three categories of levers based on the position of their fulcrum.Give an example of each type of lever and state whether the lever works at a mechanical advantage,disadvantage or both.
Q3) What anatomical structures of the musculoskeletal system correspond to the components of a lever system? Describe the arrangement of these parts in first,second,and third class lever systems.
Q4) A muscle that raises or elevates a body part is called a A)pronator. B)tensor.
C)flexor.
D)depressor.
E)levator.
Q5) Chuck has a rotator cuff injury.Which muscles and associated structures are most commonly involved in this type of injury? What sorts of activities commonly cause this injury?
Q6) Discuss the roles of agonists,antagonists,synergists,and fixators in movement.
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Q1) Which of the following types of neurons is the most common type of neuron found in the brain and spinal cord?
A)bipolar neuron
B)multipolar neuron
C)unipolar neuron
D)nonpolar neuron
E)pseudounipolar
Q2) Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to touch,pressure,vibration,or tissue stretching and is found in the auditory receptors of the ear,and in touch and pressure receptors in the skin.
A)leakage channel
B)ligand-gated channels
C)mechanically gated channels
D)voltage-gated channels
E)temperature-sensitive channel
Q3) Which of the following are divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
A)Somatic nervous system
B)Autonomic nervous system
C)Enteric nervous system
D)All of these choices
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Q1) Identify and describe the function of each of the components of a spinal reflex arc.
Q2) Discuss the clinical significance of dermatomes.
Q3) Intercostal nerves
A)are also known as cervical nerves.
B)do not enter into a plexus and directly connect to the structures they supply.
C)are found in the C6-T4 area of the vertebral column.
D)extend through the sacrum.
E)do not exist in humans.
Q4) A man presents with median nerve palsy in his left hand.What is the most likely site of injury?
A)Dorsal scapular nerve
B)Intercostal nerve
C)Lumbar plexus
D)Median nerve
E)Radial nerve
Q5) Name and describe the locations of the four major plexuses of spinal nerves.
Q6) Describe the cross-sectional anatomy of the spinal cord.
Q7) Describe the gross external anatomy of the spinal cord.
Q8) Describe the basic anatomy of a spinal nerve plexus.
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Q1) Patients with damage in the left hemisphere often exhibit aphasia (inability to use or comprehend words).This is an example of A)apraxia.
B)delirium.
C)cerebral lacerations.
D)hemispheric lateralization.
E)decussations.
Q2) Which of the following brain structures consists of the medulla oblongata,pons and midbrain?
A)Brain stem
B)Cerebrum
C)Cerebellum
D)Diencephalon
E)Dura mater
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a major region of the brain?
A)Brain stem
B)Cerebellum
C)Cauda equina
D)Diencephalon
E)Cerebrum
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Q1) Which disorder is a type of neuropathy often caused by long term diabetes mellitus?
A)Raynaud's phenomenon
B)Autonomic dysreflexia
C)Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
D)Diabetic neuropathy
E)Horner's Syndrome
Q2) Which autonomic plexus is located anterior to the fifth lumbar vertebra and serves the pelvic viscera?
A)Inferior mesenteric plexus
B)Renal plexus
C)Celiac plexus
D)Hypogastric plexus
E)Superior mesenteric plexus
Q3) The autonomic nervous system is NOT involved in controlling
A)exocrine glands.
B)skeletal muscle.
C)cardiac muscle.
D)smooth muscle.
E)endocrine glands.
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Q1) Which condition is a state of unconsciousness in which a person's responses to stimuli are reduced or absent?
A)narcolepsy
B)insomnia
C)sleep apnea
D)coma
E)amnesia
Q2) A viral infection has damaged a patient's tectospinal tract.What signs of this damage probably helped the physicians diagnose the problem?
Q3) Which of the following are proprioceptors found in the articular capsules of synovial joints?
A)Tendon organs
B)Gamma motor neurons
C)Muscle spindles
D)Kinesthetic receptors
E)Tactile receptors
Q4) Describe the role of the reticular activating system in sleep,arousal,and consciousness.
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Q1) How many days after fertilization do the ears begin to develop?
A)5
B)150
C)10
D)22
E)55
Q2) Which darkly pigmented structure reduces light reflection within the eyeballs?
