Physical Therapy for Special Populations
Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
This course explores the principles and practices of physical therapy tailored to special populations, including pediatrics, geriatrics, individuals with chronic illnesses, and those with complex disabilities. Students will learn to assess unique needs, design individualized intervention plans, and apply evidence-based techniques to improve mobility, functional independence, and quality of life. Emphasis is placed on interdisciplinary collaboration, cultural competence, and ethical considerations specific to working with diverse patient groups. Through case studies, hands-on practice, and theoretical learning, students will develop skills necessary to address the challenges faced by special populations in various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy Evidence to Practice 5th Edition by Donna Frownfelter
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45 Chapters
861 Verified Questions
861 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Epidemiology As a Basis for Informing Contemporary
Physical Therapy Practice
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An individual entering the health care system presents with insulin resistance,high blood pressure,elevated triglycerides and cholesterol,and obesity.What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Genetic syndrome
B) Cardiac syndrome
C) Metabolic syndrome
D) Stockholm syndrome
Answer: C
Q2) Failure of traditional models of health education in reducing the prevalence of lifestyle-related conditions and their risk factors has been thought to be attributable to:
A) the personal, bidirectional model of delivery.
B) establishing rapport, trust, commitment, and follow-up.
C) understanding beliefs, timing, readiness to change, and barriers.
D) a unidirectional model of information delivery.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Oxygen Transport: the Basis of Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physical Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the minimum intracellular oxygen pressure needed to support metabolism?
A) 5 mm Hg
B) 3 mm Hg
C) 23 mm Hg
D) 15 mm Hg
Answer: B
Q2) The majority of oxygen that is carried in the bloodstream is bound (combined)with hemoglobin,although not every molecule of oxygen is bound.What is the approximate percentage of oxygen that is dissolved in blood?
A) 98%
B) 90%
C) 99%
D) 2%
Answer: D
Q3) What is the normal hematocrit value for women?
A) 38%
B) 40%
C) 42%
D) 44%
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bifurcation of the trachea into the right and left mainstem bronchi occurs near what anatomic landmark?
A) Angle of Louis
B) Sternal notch
C) Articulation of the sternum and manubrium
D) Articulation of the sternum and xiphoid process
Answer: A
Q2) The root of the lung or the hilus is the area where many structures enter the lung.The mainstem bronchi,pulmonary artery,pulmonary veins,bronchial arteries and veins,and lymph vessels are located here.The hilus is opposite the vertebral level of what thoracic bodies?
A) T4 and T5
B) T5, T6, and T7
C) T6, T7, and T8
D) T6 and T7
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the pneumotaxic center is compromised,the resulting breathing pattern would be known as:
A) pneumotaxic respiration.
B) apneustic breathing.
C) pneumotaxic breathing.
D) apneustic respiration.
Q2) Considering the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve,a shift in the curve to the left results in decreased oxygen affinity and a greater dissociation of oxygen and hemoglobin.What condition might have this effect on the curve?
A) Working skeletal muscle
B) Emphysema
C) Polycythemia
D) None of the above
Q3) Consider ventilation and perfusion matching in humans.What portion of the lungs would provide the best results in an erect human?
A) Apical segments
B) Posterior segments
C) Base segments
D) Anterior segments
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identifying risk factors is an important step in educating patients and clients about their overall health.Of the risk factors associated with atherosclerosis,some are considered primary and others secondary.All of the following listed are primary risk factors EXCEPT:
A) high blood pressure.
B) cigarette smoking.
C) race or ethnicity.
D) hyperlipidemia.
Q2) Hypercholesterolemia can lead to other cardiovascular diagnoses because:
A) it is always associated with atherosclerotic disease.
B) it increases the blood coagulation rate and increases the risk of blood clot formation.
C) it changes the structure and function of endothelial tissue.
D) it changes the heart rate.
Q3) All of the following can present during an asthma attack EXCEPT:
A) chest tightness.
B) the expiratory phase of breathing is prolonged.
C) breath sounds diminish with progressive hyperinflation.
D) the inspiratory phase of breathing is prolonged.
