Physical Therapy Assistant Programs
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Physical Therapy Assistant Programs are designed to equip students with the knowledge and practical skills necessary to support physical therapists in the rehabilitation and recovery of patients with physical impairments, injuries, or disabilities. These programs cover foundational courses in anatomy, physiology, kinesiology, and therapeutic procedures, as well as clinical education experiences in a variety of healthcare settings. Students learn to assist in executing treatment plans, use therapeutic modalities, document patient progress, and adhere to ethical and legal standards in healthcare. Graduates are prepared to take certification exams and pursue entry-level roles as physical therapist assistants in hospitals, clinics, rehabilitation centers, and other healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 9th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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29 Chapters
4302 Verified Questions
4302 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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81 Verified Questions
81 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Skin,hair,and nails are associated with the ________ system.
A)skeletal
B)muscular
C)integumentary
D)endocrine
E)immune
Answer: C
Q2) Name the organs found in the thoracic cavity.
Answer: lungs,heart,trachea,esophagus,thymus,major blood vessels connected to the heart
Q3) Which of the following regions corresponds to the buttocks?
A)pelvic
B)cephalic
C)gluteal
D)lumbar
E)thoracic
Answer: C
Q4) The common term for the buccal region is the ________. Answer: cheek
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chemical behavior of an atom is determined by
A)the number of protons.
B)the number of neutrons.
C)the outermost electron shell.
D)the size of the atom.
E)the mass of the nucleus.
Answer: C
Q2) Which property of water helps keeps body temperature stabilized?
A)kinetic energy
B)lubrication
C)surface tension
D)reactivity
E)thermal inertia
Answer: E
Q3) Electrons in an atom occupy an orderly series of electron shells or ________. Answer: energy levels
Q4) What role do buffer systems play in the human body?
Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing hydrogen ions as needed.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms is not used to define the structure that separates the contents of a human cell from its surrounding medium?
A)cell wall
B)cell membrane
C)plasma membrane
D)plasmalemma
E)both a cell wall and a plasmalemma
Answer: A
Q2) A gene is a set of specific instructions that
A)produces amino acids for proteins.
B)copies DNA strands for mitosis.
C)controls the process of mitosis.
D)indicates the sequence of amino acids in a protein molecule.
E)directs carbohydrate synthesis.
Answer: D
Q3) Define osmosis.
Answer: Osmosis is the transfer of water across a semipermeable membrane due to a difference in concentration of impermeable solute.
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glands that secrete hormones into the interstitial fluid are A)endocrine glands.
B)interstitial glands. C)exocrine glands.
D)merocrine glands. E)holocrine glands.
Q2) Epithelial cells exhibit modifications that adapt them for A)contraction.
B)conduction.
C)secretion.
D)circulation. E)support.
Q3) Antiangiogenesis factor is a chemical produced by ________ that blocks the growth of blood vessels.
Q4) The epithelium that lines the body cavities is known as ________.
Q5) During the inflammatory process,blood vessels dilate.What does this accomplish?
Q6) Compare the three types of muscle tissue.List three similarities and three differences among them.
Q7) What type of epithelium would you expect to find lining the alveoli (air sacs)in the lungs?
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The epidermis of the skin is composed of which type of tissue?
A)keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
B)simple squamous epithelium
C)transitional epithelium
D)areolar connective tissue
E)nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
Q2) The type of cells that form the strata in the epidermis are A)adipocytes.
B)keratinocytes.
C)fibroblasts.
D)melanocytes.
E)dendritic cells.
Q3) The stratum corneum just under the free-edge of a nail is the A)hyponychium.
B)lunula.
C)eponychium.
D)nail root.
E)cuticle.
Q4) The substance called sebum is commonly known as ________.
Q5) Why is scab formation important in wound healing?
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Chapter 6: Osseous Tissue and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ fibers are stronger than steel when stretched.(Note: Be sure to capitalize the first letter of your answer).
Q2) A fracture at the ankle involving both lower leg bones is often called a ________ fracture.
A)compression
B)Pott
C)displaced
D)greenstick
E)Colles
Q3) The natural age-related loss of bone mass is called ________.
