Physical Therapy Assistant Clinical Practice
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Physical Therapy Assistant Clinical Practice is a hands-on course designed to provide students with real-world experience in physical therapy settings under the supervision of licensed physical therapists. The course focuses on the practical application of therapeutic techniques, patient communication, documentation, and safety protocols. Students will develop proficiency in assisting with treatment plans, utilizing rehabilitation equipment, and supporting patients in restoring and improving physical function. This clinical experience aims to bridge classroom learning with professional practice, preparing students to meet the ethical and professional standards required for a successful career as a physical therapy assistant.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology for the Physical Therapist Assistant 1st Edition by Catherine C. Goodman
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37 Chapters
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Concepts of Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Preventive medicine is categorized as primary,secondary,or tertiary.Primary prevention is characterized by which of the following?
A) regular exercise to prevent osteoporosis
B) skin test for tuberculosis
C) colonoscopy for colon cancer
D) radiation for localized cancer
Answer: A
Q2) Using the International Classification of Functioning,Disability,and Health (ICF)classification system,which of the following would be defined as the execution of specific tasks or actions?
A) activity
B) activity limitations
C) participation
D) participation restrictions
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Problems Affecting Multiple Systems
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Q1) Excessive sweating can lead to __________.
A) hyperkalemia
B) hypercalcemia
C) hypernatremia
D) hypocalcemia
Answer: C
Q2) Which NSAID is the most powerful anticoagulant agent?
A) aspirin
B) Vioxx
C) ibuprofen
D) naproxen
Answer: A
Q3) What is the most serious side effect of long-term use of glucocorticoids?
A) hyperglycemia
B) fluid retention
C) GI irritation
D) increased susceptibility to infection
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Injury, Inflammation, and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first step in tissue healing?
A) hemostasis
B) inflammation
C) proliferation
D) remodeling
Answer: A
Q2) Free radical toxicity in what portion of the brain is most likely to lead to Parkinson's disease?
A) hippocampus
B) temporal lobe
C) thalamus
D) substantia nigra
Answer: D
Q3) Ischemia at the cellular level will lead to all of the following except:
A) loss of aerobic metabolism
B) release of exotoxin
C) cell swelling
D) decreased delivery of nutrients
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Immune System
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Q1) A patient in the acute stages of fibromyalgia begins physical therapy intervention.Which of the following would be an appropriate exercise prescription for this patient?
A) long low-load exercises of 30 minutes or more
B) short, intense exercise sessions
C) 5 to 10 minutes of low-load exercise
D) 30 minutes of upper body ergometer
Q2) AIDS is characterized by the ____________.
A) development of tuberculosis
B) development of Hodgkin's disease
C) destruction of T cell immunity
D) destruction of neutrophils
Q3) Which of the following can contribute to primary immunodeficiency?
A) steroid therapy
B) AIDS
C) radiation
D) inherited immunodeficiency
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Chapter 5: Infectious Disease
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Q1) Physical therapist assistants should be immunized against many diseases.Which of the following diseases requires an immunization injection each year?
A) hepatitis B
B) influenza
C) measles
D) tetanus
Q2) According to the Centers for Disease Control (CDC),when is it essential to wash hands with soap and water?
A) before putting on latex gloves
B) after removing latex gloves
C) after the hands are visibly soiled with body fluid
D) after routine contact with a patient
Q3) Postherpetic neuralgia (PHN)is most often seen after what condition?
A) chicken pox
B) shingles
C) herpes simplex type 1
D) herpes simplex type 2
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Oncology
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Q1) Weakness in what part of the body is often associated with small cell carcinoma paraneoplastic syndrome?
A) proximal upper extremities
B) distal upper extremities
C) proximal lower extremities
D) distal lower extremities
Q2) Excessive alcohol consumption is associated with cancer of all of the following structures except which one?
A) stomach
B) mouth
C) pharynx
D) larynx
Q3) What type of tissue biopsy takes a slice of the lesion but does not attempt to remove the entire pathologic structure?
A) fluid aspiration
B) incisional biopsy
C) needle biopsy
D) excisional biopsy
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8
Chapter 7: The Integumentary System
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Q1) What skin condition can be defined as a vascular reaction of the skin marked by the appearance of smooth slightly elevated patches?
A) pruritus
B) urticaria
C) eczema
D) blisters
Q2) Which of the following is an uncommon clinical manifestation of polymyositis and dermatomyositis?
A) weight loss
B) general malaise
C) pain
D) cardiac involvement
Q3) What is the most commonly recognized skin manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus?