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Manifestations of Systemic Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physical therapist completes an evaluation of a child with cerebral palsy.As part of the physical therapy interventions,physical therapist is planning to educate the parents or caregivers.What items will be most appropriate to include to maintain optimal cardiovascular and pulmonary health?
A) Consideration of a scoliosis screen
B) Consideration of seating adaptations
C) Consideration of the risk for aspiration
D) Consideration for supplemental oxygen
Q2) A patient seen by a physical therapist is suspect of having right-sided heart failure.This condition is likely to lead to because blood is not forwarded to the lungs effectively.
A) pulmonary vasodilation
B) hyperkalemia
C) hypoxemia
D) hypoventilation
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8
Chapter 7: Measurement and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true regarding variability?
A) The characteristic being measured may demonstrate a certain degree of variability.
B) Testing instruments will not have an impact.
C) Low interrater reliability will not impact the long-term changes in a patient.
D) High intrarater reliability will have a negative impact of showing changes in a patient over time.
Q2) What is required from a clinician to create a patient-identified problem?
A) Final outcomes of treatment at patient discharge from therapy
B) Only the initial diagnosis
C) Only the objective data collective during the evaluation
D) All data collected in the patient evaluation
Q3) How does the therapist determine if a goal has been met?
A) By assuming the patient is telling the truth
B) By asking the patient's family member
C) By observing or measuring the activity of the goal
D) By asking another clinician
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9
Chapter 8: History
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which best defines dyspnea?
A) Shortness of breath when the patient assumes the sitting position from the supine position
B) Shortness of breath in one lateral position but not the other
C) Chest pain that originates from the parietal pleura
D) The sensation of difficulty in breathing
Q2) Which is true regarding paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)?
A) The patient usually falls asleep in the sitting position and 1 or 2 hours later, awakens from sleep with acute shortness of breath.
B) The mechanism of PND is the transfer of fluid from intravascular tissues into the bloodstream (or extravascularly) during sleep.
C) Classic PND is resolved by elevating the lower extremities in the supine position.
D) This symptom has strong predictive value as a sign of CHF.
Q3) Which is not phase of the couch mechanism?
A) Compressive phase
B) Inspiratory phase
C) Expansive phase
D) Expiratory phase
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Chapter 9: Pulmonary Function Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effects does aging have on airway closure?
A) Airway closure occurs at lower lung volumes.
B) A loss of pulmonary elastic recoil results in an increase of intrapleural negative pressure.
C) A loss of pulmonary elastic recoil results in a loss of intrapleural negative pressure.
D) Airway closer is improved with smoking and changes in body shape.
Q2) Which is true regarding closing volumes of the lungs?
A) The closing volume is 10% of the vital capacity in young, healthy individuals.
B) It increases with age and is 80% of the vital capacity at age 65 years.
C) Closing volume is used as an aid in the diagnosis of large airway disease.
D) It is not effective in evaluating treatment or drug response.
Q3) What can occur when the dead space of the lungs increases?
A) A larger percentage of the tidal volume is ventilating the dead space, leaving a smaller percentage for alveolar ventilation.
B) The patient does not have to work as hard to fill the alveoli.
C) There is better lung perfusion.
D) Patient fatigue lessens.
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11
Chapter 10: Arterial Blood Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main route for the body to expel normal metabolic acids?
A) The skin
B) The lungs
C) The kidneys
D) The gastrointestinal tract
Q2) In regards to respiratory failure,which is true?
A) Positional changes can affect the oxygenation status.
B) During the chronic phase, the kidneys have not started to compensate, and the base HCO is within normal limits.
C) Acute respiratory failure can be noted by an increased PCO , a pH within normal limits, and a low PO .
D) When hyperoxygenation is noted, treatment consists of oxygen therapy, CPAP or biphasic positive airway pressure, and alleviation of the cause of hyperoxygenation.
Q3) What is the purpose of hemoglobin?
A) It is crucial for oxygen transport.
B) It is crucial for carbon dioxide transport.
C) It is crucial for H CO transport.
D) It is unable to cross the capillary membrane.
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Chapter 11: Imaging of the Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which imaging technique shows the function of the organs?
A) PET scan
B) CT scan
C) MRI
D) Ultrasonography
Q2) How might chronic obstructive pulmonary disease appear on chest imaging?