Q4) Damage to a bone because of extreme load,sudden impact,or stresses applied from an unusual direction is called a(n)________.
Q5) A boot-top fracture that involves both lower leg bones is called a(n)________ fracture.
Q6) A small rough bump on bone where a tendon attaches is called a ________.
Q7) A(n)________ fracture is produced by twisting stresses applied to the bone.
Q8) The ongoing process of tearing down and rebuilding bone matrix is called
Q9) A chamber within a bone normally filled with air is a ________.
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nerve that carries sensory information from the teeth and gums of the lower jaw passes through the
A)ramus of the mandible.
B)condylar process.
C)mental foramen.
D)mandibular foramen.
E)maxillary foramen.
Q2) Billy is injured during a high school football game.His chest is badly bruised and he is experiencing difficulty in breathing.What might the problem be?
Q3) Each of the following bones is a component of the orbital complex,except the ________ bone.
A)lacrimal
B)nasal
C)sphenoid
D)ethmoid
E)frontal
Q4) Infection of the large process on the temporal bone would be called ________.
Q5) The ________ is the bony chamber that protects and supports the brain.
Q6) The inferior portion of the nasal septum is formed by the ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The coxal bone and sacrum combine to form the A)pelvis.
B)pelvic girdle.
C)hips.
D)pectoral girdle.
E)pubic symphysis.
Q2) The hand has 15 phalangeal bones; the foot has 14 phalangeal bones.
A)The first statement is true but the second statement is false.
B)The first statement is false but the second statement is true.
C)The first statement is true and the second statement is true.
D)The first statement is false and the second statement is false.
E)too much anatomical variability to be sure
Q3) The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the
A)clavicle articulates with the humerus.
B)clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum.
C)coxal bones articulate with the femur.
D)vertebral column articulates with the sacrum.
E)clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process.
Q4) The ________ are S-shaped bones that articulate lateral to the jugular notch.
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Chapter 9: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The movement of a body part upward is called ________.
Q2) The movement of rotating a limb outward is called ________.
Q3) The most common athletic knee injury produces damage to the A)patella.
B)lateral meniscus.
C)ligaments.
D)tendons.
E)medial meniscus.
Q4) Nodding your head "yes" is an example of A)lateral and medial rotation.
B)circumduction.
C)flexion and extension.
D)pronation and supination.
E)protraction and retraction.
Q5) Which of the following joints is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?
A)elbow
B)knee
C)ankle
D)wrist
E)shoulder
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after
A)acetylcholine binds to chemically-gated channels in the end plate membrane.
B)acetylcholinesterase binds to receptors on the end plate.
C)calcium ion binds to channels on the end plate.
D)the nerve action potential jumps across the neuromuscular junction.
E)Any of the above can produce an action potential in the muscle cell.
Q2) The advantage of having many nuclei in a skeletal muscle fiber is
A)the ability to contract.
B)the ability to produce more ATP with little oxygen.
C)the ability to store extra DNA for metabolism.
D)the ability to produce large amounts of the muscle proteins needed for growth and repair.
E)the ability to produce nutrients for muscle contraction.
Q3) Synaptic vesicles contain neurotransmitters that are released by ________ when the action potential arrives.
A)endocytosis
B)apoptosis
C)exocytosis
D)hydrolysis
E)sodium
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "9."
A)quadriceps tendon
B)femoral aponeurosis
C)linea alba
D)iliotibial tract
E)calcanean tendon
Q2) Which of the following does not move the shoulder girdle?
A)pectoralis minor
B)deltoid
C)rhomboid
D)serratus anterior
E)trapezius
Q3) The long strap-like muscle on the anterior thigh is the ________ muscle.
Q4) Which of the following muscles is found within the pelvic floor?
A)ischiocavernosus
B)perineal group
C)bulbospongiosus
D)coccygeus
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q5) The muscle that retracts and elevates the upper lip is the ________ muscle.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Neural Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Small,wandering cells that engulf cell debris and pathogens in the CNS are called A)astrocytes.
B)satellite cells.
C)oligodendrocytes.
D)microglia.
E)ependymal cells.