A) discoid lesions
B) venostasis ulcers
C) butterfly rash over the nose
D) rash on the posterior surface of the elbow
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9
Chapter 8: The Endocrine and Metabolic Systems
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Q1) Hyperparathyroidism results in which of the following conditions?
A) hypercalcemia
B) hypocalcemia
C) hypernatremia
D) hyponatremia
Q2) Which of the following is the typical presentation of type I diabetes?
A) Onset of the disease is gradual.
B) It occurs mostly in obese individuals.
C) Insulin production is above normal.
D) It occurs mostly in individuals under 20 years of age.
Q3) A deficiency of aldosterone will cause ____________.
A) decreased calcium excretion
B) orthostatic hypotension
C) decreased cardiac output based on the rational this is also correct
D) hyperglycemia
Q4) How do the cells in the Islet of Langerhans help to control blood sugar levels?
A) lowering blood glucose levels
B) producing somatostatin
C) producing and releasing insulin
D) increasing blood glucose
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Chapter 9: The Cardiovascular System
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Q1) What single intervention against coronary artery disease has the ability to influence the greatest number of risk factors?
A) statin drugs
B) smoking cessation
C) exercise
D) low dose aspirin daily
Q2) Which of the following is a symptom of coronary microvascular disease?
A) crushing chest pain
B) depression
C) cold sweat
D) nausea
Q3) What is the drug of choice for an acute angina attack?
A) sublingual nitroglycerin
B) aspirin
C) statin drugs
D) ACE inhibitors
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Chapter 10: The Hematologic System
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Q1) In secondary hemostasis,tissue factor is triggered when there is vascular damage.Tissue factor is not found in which of the following structures?
A) the brain
B) smooth muscle
C) skeletal muscle
D) epithelium
Q2) What type of leukemia is most common in children?
A) acute myelogenous leukemia
B) chronic lymphocytic leukemia
C) chronic myeloid leukemia
D) acute lymphoblastic leukemia
Q3) Which of the following activities would be considered dangerous for someone diagnosed with hemophilia?
A) swimming
B) bicycling
C) racquetball
D) martial arts
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Chapter 11: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following conditions is defined as a pathologic accumulation of air in lung tissues?
A) asthma
B) emphysema
C) chronic bronchitis
D) acute bronchitis
Q2) ____________________ pneumonia is often caused by a depressed central nervous system.
A) fungal
B) viral
C) aspiration
D) bacterial
Q3) Upon review of a medical chart,a physical therapist assistant (PTA)finds a patient has a PaO of 90 mm Hg.From this information alone,the PTA should expect which of the following?
A) The patient will complain of lightheadedness.
B) The patient will have marked confusion.
C) The patient is possibly experiencing cardiac arrest.
D) This is a normal finding.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Hepatic, Pancreatic, and Biliary Systems
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Q1) The PTA is providing intervention for a patient in the hospital diagnosed with acute pancreatitis.The patient asks the PTA what positions may relieve the abdominal pain.Which of the following is incorrect advice to give this patient?
A) Lean forward while sitting.
B) Sit straight up.
C) Use the spine position with the legs extended.
D) Lie on the left side in a fetal-flexed position.
Q2) The PTA is beginning intervention for a patient in the inpatient setting.The patient is diagnosed with ascites secondary to liver cirrhosis.What is the most effective treatment option for this patient?
A) liver transplant
B) antibiotics
C) sodium restriction
D) diuretic use
Q3) What type of cancer has the lowest 5-year survival rate?
A) hepatic cancer
B) pancreatic cancer
C) lung cancer
D) Hodgkin's lymphoma
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Introduction to Pathology of the
Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) Which of the following types of bone fractures is unique to children?
A) greenstick fracture
B) compression fracture
C) avulsion fracture
D) physeal plate fracture
Q2) Loss of muscle function as we age can be attributable to all of the following except which one?
A) decreased glucose uptake
B) decreased total fiber
C) decreased muscle fiber size
D) decreased high threshold motor units
Q3) What is the primary objective of the vascular response to injury?
A) to bring white blood cells to the area
B) to bring red blood cells to the area
C) to bring platelets to the area
D) to promote bleeding
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Chapter 14: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Q1) What type of muscular dystrophy has the most rapid progression?
A) Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
B) Becker's muscular dystrophy
C) facioscapulohumeral dystrophy
D) limb-girdle muscular dystrophy
Q2) Why do many clients with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy exhibit increased lumbar lordosis?
A) quadriceps weakness
B) hip abductor weakness
C) abdominal and hip extensor weakness
D) tight iliopsoas muscles
Q3) What is the most common type of scoliosis?