A) A barrel-shaped chest
B) A narrow chest in all planes
C) A peaked diaphragm in the transverse plane
D) Decreased density of the pulmonary markings
Q3) Which best describes a pneumothorax?
A) It is an area that appears white because of increased tissue density.
B) It does not appear in chest imaging.
C) It causes part of the lung to collapse, creating a less dense empty space in the chest cavity that is devoid of any pulmonary or vascular markings.
D) It fills the chest cavity with fluid that is denser than normal lung tissue.
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Chapter 12: Electrocardiogram Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) An impulse originating from an ectopic focus in the ventricles that is outside of the normal conduction pathway has which of the following characteristics?
A) Slower propagation because of the syncytial arrangement of the myocardial cells
B) Uncoordinated contraction
C) Decrease in ejection of blood volume
D) All of the above
Q2) Sinus tachycardia and sinus bradycardia are both rhythms that have systemic affects.Which of the following are complications of tachycardia?
A) Increase O demand, ischemia exacerbation of the heart, and increased workload on the heart
B) Syncope, increased O demand, and reduction in cardiac output
C) Lightheadedness, decreased O demand, and heart rate less than 60 beats/min
D) Heart rate greater than 100 beats/min, syncope, and reduced cardiac output
Q3) Where do supraventricular dysrhythmias occur?
A) At the level of the SA node
B) Above the level of the atria
C) Above the level of the ventricles
D) At the level of the AV node
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14
Chapter 13: Multisystem Assessment and Laboratory Investigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following acts on renal tubules to result in the reabsorption of water and more concentrated urine?
A) ADH
B) BUN
C) creatinine
D) None of the above
Q2) Which organ produces bile and is responsible for detoxification of the blood?
A) Pancreas
B) Spleen
C) Liver
D) Kidney
Q3) Which product of the adrenal glands inhibits the action of insulin and thus the uptake of glucose by cells?
A) Dopamine
B) Cortisol
C) Epinephrine
D) Norepinephrine
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Special Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) What testing is considered the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary embolism?
A) Echocardiography
B) Pulmonary angiography
C) Computed tomography
D) Ventilation-perfusion lung scan
Q2) What type of imaging is valuable in delineating myocardial areas with reversible and irreversible injury and uses short scanning times of 5" to 35"?
A) SPECT
B) PET
C) Planar
D) TEE
Q3) Which characteristic of blood is measured using Doppler echocardiography?
A) Viscosity
B) Velocity of flow
C) Hematocrit
D) Volume
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Chapter 15: Clinical Evaluation and Assessment of the Cardiovascular
and Pulmonary
Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which breathing pattern exists when respiration is slowed to less than 12 breaths/min?
A) Tachypnea
B) Bradypnea
C) Eupnea
D) Kussmaul breathing
Q2) Which of the following describes hyperresonant tones derived from mediate percussion?
A) High-pitched, medium-duration sounds
B) Low-amplitude, medium- to high-pitched, short-duration sounds
C) High-pitched, short-duration sounds
D) Very-low-pitched, prolonged-duration sounds
Q3) Which heart sound is normal in children and young adults but abnormal in individuals older than age 40 years?
A) S1
B) S2
C) S3
D) S4
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Chapter 16: Monitoring Systems, catheters, and Devices in the Intensive Care Unit
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of upper motor neuron involvement?
A) Progressive muscle weakness
B) The Babinski sign
C) Hyperreflexia
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is a disturbance resulting from acidosis?
A) Hypercapnia
B) Bicarbonate excess
C) Tetany
D) Hypokalemia
Q3) Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias are life threatening or require immediate recognition and treatment?
A) Subjunctional tachycardias
B) Ventricular tachycardia
C) Ventricular fibrillation
D) All of the above
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18
Chapter 17: Maximizing Outcomes: Relating Interventions to an Individuals Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Health has been defined by the World Health Organization as:
A) the absence of pathology.
B) a person's capacity to live a life consistent with his or her needs and wants.
C) emotional, spiritual, intellectual, and physical well-being.
D) a and
Q2) The goals of treatment fall into three categories:
A) preventive, long term, and short term.
B) primary, secondary, and tertiary.