Q2) Neurons that have several dendrites and a single axon are called A)anaxonic.
B)unipolar.
C)bipolar.
D)tripolar.
E)multipolar.
Q3) The axoplasm of the axon contains which of the following?
A)neurotubules
B)mitochondria
C)vesicles
D)neurofibrils
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q4) Neuron cell bodies in the PNS are clustered together in masses called ________.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)________ reflex has at least one interneuron placed between the sensory and motor neurons.
Q2) Cerebrospinal fluid flows within the A)filum terminale.
B)subarachnoid space.
C)dura mater.
D)pia mater.
E)arachnoid mater.
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "2."
A)ventral root
B)dorsal ramus
C)spinal nerve
D)ventral ramus
E)white ramus
Q4) The dorsal root contains ________ neurons.
Q5) In ________,axon collaterals extend back toward the source of the impulse and further stimulate the earlier neurons.
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Q6) During the procedure known as a(n)________,a needle is inserted into the subarachnoid space in the inferior lumbar region.
Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus
A)are in the medulla and relay somatic sensory information to the thalamus.
B)are in the pons and relay autonomic information from the hypothalamus.
C)pass motor information to the cerebellum.
D)are sensory gyri in the cerebral cortex.
E)are white tracts in the brain stem.
Q2) The cells that cover the outer surfaces of CNS capillary endothelial cells are the A)blastocytes.
B)astrocytes.
C)monocytes.
D)leukocytes.
E)lymphocytes.
Q3) The anterior nuclei of the thalamus
A)are part of the limbic system.
B)secrete pituitary hormones.
C)secrete melatonin.
D)receive axon collaterals from the optic nerve.
E)secrete pituitary hormones and melatonin.
Q4) The folds of the surface of the cerebellum are called ________.
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Chapter 15: Neural Integration I: Sensory Pathways and the
Somatic Nervous
System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the type of information that travels along the structure labeled "2."
A)motor commands to skeletal muscles
B)proprioception to the cerebral cortex
C)fine touch to the cerebral cortex
D)pain and crude touch sensations
E)visceral motor commands to smooth muscle
Q2) Which of the following is sometimes called "prickling pain"?
A)mechanical damage
B)chemicals
C)extremes of temperature
D)fast pain
E)fast and slow pain
Q3) A tactile receptor composed of highly coiled dendrites that are surrounded by modified Schwann cells and a fibrous capsule is a
A)lamellated corpuscle.
B)Ruffini corpuscle.
C)tactile (Meissner)corpuscle.
D)tactile (Merkel)disc.
E)root hair plexus.
Q4) The ________ is the area monitored by a single receptor cell.
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Chapter 16: Neural Integration Ii: the Autonomic Nervous System
and
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Sample Questions
Q1) Postganglionic sympathetic axons can release the neurotransmitter ________ at their effector junctions.
A)acetylcholine
B)nitric oxide
C)norepinephrine
D)ACh
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q2) The statement "there is always a peripheral synapse between the CNS and the effector organ" is
A)true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
B)true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
C)true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
D)not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
E)true only for the somatic nervous system.
Q3) Sympathetic preganglionic neurons are ________ and have ________ axons.
A)long; myelinated
B)long; unmyelinated
C)short; myelinated
D)short; unmyelinated
E)intermediate; white
Page 18
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of olfactory discrimination?
A)There are 6 primary smells known.
B)The number of olfactory receptors decline as we age.
C)All odorants require the same concentration to activate an olfactory receptor.
D)There are different types of olfactory receptor cells to detect each type of odorant.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is true about rhodopsin?
A)called visual purple
B)is bleached during photoreception
C)is the visual pigment in rods
D)consists of opsin + retinal
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Each of the special senses can be expected to decline in some way over time.Describe some of the changes commonly seen in the function of the special senses with age.
Q4) Taste buds on the tongue are often associated with epithelial projections called ________.
Q5) The sense of taste is also known as ________.
Q6) Photoreceptor that convey our ability to see color are ________.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two lobes of the pituitary gland together produce how many hormones?
A)3
B)5
C)7
D)9
E)16
Q2) Mental and physical sluggishness and low body temperature may be signs of
A)hyperthyroidism.
