Physical Therapy Assistant Program
Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
The Physical Therapy Assistant Program is designed to equip students with the knowledge and clinical skills necessary to assist physical therapists in delivering high-quality care to patients with physical disabilities, injuries, or illnesses. The curriculum combines foundational coursework in anatomy, physiology, and kinesiology with hands-on training in therapeutic exercises, modalities, and patient mobility techniques. Students also develop communication, documentation, and patient education skills essential for working in various healthcare settings, such as hospitals, rehabilitation centers, and outpatient clinics. Upon completion, graduates are prepared to take licensure examinations and support physical therapists in improving patient mobility, function, and overall quality of life.
Recommended Textbook
Holes Human Anatomy and Physiology 15th Edition by David Shier
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24 Chapters
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2498 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organ systems responsible for integration and coordination are the nervous and endocrine systems.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A body has been sectioned in such a way that there is one whole lung per section and the urinary bladder has been split in half. What type of section is this?
A)Frontal
B)Transverse
C)Coronal
D)Sagittal
Answer: D
Q3) Deep vein thrombosis, heart attack, and high blood pressure are all diseases of the ________ system.
Answer: cardiovascular
Q4) The ears are lateral to the eyes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amylase is an enzyme that promotes the breakdown of starches during digestion. Which of the following describes the method by which amylase functions?
A)It catalyzes starch breakdown without being changed or depleted.
B)It functions as a hormone that signals for starch breakdown to begin.
C)It inhibits chemical reactions by being changed or depleted by the starch.
D)It changes its composition in order to break starch down itself.
Answer: A
Q2) Two negatively charged bromide (Br )ions exist in solution. They will be attracted to each other and form an ionic bond.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The difference between carbon-13 and carbon-14 is their number of ________.
Answer: neutrons
Q4) Chemically inert atoms always have their outermost electron shell full.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Cells
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Salt is placed in a glass of water. Slowly the salt begins to even out in concentration due to what factor?
A)Distance gradient
B)Distance vector
C)Concentration vector
D)Concentration gradient
Answer: D
Q2) The structures in the nucleus that serve as a "mitotic clock" are A)telomeres.
B)kinases.
C)ribosomes.
D)hormones.
Answer: A
Q3) Some people cannot be infected with HIV because A)they are already infected.
B)their cells lack receptors that admit the virus.
C)their cells have extra receptors for HIV.
D)they were vaccinated.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The part of the tRNA that binds mRNA is the anticodon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Building up large molecules is called ________.
Q3) Three types of RNA participate in protein synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A DNA molecule is a double helix in which A pairs with C and T pairs with G.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Dehydration synthesis is catabolic and hydrolysis is anabolic.
A)True
B)False
Q6) All of the following are examples of catabolic reactions EXCEPT
A)trypsin in the stomach digesting large proteins into smaller ones.
B)amylase in saliva breaking down starch into simple sugars.
C)the release of energy by converting ATP into ADP during a metabolic reaction.
D)synthesizing the enzyme maltase from amino acids.
Q7) The molecule that an enzyme affects is its ________.
Q8) The complete set of genetic instructions in an individual is the ________.
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Areolar tissue contains
A)many adipocytes filled with fat.
B)collagenous fibers, elastic fibers, and gel-like ground substance.
C)chondrocytes and lacunae.
D)osteocytes, osteoblasts, and canaliculi.
Q2) Which of the following are cellular fragments?
A)Red blood cells
B)White blood cells
C)Lymphocytes
D)Blood platelets
Q3) Striations, but not intercalated discs, are seen in ________ muscle tissue.
Q4) The lubricating secretions of the walls of the thoracic cavity and the outsides of the lungs come from goblet cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Bone cells form concentric circles around longitudinal tubes called A)osteons.
B)central canals.
C)lacunae.
D)canaliculi.
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pigment produced by melanocytes is ________.
Q2) Eccrine sweat glands
A)are most common in the armpits and groin.
B)respond primarily to elevated body temperature.
C)respond primarily to emotional stress.
D)usually are associated with hair follicles.
Q3) Three physiological factors that affect the color of skin are: volume of blood in dermal vessels, carotene in the subcutaneous layer, and various diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As a person ages, the skin typically becomes
A)thicker.
B)more opaque.
C)more elastic.
D)spotted with patches of pigment.
Q5) Once a scab has formed, what happens next?
A)phagocytic cells remove dead material.
B)the scab sloughs off.
C)fibroblasts from the wound edge form new collagenous fibers.