C) cognitive, psychosocial, and nutritional.
D) restricted mobility, intrinsic factors, and extrinsic factors.
Q3) Limitations of _______ and _______interfere with the performance of specific activities that are involved in fulfilling roles and obligations in life
A) strength, range
B) cognition, ambulation
C) function, pathology
D) anatomic structure, physiological function
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19
Chapter 18: Mobilization and Exercise: Physiological Basis for Assessment, evaluation, and Training
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Q1) Hospitalized patients whose oxygen transport capacity is reduced or threatened tend to be:
A) hypermetabolic
B) hypometabolic
C) catabolic
D) dehydrated
Q2) What pathophysiological factor that contributes to increased metabolic demand and oxygen consumption?
A) Healing or repairing
B) Fever
C) Combating infection
D) All of the above
Q3) Metabolic costs increase with illness and injury as a result of:
A) insurance coverage.
B) the length of the hospital stay.
C) severity of the injury.
D) healing and repair.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Mobilization and Exercise: Testing and Training
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Q1) Body position should first be exploited when coupled with movement followed by the: A) the patient being placed in a supine position.
B) patient being placed in a recumbent position.
C) erect sitting positions with the legs dependent.
D) patient being placed in a propped-up position.
Q2) Side-lying increases end-diastolic ventricular pressure on the dependent side secondary to compression of the viscera beneath the diaphragm and to:
A) atelectasis formation.
B) central pneumothorax lesion.
C) increased lung compliance on that side.
D) reduced lung compliance on that side.
Q3) In the mid-1800s,the use of immobilization to heal bones and injuries was extended to the:
A) management of other conditions.
B) treatment of hypotension.
C) treatment of hypertension.
D) kidney stones.
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Chapter 20: Body Positioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) ACT is the acronym for:
A) advanced cardiac treatment.
B) avascular coronary treatment.
C) airway clearance techniques.
D) always clear trachea.
Q2) An antidyspnea technique based on quiet expirations in a relaxed state and without use of postural drainage positions is:
A) neurogenic drainage.
B) mechanical drainage.
C) autogenic drainage.
D) passive drainage.
Q3) Contraindications to external manipulation of the thorax are:
A) lung contusion and osteoporosis.
B) lung contusion, osteoporosis, and coagulopathy.
C) osteoporosis and coagulopathy.
D) lung contusion and coagulopathy.
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22
Chapter 21: Airway Clearance Techniques
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Q1) In selecting a technique,the effectiveness of the technique is measured both ________ and _______
A) intrinsically, extrinsically
B) initially, terminally
C) practically, functionally
D) subjectively, objectively
Q2) Vibration involves:
A) a more vigorous nature.
B) a gentle high frequency force.
C) a strong shaking.
D) soft clapping.
Q3) Light percussion,_______ and ________ are used in conjunction with postural drainage positioning:
A) vibration, clapping
B) clapping, shaking
C) vibration, shaking
D) soft clapping, shaking
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23
Chapter 22: Facilitating Airway Clearance With Coughing Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Three self-assisted techniques are:
A) prone on elbows head flection, long sitting, and hands-and-knees rocking.
B) costophrenic, intraabdominal, and prone on elbows head flection.
C) long-sitting, hands-and-knees rocking, and costophrenic.
D) intraabdominal, hands-and-knees rocking, hands-and-knees rocking.
Q2) Speech and language pathologists work with patients who have swallowing dysfunction (dysphagia)by:
A) helping them to learn techniques and procedures for safe swallowing.
B) helping them to learn proper breathing techniques to aid in swallowing.
C) helping them to learn proper airway clearing techniques to aid in swallowing.
D) working in conjunction with a physical therapist on a treatment plan.
Q3) The anterior chest compression technique is more effective than the costophrenic assist for patients with a very weak:
A) chest wall muscle.
B) immune system.
C) pectoral muscle.
D) abdominal muscle.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Facilitating Ventilation Patterns and Breathing Strategies
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Q1) Minimal patient instruction is necessary to facilitate diaphragmatic breathing using the:
A) lateral costal breathing technique.
B) upper chest inhibition technique.
C) Jacobsen technique.
D) scoop technique.