A) idiopathic
B) osteopathic
C) myopathic
D) neuropathic
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Chapter 15: Infectious Diseases of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) Which of the following is indicative of mechanical loosening of a prosthetic joint?
A) a wound over the surgical incision with drainage
B) constant joint pain
C) x-ray of the proximal component of the total joint with pathology
D) complaints of pain accompanied by fever
Q2) Which of the following tests is the most accurate in detecting early osteomyelitis?
A) x-ray
B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C) blood test for white blood count
D) culture of the suspected aspirate
Q3) A child presents to the physician with complaints of low back pain.The physician suspects either vertebral osteomyelitis or diskitis.What test is essential for this differential diagnosis?
A) plain film radiography
B) bone scans
C) MRI
D) cultures of blood and disk tissue
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Chapter 16: Musculoskeletal Neoplasms
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Q1) Which of the following is the current treatment of choice for osteosarcoma?
A) radiation
B) chemotherapy
C) amputation
D) surgical removal of the primary tumor
Q2) What is the most common site of metastases for individuals with extremity sarcomas?
A) other bone sites
B) lung
C) liver
D) stomach
Q3) Which of the following bones is least likely to develop osteosarcoma?
A) vertebra
B) femur
C) humerus
D) tibia
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Chapter 17: Bone, Joint, and Soft Tissue Diseases and Disorders
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Q1) What is the most common presenting symptom in Paget's disease?
A) fatigue
B) tendonitis
C) pain
D) general stiffness
Q2) At what stage of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease does new bone replace necrotic bone?
A) stage I
B) stage II
C) stage III
D) stage IV
Q3) Which of the following diagnostic tools is the most sensitive to pathologic fractures?
A) x-rays
B) computed tomography (CT) scan
C) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D) bone scan
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Central Nervous System Disorders
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Q1) Almost all communication between neurons occurs via what process?
A) electrical
B) mechanical
C) chemical
D) gravity dependent
Q2) What part of the cerebellum controls gait and dynamic standing balance?
A) anterior lobe
B) spinocerebellum
C) vestibulocerebellum
D) cerebrocerebellum
Q3) What type of cells are the most numerous cells in the brain?
A) oligodendrocyte
B) Schwann
C) microglia
D) astrocytes
Q4) Which of the following amines is involved in the control of mood and anxiety?
A) serotonin
B) acetylcholine
C) dopamine
D) norepinephrine
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Chapter 19: Infectious Disorders of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Which type of encephalitis is rapidly progressive with lesions in the basal ganglia?
A) West Nile virus
B) Saint Louis encephalitis
C) Eastern equine encephalitis
D) California virus encephalitis
Q2) What test is considered the gold standard for the diagnosis of meningitis?
A) computed tomography (CT) scan
B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C) bone scan
D) lumbar puncture
Q3) Which of the following bacteria would most likely cause bacterial meningitis in the adult and geriatric populations?
A)E.coli
B) Group B streptococcus
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Listeria monocytogenes
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Chapter 20: Degenerative Diseases of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following is considered a sign of dementia rather than a normal sign of aging?
A) periodic minor memory lapses
B) unpredictable mood changes
C) increasingly cautious behavior
D) normal sense of smell
Q2) What is the most common type of dementia?
A) Pick's disease
B) Lewy body dementia
C) Alzheimer's disease
D) frontotemporal dementia
Q3) Which of the following symptoms is indicative of late stage HD?
A) normal muscle strength
B) day time sleeping and night time restlessness
C) mild dysarthria
D) minor choreic movements
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Chapter 21: Stroke
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Q1) What test is widely accepted as the method of diagnostic choice for strokes?
A) computed tomography (CT) scan
B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C) positron emission tomography (PET) imaging
D) cerebral angiography
Q2) What is the primary cause of stroke?
A) hypertension
B) trauma
C) cerebral vascular disease
D) hyperglycemia
Q3) What is the test of choice for an individual suspected of a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)?
A) MRI
B) CT scan
C) PET scan
D) lumbar puncture
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Chapter 22: Traumatic Brain Injury
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Q1) After a severe concussion,a football player has difficulty with visual-spatial processing.Where did this lesion most likely occur?
A) left side cortical area
B) right side cortical area
C) amygdala area
D) brainstem
Q2) Contusions of the brain are most likely to occur with which type of blow?
A) frontal
B) lateral
C) occipital
D) inferior
Q3) Which of the following would not be associated with frontal lobe pathology?
A) loss of verbal fluency
B) left quadriceps atrophy
C) slowed speed of cognitive processing
D) depression
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Chapter 23: Traumatic Spinal Cord Injury
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Q1) What medication is usually given to SCI-injured patients at the emergency department immediately after injury?