D)blood vessels send out new branches under the scab.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The appendicular skeleton consists of the parts that support and protect the head, neck, and trunk.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bone-forming cells are called ________.
Q3) The acetabulum is
A)a depression in the hip bone that receives the head of the femur.
B)a protuberance in the hip bone that attaches to the head of the femur.
C)the prominence of the hip.
D)the anterior portion of the hip bone.
Q4) The two divisions of the skeleton are called axial and ________.
Q5) The axial skeleton includes
A)the upper and lower limbs and pelvic and pectoral girdles.
B)the skull, hyoid bone, thoracic cage, and vertebral column.
C)the radius, ulna, carpals, and phalanges.
D)the femur, tibia, and fibula.
Q6) As a person ages, osteoblasts outnumber osteoclasts.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The xiphoid process is part of the ________.
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Chapter 8: Joints of the Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The movement of a limb away from the midline is ________.
Q2) In craniosynostosis, the bones of the skull fuse together at the sutures prematurely, causing the brain to grow abnormally. Why would this cause abnormal brain growth?
A)The sutures are amphiarthrotic and slightly move during brain growth, so the plates of the skull can easily move to suit any direction of brain growth. Fusion at the sutures will prevent this free movement.
B)Because the sutures contain ligaments, blows to the skull can be absorbed by plate movement. Removal of the sutures will cause any slight blow to damage the brain.
C)The sutures are synarthrotic and do not move, only allowing expansion from within as the brain grows to fill the brain case. Fusion at the sutures will prevent this expansion.
D)Sutures are large gaps between bones that are filled with synovial fluid. This synovial fluid allows for the brain to expand into the spaces. Ossification of the sutures would prevent the expansion of the brain.
Q3) In ________, joints are inflamed, swollen, and painful.
Q4) Fluid-filled sacs associated with synovial joints are ________.
Q5) A ________ joint is found between a metacarpal and its adjacent phalanx.
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Since many muscles are named for their location (origin and insertion), the occipitalis muscle probably originates on the ________ bone of the skull.
Q2) While examining a sample of muscle tissue under a microscope, you notice that the cells have a single nucleus. The fibers are striated and heavily branched. Which muscle type does this sample contain?
A)Skeletal muscle
B)Smooth muscle
C)Cardiac muscle
D)Striated muscle
Q3) The more movable end of a muscle is its A)origin.
B)fulcrum.
C)insertion.
D)source.
Q4) A sarcomere is best described as
A)a part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B)a group of fascicles.
C)a group of muscle fibers.
D)a unit within a muscle fiber.
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Chapter 10: Nervous System I: Basic Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neuron is exposed to a drug that completely blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, but has no effect on non-gated channels or the sodium-potassium pump. Which of the following describes the effect on action potential generation?
A)Threshold will never be crossed, and therefore an action potential will never be generated.
B)Repolarization will never occur after threshold is crossed and sodium will continue to flow into the neuron.
C)Repolarization will still occur, but at an inefficiently slow rate.
D)Resting potential would not be maintained, as potassium could not leak out of the neuron.
Q2) Which of the following cells is found only in the PNS?
A)Oligodendrocyte
B)Astrocyte
C)Microglial cell
D)Schwann cell
Q3) Enkephalins are neuropeptides.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n)________ is the junction between neurons.
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Chapter 11: Nervous System II: Divisions of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The area of skin that sensory nerve fibers of a particular spinal nerve innervate is called a
A)dermatome.
B)myotome.
C)sensory body.
D)nerve body.
Q2) The subarachnoid space within the meninges contains cerebrospinal fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Aphasia is loss of the ability to A)speak.
B)move the hands.
C)walk.
D)think.
Q4) Spinal nerves are grouped and named according to function. A)True B)False
Q5) The dura mater is the outermost layer of the meninges. A)True B)False
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Chapter 12: Nervous System III: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which example fits? "A sensation is ________ , and projection of a sensation is ________."
A)a Pacinian corpuscle being stimulated to generate an action potential upon stretch stimulation; the transmission of that impulse into the brain
B)nociceptors sending pain signals about tissue damage from a bee sting on your finger; the brain recognizing that the pain is from your finger
C)the sweet taste of ice cream on your tongue; the right side of the brain projecting the sweet taste to the left side, or vice versa
D)a change in membrane permeability of a receptor; transmission of an impulse into a sensory area of the brain
Q2) Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is a condition where debris enters the semicircular canal of the ear and moves the crista ampullaris, resulting in a lingering feeling of spinning or dizzying movement. The sensation occurs after slight movements of the head and persists after actual movement has stopped. The disorder is affecting ________ equilibrium.