Q2) Inhalation promotes trunk extension,and exhalation promotes:
A) trunk side flexion (right).
B) trunk elongation.
C) trunk flexion.
D) trunk side flexion (left).
Q3) Sniffing is a simple and effective way of teaching:
A) controlled breathing.
B) diaphragmatic breathing.
C) hyperventilation.
D) Biot respiration.
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Chapter 24: Exercise Testing and Training: Primary
Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Noninvasive cardiac and pulmonary rehabilitation is more cost effective than medical and surgical treatments.All of the following are considered noninvasive EXCEPT:
A) smoking cessation.
B) angioplasty.
C) nutrition and weight control.
D) self-management training.
Q2) Prediction of the prognosis of individuals with chronic heart failure can be improved with which of the following measures?
A) 6-minute walk test
B) Two-step exercise test protocol
C) Timed up and go
D) Treadmill testing
Q3) Of individuals who participate in pulmonary rehabilitation programs,the largest portion is made up of those with:
A) lung transplants.
B) lobectomies.
C) segmentectomies.
D) emphysema.
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Chapter 25: Exercise Testing and Training: Secondary
Cardiopulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Blood sugar abnormalities associated with diabetes necessitate monitoring in all the following conditions related to exercise EXCEPT:
A) 1 hour before.
B) right before.
C) during.
D) immediately after.
Q2) Management of patients with systemic atherosclerosis and circulatory dysfunction is similar to management of patients with which of the following pathologies?
A) Stroke
B) Heart and lung failure
C) End-stage renal disease
D) Hypertension
Q3) Besides altered hemodynamic responses to exercise,individuals with spinal cord injury also are affected by:
A) temperature stress.
B) fluid stress.
C) pulmonary stress.
D) positional stress.
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Muscle Training
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Q1) Respiratory muscle weakness associated with other factors plays a role in increasing the risk of _____________ failure and respiratory complications.
A) cardiac
B) ventilatory
C) pulmonary
D) renal
Q2) Abnormal respiratory muscle function plays an important role in people with chronic heart failure (CHF)in:
A) extended exercise sessions.
B) extended periods of rest.
C) premature exercise termination.
D) exertional dyspnea.
Q3) The capacity of the respiratory muscle pump is vital for the movement of air to the level of gas exchange in the respiratory system.Failure could result in all but which of the following?
A) Gas exchange
B) Ventilation
C) Tissue repair
D) Diaphragmatic movement
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Chapter 27: Complementary Therapies As
Cardiopulmonary Physical Therapy Interventions
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Q1) Rolfing is an approach that uses a:
A) light touch to balance energy flow, partly by balancing the flow of cerebral spinal fluid during its circulation around the meninges of the cranium and down the spinal column
B) deep connective tissue massage to loosen fascial restrictions and line up the structure of bones, muscles and organs so the body has a more vertical relation to gravity
C) form of hands-on therapy with the goal being to enhance relaxation and emotional awareness
D) manipulation of tissue through the skin with the intention of bringing about a change in the present condition of the mind/body
Q2) Mind/body intervention includes:
A) complementary therapies
B) manual therapies
C) mechanical force, bioelectromagnetic force, and energetic force
D) meditation, imagery and art therapy
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Chapter 28: Patient Education
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Q1) Prioritizing the patient's goals along with other intervention goals enhances the therapist's:
A) pay.
B) job security.
C) patient load.
D) efficiency.
Q2) The most important aspect of planning for patient education is:
A) assessing the physical therapist.
B) assessing the clinic where the patient will be treated.
C) assessing the behavior-modification approach.
D) assessing the learner.
Q3) The teacher-learner relationship that develops between a physical therapist and a patient is mainly caused by:
A) communication between the two in the context of culture.
B) interpretation of hidden messages.
C) being able to define culture.
D) how open the educational setting is.
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Chapter 29: Individuals With Acute Medical Conditions
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Q1) Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis is:
A) most often seen in health care workers.
B) strongly associated with smoking.
C) sometimes associated with pulmonary hypertension.
D) not responsive to pharmacologic management.
Q2) Which of the following exercises should be avoided to minimize cardiovascular strain in patient with high risk for cardiovascular dysfunction?