A)Sclera
B)Conjunctiva
C)Iris
D)Choroid
E)Retina
Q3) Explain the process by which smell sensations are sensed and perceived.
Q4) Which of the types of receptors listed below is primarily used for detecting light rays under bright light conditions?
A)olfactory hair cells
B)rods
C)cones
D)ganglion neurons
E)amacrine cells
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Q1) A condition characterized by excessive development of mammary glands in a male is called
A)acromegaly.
B)pheochromocytoma.
C)hirsutism.
D)gynecomastia.
E)myxedema.
Q2) All prostaglandins are derived from a 20-carbon precursor molecule called A)thromboxane.
B)intrinsic factor.
C)thymopoietin.
D)arachidonic acid.
E)cholesterol.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a common method of stimulating hormone secretion from an endocrine cell?
A)Signals from the nervous system
B)Chemical changes in the blood
C)Mechanical stretching of the endocrine cell
D)Releasing hormones.
E)Both Signals from the nervous system and Chemical changes in the blood
20
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Q1) Destruction of red bone marrow due to radiation results in
A)hemorrhagic anemia.
B)aplastic anemia.
C)megaloblastic anemia.
D)pernicious anemia.
E)iron deficiency anemia.
Q2) Which of the following blood cells is involved in reducing blood loss from a damaged blood vessel?
A)Erythrocyte
B)Platelet
C)Lymphocyte
D)Basophil
E)Neutrophil
Q3) Which of the following opposes the action of thromboxane A2 by inhibiting platelet adhesion and release?
A)Heparin
B)Fibrinogen
C)Plasmin
D)Antithrombin
E)Prostacyclin
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Q1) Contraction of the ventricles of the heart leads to blood moving directly
A)into arteries.
B)into capillaries.
C)into veins.
D)through an atrioventricular valve.
E)through the apex.
Q2) Why is the myocardium of the left ventricle thicker than the myocardium of the right ventricle?
Q3) During which of following periods does the largest volume of blood enter the arteries?
A)atrial diastole
B)ventricular diastole
C)atrial systole
D)ventricular systole
Q4) Stimulation of which nerve reduces heart rate?
A)Cardiac accelerator nerve
B)Hypoglossal nerve
C)Spinal accessory
D)Vagus nerve
E)Phrenic nerve

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Q1) What do following arteries have in common: superficial temporal artery,brachial artery and common carotid artery?
A)They are all areas where Korotkoff sounds cannot be heard.
B)They are all only found on the left side of the body.
C)They are all common pulse points.
D)They all contain baroreceptors.
E)They all deliver blood to structures in the head.
Q2) The largest driving force for pulling fluid from the interstitial spaces back into the capillaries is
A)interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure.
B)interstitial fluid osmotic pressure.
C)blood colloid osmotic pressure.
D)blood hydrostatic pressure.
E)glomerular hydrostatic pressure.
Q3) The myogenic response of smooth muscle results in
A)more forceful contractions when stretched.
B)more forceful contractions when relaxed
C)tetany.
D)relaxation of smooth muscle when stretched.
E)formation of new desmosomes.

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Q1) Which class of antibodies indicates a recent invasion?
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgM
D)IgD
E)IgG
Q2) Which type of adaptive immunity will result from intravenous injection of immunoglobulins?
A)naturally acquired active immunity
B)naturally acquired passive immunity
C)artificially acquired active immunity
D)artificially acquired passive immunity
E)None of these choices
Q3) Which of these does NOT provide a physical or chemical barrier?
A)Macrophages
B)Saliva
C)Urine
D)Mucus
E)Stratified squamous epithelium
Q4) List the five actions of antibodies.
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Q1) Normal quiet breathing is controlled by the
A)Pontine respiratory group
B)Medullary respiratory center dorsal respiratory group
C)Medullary respiratory center ventral respiratory group
D)Medullary respiratory center dorsal respiratory group and medullary respiratory center ventral respiratory group
E)all of these
Q2) Which structure is located anterior to the esophagus and carries air to the bronchi?
A)Trachea
B)Larynx
C)Nasopharynx
D)Pharynx
E)None of these choices
Q3) Which of the following indicates the direction of diffusion of gases at the alveoli of the lungs?