B)hypothyroidism.
C)hyperparathyroidism.
D)hypoparathyroidism.
E)diabetes insipidus.
Q3) All target cells
A)have hormone receptors.
B)respond to electrical signals.
C)secrete hormones.
D)produce their own hormones.
E)are in the blood.
Q4) The ________ gland sits along the superior border of the kidney.
Q5) Describe the four patterns of hormonal interaction.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the formed elements would increase after the donation of a pint of blood?
Q2) The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the A)sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
B)activation of Factor XII exposed to collagen.
C)release of tissue factor (Factor III)by damaged endothelium.
D)release of heparin from the liver.
E)conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
Q3) The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the A)neutrophils.
B)eosinophils.
C)basophils.
D)lymphocytes.
E)monocytes.
Q4) Platelets are
A)red cells that lack a nucleus.
B)blue cells that have a nucleus.
C)large cells with a prominent,concave nucleus.
D)tiny cells with a polynucleus.
E)cytoplasmic fragments of large cells.
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal from
A)depolarization of the SA node.
B)depolarization of the AV node.
C)depolarization of the atria.
D)repolarization of the atria.
E)depolarization of the ventricles.
Q2) If the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions,the
A)heart rate will increase.
B)heart rate will decrease.
C)cells will depolarize.
D)cells will hyperpolarize.
E)heart rate will decrease and cells will hyperpolarize.
Q3) Which of these is true about the atrial reflex?
A)also called Bainbridge reflex
B)triggered by atrial mechanoreceptors
C)triggered by increasing venous return
D)depends on sympathetic innervation
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q4) The wall of the ________ rests on the diaphragm.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is least likely to lead to renin release?
A)renal artery thrombus
B)vasospasm of the renal arteries
C)circulatory shock
D)increased sympathetic activity
E)hypertension
Q2) The term ________ refers to the pressure in the arterial side of the circulatory system.
Q3) The vessels that receive blood from the ovaries or testes are the ________.
Q4) Venous valves are responsible for
A)preventing anterograde flow.
B)channeling blood away from the heart.
C)channeling blood toward the heart.
D)preventing blood from re-entering a ventricle.
E)regulating blood pressure in veins.
Q5) The direct interconnection of two arteries is called an arterial ________.
Q6) Compare the hearts of a trained athlete and a nonathlete.
Q7) The small intestine and most of the large intestine receive blood from the ________.
Page 23
Q8) The blood vessel that carries blood to the arm and shoulder is the ________.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The alternative pathway of complement activation is sometimes called the ________ pathway.
Q2) Immunity that is genetically determined and present at birth is called ________ immunity.
A)active
B)natural passive
C)passive
D)auto
E)innate
Q3) The only antibodies that normally cross the placenta are
A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgE.
D)IgG.
E)IgM.
Q4) ________ occurs when an antigen fragment-glycoprotein complex appears in a plasma membrane.(Note: Be sure to capitalize the first letter of your answer).
Q5) Cyclosporin A is an example of a drug that inhibits ________ of a transplanted organ.
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The apneustic centers of the pons
A)inhibit the pneumotaxic and inspiratory centers.
B)provide stimulation to the inspiratory center.
C)monitor blood gas levels.
D)alter chemoreceptor sensitivity.
E)generate the gasp reflex.
Q2) Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and has severe breathing difficulties.His problems result from
A)genetic mutation in cilia production.
B)laryngospasm.
C)thick secretions that are difficult to transport.
D)lack of neural control of respiration.
E)excessive mucus secretions in the trachea.
Q3) What is the function of the structure labeled "8"?
A)forces air into the lungs
B)causes air to swirl within the respiratory passageway
C)prevents food from entering the larynx
D)acts like a supplementary air pump
E)prevents food from entering the pharynx
Q4) The superior region of the pharynx is called the ________.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the stomach region labeled "12".
A)cardia
B)pylorus
C)body
D)fundus
E)rugae
Q2) What is the layer labeled "4"?
A)mucosa
B)submucusa
C)muscularis externa
D)muscularis mucosae
E)serosa
Q3) An intestinal hormone that stimulates the release of insulin from the pancreatic islet cells is
A)enterocrinin.