A) Warm-up ankle pumps
B) Recumbent biking
C) Wall sits
D) Upper extremity ergometer
Q3) All of the following statements about cystic fibrosis are true EXCEPT:
A) cystic fibrosis is only genetic in origin.
B) lung involvement is the only clinical manifestation.
C) cystic fibrosis can result in hyperinflation of the chest.
D) chronic staphylococcal infections accompany cystic fibrosis.
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Chapter 30: Individuals With Acute Surgical Conditions
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Q1) Which of the following would be considered an extrinsic factor contributing to cardiovascular and pulmonary function in the postoperative period?
A) Surgical procedure
B) Patient's conditioning level
C) Hydration
D) Stress level
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE regarding the typical pattern of breathing after surgery?
A) Spontaneous deep breaths are normal.
B) Tachypnea and tachycardia are rare.
C) Breath sounds are decreased and lung bases.
D) Mucus is not heard typically on auscultation.
Q3) You are performing preoperative counseling with a patient who will undergo coronary artery bypass grafting x 3 at the end of the week.Which of the following would be MOST appropriate preoperative counseling?
A) Review of modifiable patient risk factors
B) A detailed description of the surgical procedure
C) Preoperative informed consent
D) An overview of the risks associated with the surgical procedure
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Individuals With Chronic Primary
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) The hallmark sign of peripheral arterial disease is:
A) claudication.
B) angina.
C) confusion.
D) back pain.
Q2) Which of the following should be monitored when working with a patient with valve disease?
A) Rate pressure product
B) Rate of perceived exertion
C) Blood pressure
D) All of the above
Q3) Smoking contributes to:
A) decreased mucus production in the small airways.
B) increased elastic recoil of the lung.
C) decreased airway reactivity.
D) increased vascular changes in the lungs.
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Chapter 32: Individuals With Chronic Secondary
Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a principle symptom of systemic lupus erythematous (SLE)?
A) Arthralgic stiffness
B) Myalgic stiffness
C) Fatigue
D) All of the above are symptoms
Q2) Cardiovascular and pulmonary manifestations of systemic lupus erythematous (SLE)are:
A) Atelectasis
B) Barrel chest and overcompliance
C) Pleuritis
D) Pulmonary hypertension
Q3) You are treating a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS).Your patient presents with poor airway management and increased secretions.Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate treatment intervention to consider?
A) Body positioning and postural drainage
B) Maximal aerobic exercise in a warm environment
C) Regimented intensity and duration of strengthening exercises
D) Incentive spirometry
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Chapter 33: Comprehensive Management of Individuals in the Intensive Care Unit
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Q1) Which of the following is the priority of treatment for a patient who is critically ill?
A) Making the patient comfortable
B) Optimizing oxygen delivery through the use of mechanical ventilators
C) Optimizing oxygen delivery through noninvasive interventions
D) Patient and family education regarding diagnosis
Q2) Which of the following medications might help a patient cooperate and tolerate a physical therapy treatment session better?
A) Beta-blocker
B) Bronchodilator
C) Vasopressor agent
D) Narcotics
Q3) What would be the most appropriate way to address a pressure sore developing on the sacrum of a patient in the ICU to prevent further deterioration?
A) Provide a special mattress for the patient.
B) Begin a regular positioning program to relieve pressure on sacrum.
C) Begin routine skin examinations to monitor the sacrum.
D) Smooth the patient's hospital gown when he or she returns to bed.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Intensive Care Management of Individuals
With Primary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) Which of the following would you expect to see for a patient with end-stage respiratory failure?
A) Decrease in airway resistance
B) Carbon monoxide production
C) Work of breathing
D) Alveolar hyperventilation
Q2) Which of the following interventions would have the greatest effect on oxygen transport for a patient in ICU?
A) Active movement of large muscle groups
B) Active assisted movements
C) Passive motion
D) Sitting in a chair at the bedside
Q3) What intervention should the therapist concentrate on during a session of physical therapy with the cardiac patient including a short period of restricted mobility?
A) Aggressive coughing exercises
B) Positioning with the foot of the bed elevated
C) Rhythmic breathing exercises
D) Bed exercises while moving bilateral lower extremities at the same time.