A) aspirin
B) Dilantin
C) Xanax
D) methylprednisolone
Q2) Excessive ______________ is responsible for most spinal cord injuries.
A) flexion
B) extension
C) rotation
D) lateral flexion
Q3) Which of the following procedures is considered neuroaugmentative?
A) deafferentation
B) epidural spinal stimulation
C) interruption of ascending pain systems
D) destruction of cells in the dorsal horn
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Chapter 24: Cerebral Palsy
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Q1) Appropriate positioning in a wheelchair has been shown to improve several aspects of a child's functional ability with CP.Which of the following will not be improved with appropriate positioning?
A) increase in vital capacity
B) improve performance on cognitive testing
C) increase extensor tone
D) encourage smoother and faster reach
Q2) A 14-year-old with cerebral palsy is able to participate in some physical activities and sports.What level has this child achieved according to the GMFCS?
A) level I
B) level II
C) level III
D) level IV
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement regarding muscle dysfunction in CP?
A) Both hypertrophy and atrophy can be present in a child diagnosed with CP.
B) There is an increase in number of sarcomeres per muscle fiber.
C) Muscle will grow faster than bone.
D) There will be a decrease in fat and fibrous tissue and an increase in blood flow to muscles.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: The Peripheral Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following is the least common symptom of a paraneoplastic neuropathy?
A) weakness
B) burning and aching
C) numbness
D) paresthesia
Q2) Which of the following will show a complete interference pattern with maximal contraction on electromyogram (EMG)?
A) normal innervation
B) segmental demyelination
C) axonal degeneration
D) myopathy
Q3) Disruption of which cranial nerve will result in Bell's palsy?
A) trochlear
B) trigeminal
C) facial
D) vagus
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Chapter 26: Behavioral, Social, and Environmental Factors
Contributing to Disease and Dysfunction
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Q1) Which field of medicine deals with disease caused by contaminants?
A) geographic pathology
B) occupational disease
C) environmental pathology
D) idiopathic disease
Q2) What hormone is released in women as a part of stress response that buffers the "fight-or-flight" response?
A) testosterone
B) parathyroid hormone
C) oxytocin
D) estrogen
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding the differences between men and women?
A) Men's hearts beat faster than women's.
B) Men's brains are larger than women's.
C) Women have less brain cells than men.
D) Men generally experience better health than women.
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Chapter 27: The Psychosocial-Spiritual Impact on Health Care
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Q1) What is the most common drug abuse problem in the United States?
A) marijuana
B) alcoholism
C) cocaine
D) heroin
Q2) Obesity is associated with which of the following disorders of eating?
A) binge-eating disorder
B) anorexia nervosa
C) bulimia nervosa
D) muscle dysmorphia
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement regarding tobacco use?
A) Smoking appears to contribute to increased fibroblast accumulation in some wounds.
B) Smokers are at decreased risk of developing diabetes.
C) Nicotine will decrease concentration for people with attention deficit disorder (ADD).
D) Smoking will lower blood pressure.
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Chapter 28: Environmental and Occupational Medicine
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Q1) Which of the following structures is not well developed in infants and puts them at greater risk for developing central nervous system (CNS)complications from environmental contaminants?
A) surfactant in the lungs
B) blood-brain barrier
C) epiphyseal plates
D) neural tube
Q2) Where is lead primarily stored in the body?
A) blood
B) bone
C) renal system
D) skin
Q3) Which of the following allergic reactions to latex is caused by sensitization to the proteins in natural rubber latex?
A) immediate hypersensitivity
B) horizontal cracks of the skin
C) irritation contact dermatitis
D) mild to severe allergic contact dermatitis
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Chapter 29: The Gastrointestinal System
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Q1) Which of the following is considered a mechanical cause of intestinal obstruction?
A) ulcer
B) stricture
C) volvulus
D) gall stones
Q2) What type of hernia occurs when a sac formed from the peritoneum and intestines pushes outward through the abdominal wall?
A) sports hernia
B) inguinal hernia
C) femoral hernia
D) umbilical hernia
Q3) Which of the following is not considered a major cause of upper GI bleeding?
A) major trauma or systemic illness
B) peptic ulcers
C) chronic alcohol abuse
D) failure of the lower esophageal sphincter
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Chapter 30: The Renal and Urologic Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is a true statement regarding chronic kidney disease and exercise?
A) It is best to exercise on nondialysis days
B) The most important independent quality of life predictor is the usual level of exercise activity.
C) People on dialysis have a higher maximum metabolic equivalent (MET) level than the corresponding age-matched population.