A)Oxygen into blood,Carbon dioxide into blood
B)Oxygen out of blood,Carbon dioxide into blood
C)Oxygen into blood,Carbon dioxide out of blood
D)Oxygen out of blood,Carbon dioxide out of blood
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Q1) Which layer functions by secreting a lubricating fluid?
A)Serosa
B)Submucosa
C)Muscularis
D)Mucosa
E)MALT
Q2) Which of the following is the principle bile pigment?
A)Stercobilin
B)Bilirubin
C)Biliverdin
D)Both Stercobilin and Bilirubin
E)All of these choices
Q3) Describe the structures and functions of the enteric nervous system.
Q4) Which of the following pancreatic enzymes digests lipids?
A)Trypsin
B)Elastase
C)Lipase
D)Pepsin
E)All of these choices
Q5) Describe the role of the liver in protein metabolism.
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Q1) The most dramatic metabolic change that occurs with fasting is
A)Decrease in the formation of ketone bodies
B)Increase in ATP production
C)Inhibition of insulin
D)Decrease in heart rate and blood pressure
E)Increase in lipolysis
Q2) Which hormone(s)dominate(s)the absorptive state?
A)Insulin
B)Glucagon
C)HGH
D)All of these
E)None of these
Q3) Chemical reactions that combine simple molecules and monomers to form complex structures are known as
A)Metabolism
B)Anabolism
C)Catabolism
D)Metatheses
E)None of these choices
Q4) What is the difference between a complete protein and an incomplete protein?
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Q1) This transports urine from the kidney to the bladder.
A)Urethra
B)Ureter
C)Descending nephron loop
D)Renal hilus
E)None of these choices
Q2) Which structure of the nephron reabsorbs the most substances?
A)glomerular capsule
B)nephron loop
C)ascending limb
D)collecting duct
E)proximal convoluted tubule
Q3) This term means the return of substances into the blood stream from the filtrate.
A)reabsorption
B)filtration
C)secretion
D)excretion
E)none of these choices
Q4) Discuss the importance of countercurrent flow to the functioning of the nephron.
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Q1) Which of the following occurs between RBC and blood plasma as the blood level of carbon dioxide increases or decreases?
A)Chloride shift
B)Potassium shift
C)Sodium shift
D)Bicarbonate shift
E)Protein shift
Q2) Normal blood Na<sup>+</sup> levels are 136-148 mEq/L.An elderly patient has a blood Na<sup>+</sup> of 105 mEq/L.Describe the patient's condition and the signs and symptoms that usually accompany that condition.Be sure to include the functions of Na<sup>+</sup> in the body in your answer.
Q3) Why is a small amount of table salt included in intravenous or oral rehydration therapy?
Q4) What part of the brain is considered to be the thirst center?
A)Thalamus
B)Hypothalamus
C)Midbrain
D)Brain stem
E)Cerebrum
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Q1) Describe the roles of estrogens and progesterone.
Q2) Which hormone is secreted by the corpus luteum after ovulation?
A)Progesterone
B)Relaxin
C)LH
D)FSH
E)HGH
Q3) Which of the following cells may eventually become spermatozoa?
A)Sertoli cells
B)Sustentacular cells
C)Spermatogonia
D)Chief cells
E)Speciation cells
Q4) Which structure is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicle and the ampulla of the vas deferens?
A)Urethra
B)Spermatic cord
C)Inguinal canal
D)Ejaculatory duct
E)Prostate

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Q1) Which of the following is the connection between the placenta and the embryo?
A)Amnion
B)Chorion
C)Umbilical cord
D)Placenta
E)Capillary beds
Q2) Which of the following is a function of the hormone corticotropin-releasing hormone?
A)Maintain endometrium of uterus during pregnancy
B)Help prepare mammary glands for lactation
C)Establish the timing of birth
D)Increase flexibility of the pubic symphysis
E)All of these are functions of CRH
Q3) Which of the following is the portion of the endometrium that lies between the embryo and the stratum basalis?
A)Decidua basalis
B)Decidua capsularis
C)Decidua parietalis
D)Lamina propria
E)Adventitia
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