B)enteropeptidase.
C)secretin.
D)cholecystokinin.
E)gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP).
Q4) The oral cavity is also known as the ________ cavity.
26
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Chapter 25: Metabolism and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells perform catabolism to generate ATP,which can be used for
A)muscle contraction.
B)ion transport.
C)protein synthesis.
D)glycogen synthesis.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q2) The main purpose of the citric acid cycle is to
A)produce Acetyl CoA.
B)produce proteins for energy storage.
C)phosphorylate glucose molecules.
D)supply hydrogen atoms to the mitochondria.
E)produce citric acid to make vitamin C.
Q3) During starvation
A)carbohydrate utilization increases.
B)gluconeogenesis ceases.
C)there is a decline in circulating ketone bodies.
D)muscle proteins are used as an energy source.
E)carbohydrate reserves maintained by metabolizing inorganic compounds.
Q4) An ________ is deficient in one or more of the essential amino acids.
Q5) The energy content of foods is commonly given in units of ________.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The renal threshold for glucose is approximately ________ mg/dl.
A)75
B)90
C)100
D)140
E)180
Q2) The concentration at which all of the carriers for a given substance are saturated is the ________.
Q3) In glomerulonephritis,the normal filtration barrier is damaged and becomes far more permeable to plasma proteins,such as albumin along with other solutes.How would that affect glomerular filtration?
Q4) All of the following are true of the kidneys,except that they are
A)located in a position that is retroperitoneal.
B)surrounded by a fibrous capsule.
C)located partly within the pelvic cavity.
D)held in place by the renal fascia.
E)covered by peritoneum.
Q5) Urine is temporarily stored in the ________.
Q6) List each organ of the urinary system and concisely describe its function.
Q7) The ________ test is often used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate.
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Chapter 27: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ________ consists of a combination of a weak acid and its associated anion.
Q2) When pure water is consumed,
A)the ECF becomes hypertonic to the ICF.
B)a fluid shift occurs and the volume of the ICF decreases.
C)osmolarities of the two fluid compartments fall.
D)the volume of the ECF decreases.
E)the volume of the ICF decreases.
Q3) Aldosterone
A)is secreted in response to decreased levels of potassium in the blood.
B)promotes sodium retention in the kidneys.
C)helps decrease blood volume and lower blood pressure.
D)regulates blood calcium levels.
E)regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys.
Q4) All of the following are components of ECF,except
A)cerebrospinal fluid.
B)peritoneal fluid.
C)lymph.
D)aqueous humor.
E)RBCs.
Q5) Will hyperventilation raise or lower pH?
Page 29
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
196 Verified Questions
196 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34537
Sample Questions
Q1) What is produced by the structure labeled "1"?
A)ovary
B)estrogen
C)progesterone
D)inhibin
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q2) Imagine that a seven-year-old girl develops a hormone-secreting ovarian tumor derived from granulosa cells.What signs of the disease would you expect?
Q3) The portion of the uterine tube that ends in fingerlike fimbriae is the
A)ampulla.
B)distal segment.
C)infundibulum.
D)proximal segment.
E)isthmus.
Q4) Which of the following muscles move the testes toward the body?
A)the cremaster
B)the tunica muscularis
C)the biceps brachii
D)the dartos
E)both the cremaster and the dartos muscles
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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140 Verified Questions
140 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34538
Sample Questions
Q1) The extraembryonic membrane that forms blood is the A)yolk sac.
B)amnion.
C)allantois.
D)chorion.
E)decidua.
Q2) In a(n)________ an incision is made in the perineal musculature.
Q3) The developmental period heralded by the onset of puberty is known as ________.
Q4) The infancy stage of life is considered to be over at
A)age 1.
B)age 2.
C)6 months.
D)1 month.
E)18 months.
Q5) Which of these statements about the trophoblast is false?
A)secretes hyalouronidase to erode endometrial cell adhesion
B)absorbs nutrients released by degenerating endometrial glands
C)has both an acellular and cellular component
D)is derived from the inner cell mass
E)causes maternal blood vessels to break down
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