D) Individuals with chronic renal disease will benefit from stationary bicycle exercise at 80% to 90% of target heart rate.
Q2) Which of the following types of renal calculi is caused by recurrent bacterial UTIs?
A) calcium stones
B) struvite stones
C) uric acid stones
D) cystine stones
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Chapter 31: Central Nervous System Neoplasms
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Q1) Primitive neuroectodermal tumors are frequent in which of the following patient populations?
A) children
B) middled-age men
C) middled-age women
D) elderly
Q2) What is the typical frequency and duration of radiation therapy following a brain tumor?
A) 2 times a week for 23 to 25 weeks
B) 5 times a week for 23 to 25 weeks
C) 2 times a week for 34 to 36 weeks
D) 5 times a week for 34 to 36 weeks
Q3) What type of tumor in the CNS originates from myelin-producing cells?
A) astrocytoma
B) meningioma
C) ependymoma
D) oligodendroglioma
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33
Chapter 32: Epilepsy
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Q1) Which of the following will not increase seizure activity in people with epilepsy?
A) aspirin
B) caffeine
C) amphetamines
D) some asthma drugs
Q2) Most complex partial seizures arise from what area of the brain?
A) frontal lobe
B) parietal lobe
C) temporal lobe
D) occipital lobe
Q3) Which type of epileptic syndrome is characterized by aphasia in the absence of other neurologic abnormalities?
A) Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
B) benign childhood epilepsy
C) juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
D) Landau-Kleffner syndrome
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Chapter 33: Headache
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Q1) An acutely ill patient with high fever complains of a severe headache with radiation into the neck.This patient also has a positive Kernig's sign.What is the most likely pathologic condition?
A) subdural hematoma
B) subarachnoid hemorrhage
C) increased cranial pressure
D) meningitis
Q2) Chronically low levels of what neurotransmitter are found in individuals with migraine?
A) acetylcholine
B) epinephrine
C) serotonin
D) norepinephrine
Q3) Which of the following cranial nerves is often associated with the distribution of pain during migraine headache?
A) cranial nerve V
B) cranial nerve VI
C) cranial nerve VII
D) cranial nerve VIII
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Page 35
Chapter 34: The Male Genital or Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following is a contraindication for pharmacologic treatment of erectile dysfunction with medications such as Viagra?
A) diabetes mellitus
B) heart disease
C) hypothyroidism
D) chronic alcoholism
Q2) A peak urinary flow rate of less than __________ is suggestive of urethral obstruction.
A) 10 mL/sec
B) 15 mL/sec
C) 20 mL/sec
D) 25 mL/sec
Q3) What is the primary lymphatic and vascular drainage system of the testis?
A) cervical
B) supraclavicular
C) axillary
D) retroperitoneal
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Chapter 35: The Female Genital or Reproductive System
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Q1) Where are most cancers found in the breast in women?
A) upper lateral quadrant
B) upper medial quadrant
C) lower lateral quadrant
D) lower medial quadrant
Q2) Which of the following is a primary cause of cervical cancer?
A) herpes simplex virus
B) human papilloma virus
C) gonorrhea
D) smoking
Q3) When should physical therapy intervention begin and drains be removed from the surgical site after mastectomy?
A) 2 hours postoperatively
B) 1 day postoperatively
C) 3 days postoperatively
D) 5 days postoperatively
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Chapter 36: Vestibular Disorders
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Q1) What is the primary blood supply to the components of the vestibular system?
A) posterior cerebellar artery
B) inferior cerebellar artery
C) Circle of Willis
D) vertebral basilar artery
Q2) Permanent damage to which cranial nerve can result from malignant external otitis?
A) cranial nerve V
B) cranial nerve VI
C) cranial nerve VII
D) cranial nerve VIII
Q3) A perilymph fistula is an abnormal communication of what two anatomic areas/structures?
A) inner ear and auditory nerve
B) inner ear and middle ear
C) middle ear and cochlea
D) cochlea and external auditory canal
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Chapter 37: Laboratory Tests and Values
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Q1) Which of the following is the maximal volume of air that can be expired after a normal inspiration?
A) Vital capacity
B) Inspiratory capacity
C) Expiratory reserve volume
D) Inspiratory reserve volume
Q2) Which of the following lab values in a full lipid profile is considered very high?
A) LDL 160 mg/dL
B) HDL 75 dg/dL
C) Total cholesterol 250 mg/dL
D) Triglycerides 150 mg/dL
Q3) What is the appropriate PT/INR range for treatment of DVT?
A) 1.5-2.5
B) 2-3
C) 2.5-3.5
D) 3.5-4.5
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