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Chapter 35: Intensive Care Management of Individuals
With Secondary Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Dysfunction
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Q1) How should you position the bed to reduce intracranial pressure in a patient with a head injury?
A) Head of the bed elevated to 30 to 40 degrees
B) Head of the bed elevated to 50 to 60 degrees
C) Head of the bed declined to 30 to 40 degrees
D) Head of the bed declined to 50 to 60 degrees
Q2) What technique is best described as a modified cough with the glottis open and with abdominal support to help mobilize secretions?
A) Tracheal tickle
B) Natural cough
C) Facilitated cough
D) Huffing
Q3) While treating an obese patient,which of the following would not be an appropriate intervention?
A) Placing the patient in a prone position
B) Placing the patient in a half prone position
C) Lower extremity exercises
D) Whole-body ROM exercises
37
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Chapter 36: Intensive Care Management of Medical and Surgical Complications
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Q1) In what manner is a cardiac dysrhythmia in the presence of respiratory failure and absence of cardiac disease usually managed?
A) Use of Swan-Ganz catheter
B) Mechanical ventilation
C) Electrocardiographic monitoring
D) Correction of blood-gas abnormalities
Q2) Which of the following is a risk factor of a critical illness neuropathy or myopathy?
A) ICU stays of less than 7 days
B) Patients with hypoglycemia
C) The use of beta-blockers
D) Patients who have had organ transplants
Q3) What are the clinical features of sepsis?
A) Fever and bradycardia
B) Bradycardia and tachypnea
C) Respiratory alkalemia and fever
D) Bradycardia and respiratory alkalemia
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38
Chapter 37: Infants and Children With Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Concerns
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Q1) Which of the following conditions is associated with Arnold-Chiari type II malformation?
A) Cerebral palsy
B) Myelomeningocele
C) Down syndrome
D) Muscular dystrophy
Q2) You are creating an exercise program for a 5-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis (CF).What components should be included in your pre-exercise examination and evaluation?
A) Complete chest evaluation
B) Evaluation of ADL tolerance and limitations
C) Evaluation of ROM, strength and posture
D) All of these should be assessed
Q3) What does the foramen ovale allow to occur during fetal circulation?
A) Passage of oxygenated blood
B) Left-to-right blood flow through the atria
C) Right-to-left blood flow through the atria
D) Passage of deoxygenated blood
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Chapter 38: The Aging Patient
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Q1) Postural hypotension occurs in elder patients when positions are quickly changed.This complaint of dizziness is important to physical therapists because of which of the following?
A) There is a potential for risk of falls.
B) There is less likelihood of stroke with decreases in blood pressure.
C) There is better response to exercise with lower blood pressure.
D) This is a poor indicator in the patient's willingness to participate in therapy.
Q2) According to the research in this chapter,exercise-trained men have a greater chance of which of the following whereas women do not see the same changes?
A) Stroke volume
B) Decrease in end-systolic volume
C) Greater left ventricular wall mass
D) All of the above
Q3) Telomere length relates to which of the following?
A) The ability of cells to lengthen during exercise
B) The ability of the cells recoil after initial stretch
C) The ability of cells to replicate
D) The ability of cells to repair themselves
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Chapter 39: Multisystem Clinical Implications of Impaired
Breathing Mechanics and Postural Control
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Q1) Paradoxical breathing type I has the end result of upper chest wall collapse because of which of the following muscular functions?
A) Lack of stabilizing contractions of the intercostal
B) The diaphragm fails to descend into the abdomen
C) The abdominal muscle contract decreasing the diaphragms descent into the abdomen
D) The upper respiratory muscles are unopposed in their pull of the chest wall superiorly
Q2) Patients with which form(s)of compensatory breathing patterns need assistance from a ventilator?
A) Type I paradoxical
B) Paradoxical Type II paradoxical
C) Asymmetrical
D) Lateral or gravity eliminated
Q3) Which of the following is not the cause of symmetrical breathing patterns?
A) Stroke
B) Scoliosis
C) Unilateral spinal or nerve root injuries
D) Bilateral spinal cord injuries
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Chapter 40: The Transplant Patient
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Q1) Psychological issues associated with transplant patients before surgery are limited to which of the following?