Q3) The process by which the brain causes a sensation to seem to come from the stimulated receptors is called ________.
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Chapter 13: Endocrine System
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110 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thalamus controls secretion of pituitary hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If the thyroid were to develop abnormally and lack most of its extracellular folds, secretion of calcitonin would be severely below normal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A sweat gland is an example of a(n)________ gland.
A)exocrine
B)paracrine
C)endocrine
D)autocrine
Q4) Your friend puts on a mask and chases you as a prank. Your body responds by releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine, along with other physiological responses. Your friend frightening you is the ________, that cause the body's response.
Q5) The thyroid gland has a special ability to remove the element ________ from the blood.
Q6) The pancreas functions as part of the endocrine system and as a part of the ________ system.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient comes to the hospital with a suspected case of MRSA (a dangerous bacterial infection). Which of the following blood components would you expect to show elevated numbers in a blood test?
A)Red blood cells
B)Eosinophils
C)Neutrophils
D)Monocytes
Q2) Vitamin B is important for the production of red blood cells because it is utilized in the synthesis of intrinsic factor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In leukemia,
A)the blood has too many immature leukocytes.
B)the body doesn't produce enough red blood cells.
C)red blood cells become occupied by parasites.
D)red blood cells are misshapen and become lodged in capillaries.
Q4) ________ is the term used to describe the stoppage of bleeding by any one of several means.
Q5) In an adult, red blood cells are produced primarily in the ________.
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following correctly matches the valve to its function?
A)Tricuspid valve-permits one-way blood flow from the right to the left atrium
B)Pulmonary valve-permits one-way blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta
C)Mitral valve-permits one-way blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle
D)Aortic valve-permits one-way blood flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary trunk
Q2) Name the layers of the heart from the inside out.
A)Myocardium, endocardium, epicardium, fibrous pericardium, pericardial cavity, parietal pericardium
B)Fibrous pericardium, parietal pericardium, pericardial cavity, epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
C)Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium, pericardial cavity, parietal pericardium, fibrous pericardium
D)Endocardium, myocardium, epicardium, pericardial cavity, parietal pericardium, fibrous pericardium
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Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A vaccine against HIV
A)is available for those who can afford it.
B)may be impossible due to the variability and diversity of HIV.
C)consists of cocktails of drugs taken daily.
D)prevents opportunistic infections.
Q2) As a result of the allergen-antibody reaction, mast cells release histamine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The tissues of the spleen are called
A)red and white pulp.
B)black and blue pulp.
C)tonsils and Peyer's patches.
D)cellular and fibrous.
Q4) Tissue fluid is ________ and lymph is ________.
A)forced out of lymph vessels; absorbed into lymph capillaries
B)forced out of blood plasma; absorbed into blood capillaries
C)forced out of lymph capillaries; absorbed into blood capillaries
D)forced out of blood plasma; absorbed into lymph capillaries
Q5) Lymph is ________ that has entered a lymphatic capillary.
Q6) Disease-causing agents such as viruses and bacteria are called ________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholecystokinin, a hormone released from intestinal mucosa as a result of stimulation by the presence of fats in the small intestine, stimulates the gallbladder to contract and release bile into the duodenum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Gallstones may form if
A)bile is too concentrated.
B)hepatic cells secrete too much HCl.
C)the pH of the gallbladder becomes too alkaline.
D)the liver is lacerated.
Q3) Stomach cells secrete gastrin which functions to
A)inhibit the production of hydrochloric acid.
B)increase the secretion by the gastric glands.
C)change pepsin into pepsinogen.
D)stimulate contraction the stomach.
Q4) Chylomicrons transport dietary fats to ________ through the blood.
A)bones and cartilage
B)neurons and neuroglia
C)the liver and gallbladder
D)muscle and adipose cells
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cyanocobalamin is found exclusively in plants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Excess potassium
A)is deposited in the blood.
B)causes brittle bones.
C)disrupts body pH.
D)is excreted in urine.
Q3) A protein deficiency may be accompanied by edema because of
A)a decrease in plasma proteins and therefore a decrease in colloid osmotic pressure.
B)an increase in blood pressure.
C)vasodilation of capillaries throughout the body.
D)lack of sufficient water in the diet.
Q4) The B vitamins are
A)all produced by the body and non-essential.
B)involved in the oxidation of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.
C)lipid-soluble.
D)amino acids.