A) Stress from unknown waiting time and employment disruption
B) Moving from home to a new location
C) Staying hopeful and realization of terminal disease
D) Stresses are unlimited because each patient's case is different
Q2) What type of medication is often used after transplant surgery for the lung patient to ensure proper function of the lungs?
A) Vitamins and supplements
B) Diuretics
C) Antipsychotics
D) Paralytics
Q3) What is the principle limitation to survival after a transplant?
A) Medication dosing
B) Graft rejection
C) Overexertion when trying to return to prior level of activity
D) Oversuppression of the immune system
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Chapter 41: The Patient in the Community
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Q1) What has research has shown to be an obstacle that may limit a patient's ability to progress in functioning?
A) Illiteracy
B) Correct use of medication
C) Knowledge of the current condition
D) All of the above
Q2) The goal of helping a patient accomplish what he or she wants day with regard to return to function excludes which of the following?
A) Knowledge of symptoms
B) Reliance on a support system
C) Return to prior level of function immediately
D) Goal setting that allows easy achievement
Q3) Physical therapy services are beneficial during a episode of cardiopulmonary disease at what stage of the recovery?
A) During the acute stages of a disease process
B) During the recovery stages of a disease process
C) When the patient has return to independent functioning
D) Physical therapy can be beneficial at all stages
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43
Chapter 42: Body Mechanics: Positioning and Moving Patients
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Q1) Which explains the relationship between a person's center of gravity and his or her body stability?
A) The higher a person's center of gravity, the greater his or her body stability.
B) The lower a person's center of gravity, the lesser his or her body stability.
C) The farther anterior a person's center of gravity, the greater his or her body stability.
D) The lower a person's center of gravity, the greater his or her body stability.
Q2) Which action will facilitate the breathing of a patient in supine?
A) Adding a pillow beneath the patient's head
B) Adding a pillow beneath the patient's low back
C) Adding towel rolls beneath the patient's shoulders
D) Removing pillows from beneath the patient's head
Q3) Which patient position limits the effect of gravity on anterior expansion of the lungs?
A) Supine
B) Side-lying
C) Hook-lying
D) Prone
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Chapter 43: Respiratory Care Practice Review
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Q1) Which device has become more popular over the past 20 years for supporting patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy and cystic fibrosis?
A) IPPB
B) MDI
C) NMIV
D) CPAP
Q2) Which of the following is used to ensure mandatory minute ventilation?
A) Pressure support ventilation
B) Triggers
C) Incentive spirometry
D) None of the above
Q3) What is the normal range of the partial pressure of oxygen as measured by arterial blood gas analysis?
A) 20 to 40 mm Hg
B) 40 to 60 mm Hg
C) 60 to 80 mm Hg
D) 80 to 100 mm Hg
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is needed to reinsert a dislodged outer cannula?
A) Tracheal hook
B) Trousseau dilator
C) Satisfactory tissue retraction
D) All of the above
Q2) Which vacuum settings should be used while suctioning?
A) The lowest possible settings (<120 mm Hg)
B) The highest possible settings
C) Between 120 and 200 mm Hg
D) None of the above
Q3) What is the recommended pressure for a tracheostomy tube cuff?
A) 5 to 15 mm Hg
B) 15 to 25 mm Hg
C) 25 to 35 mm Hg
D) 35 to 45 mm Hg
Q4) How often should the pressure of a tracheostomy tube cuff be checked?
A) Once per day
B) Twice per day
C) Every 4 to 8 hours
D) Every 30 minutes
46
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Chapter 45: Respiratory and Cardiovascular Drug Actions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What equation can be used to calculate blood pressure?
A) Cardiac output x Total peripheral resistance
B) Cardiac output/Total peripheral resistance
C) Heart rate x Stroke volume
D) Heart rate/Stroke volume
Q2) Long-term use of which of the following often leads to Cushing syndrome?
A) Adrenergic drugs
B) Propranolol
C) Anticholinergics
D) Corticosteroids
Q3) Which is a cholinergic blocking drug that is useful as an antiulcer and antispasmodic agent?
A) Donepezil
B) Acetylcholine
C) Atropine
D) Clonidine
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