Q5) Proteins are digested into ________.
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Chapter 19: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The partial pressure of oxygen that stimulates the respiratory areas is ________ of normal.
A)33%
B)50%
C)67%
D)80%
Q2) Air entering the potential space of the pleural cavity is called A)pneumonia.
B)pneumothorax.
C)pulmonary ventilation.
D)internal respiration.
Q3) Cancer that originates in the lungs is most likely to begin in A)epithelial cells.
B)smooth muscle cells.
C)dense connective tissue cells.
D)hyaline cartilage cells.
Q4) In a mixture of gases, each gas creates a pressure called its ________.
Q5) The organs of the upper respiratory tract are located outside the thorax.
A)True
B)False
21
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Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once in the glomerular capsule, the filtrate moves into the A)renal pelvis.
B)minor calyx.
C)renal tubule.
D)ureter.
Q2) A renal corpuscle includes the
A)glomerulus and glomerular capsule.
B)glomerulus and renal tubule.
C)glomerular capsule and renal tubule.
D)renal tubule and collecting tubule.
Q3) The countercurrent mechanism functions primarily in the A)renal corpuscle.
B)proximal convoluted tubule.
C)distal convoluted tubule
D)nephron loop.
Q4) The ________ is the tube that conveys urine outside the body.
A)ureter
B)urethra
C)collecting duct
D)nephron loop
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lara had a gastric band placed around her stomach, which makes it smaller and able to hold less. How will this affect her thirst?
A)Her thirst is more difficult to satisfy.
B)No aspect of her thirst mechanism is altered.
C)Less water intake is needed to satisfy her thirst.
D)She will continue to be thirsty after drinking.
Q2) Prolonged vomiting, in which only the stomach contents are lost, leads to
A)respiratory acidosis.
B)respiratory alkalosis.
C)metabolic acidosis.
D)metabolic alkalosis.
Q3) Metabolic alkalosis may be caused by
A)prolonged vomiting of only stomach contents.
B)respiratory obstructions.
C)pneumonia.
D)prolonged diarrhea.
Q4) The part of the brain that helps regulate hydrogen ion concentrations is the ________ center.
Q5) An arterial blood pH above 7.45 is called ________.
Q6) An arterial blood pH below 7.35 is called ________.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man is exposed to a virus which specifically targets and kills sustentacular cells (Sertoli cells). What effect will this have on spermatogenesis?
A)Spermatogenic cells will starve and cease development because they won't receive the nutrients or support they need.
B)Sperm cells will not mature because spermiogenesis will not occur after meiosis.
C)Spermatogonia will not be stimulated to divide because of lack of testosterone secretion.
D)Mature sperm won't be loaded with enough ATP to fuel flagellar movement.
Q2) The glands in a lobe of a breast
A)drain into alveolar ducts, which drain into a lactiferous duct that leads to the nipple.
B)lead directly to a nipple.
C)drain into a lactiferous duct which drains into an alveolar duct that leads to the nipple.
D)are separated by muscle tissue.
Q3) The testes originate from tissues posterior to the parietal pleura.
A)True
B)False
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Pregnancy, Growth, and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amniotic fluid
A)stores nutrients for the fetus.
B)absorbs wastes the fetus excretes.
C)protects the embryo against being jarred by movements.
D)provides nutrients to the fetus from the maternal part of the placenta.
Q2) In an adult heart, the previous location of the foramen ovale is marked by a depression called the ________.
Q3) The fertilized ovum is also called a(n)________.
Q4) Thalidomide is a drug used to treat leprosy. If given to a pregnant woman, it also can cause
A)fetal alcohol syndrome.
B)fetal limb defects.
C)mental retardation.
D)bacterial infection.
Q5) If a pregnant woman becomes infected with the Varicella (chicken pox)virus during the embryonic stage, the fetus can develop eye problems, mental retardation, and delayed growth. The Varicella virus is a(n)________.
Q6) The process of growing old is called ________.
Q7) In the day or two before milk secretion begins, the breasts secrete ________.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Genetics and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic information passes from protein to RNA to DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A human male is hemizygous for genes on the X chromosome because he has two copies of that chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The processes that pass genetic information from generation to generation are
A)mitosis and fertilization.
B)meiosis and fertilization.
C)mitosis and meiosis.
D)interactions of DNA and the environment.
Q4) A baby has three copies of each chromosome in every cell. She is A)euploid.
B)aneuploid.
C)diploid.
D)polyploid.
Q5) Genes determine all of our characteristics.
A)True
B)False
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