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Course Introduction
Physical Therapy Anatomy provides a comprehensive exploration of human anatomical structures with a focus on those most relevant to physical therapy practice. This course examines the musculoskeletal, nervous, and cardiopulmonary systems, emphasizing the functional relationships between anatomical structures and human movement. Students will develop a detailed understanding of bones, muscles, joints, nerves, and connective tissues, relating anatomical knowledge to clinical assessments and therapeutic interventions. Laboratory experiences and case studies are incorporated to reinforce learning and support the practical application of anatomical concepts in patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy 7th Edition by Frederic
H. Martini
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Q1) Label C: ______________________________
Answer: Organ level
Q2) Atoms interacting to form components with distinctive properties in the body show organization at the tissue level.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Gross anatomy uses magnification in order to better visualize structures.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The anatomical term for ankle is tarsus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) Posterior and ventral mean the same thing.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Peripheral proteins are attached to the surface of the plasmalemma, while ________ proteins are embedded within the membrane.
Answer: integral
Q2) If a cell lacked centrioles, it would be unable to
A)direct the movement of chromosomes during cell division.
B)move through the surrounding fluid.
C)replicate its own DNA.
D)manufacture proteins.
E)move fluids or solutes across the plasmalemma.
Answer: A
Q3) How does the structure of a tight junction differ from that of an anchoring junction
Answer: At a tight junction the lipid portions of the opposing plasmalemmas are tightly bound together by interlocking membrane proteins, providing the strongest of intercellular connections; at a anchoring junction, the two plasmalemmas remain distinct but are powerfully attached by CAMs (cell adhesion molecules)and a layer of proteoglycans (intercellular cement), with a dense area of layered proteins inside each plasmalemma reinforcing the junction and binding it to the cell's cytoskeleton.
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Q1) Which of the following exclusively describes stratified epithelia
A)They consist of a single cell layer.
B)They always have a free surface exposed to some inner chamber or passageway.
C)They are avascular.
D)They cover surfaces subjected to mechanical and chemical stress.
E)None of the answers are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) If the ground substance of a connective tissue were thinner than normal, one could reasonably suspect that the fibroblasts were not secreting enough ________.
Answer: hyaluronan
Q3) Label B: ______________________________
Answer: Duct
Q4) How do cartilage and bone differ in their response to stress
Answer: Compared with bone, cartilage has a greater ability to bend and is capable of resisting a large amount of distortion without breaking; however, it has less overall strength. In contrast, though much stronger, bone breaks readily when sufficiently stressed.
Q5) Label F: ______________________________
Answer: Basal lamina
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Q1) Modified sweat glands that secrete earwas are called ________ glands.
Q2) The outermost, tough portion of a hair shaft is the A)cortex.
B)cuticle.
C)medulla.
D)soft keratin.
E)external root sheath.
Q3) Label B: ______________________________
Q4) Label K: ______________________________
Q5) Label R: ______________________________
Q6) A sebaceous follicle secretes oil directly onto skin surface. A)True
B)False
Q7) Label C: ______________________________
Q8) Label I: ______________________________
Q9) Label H: ______________________________
Q10) Label J: ______________________________
Q11) Label S : ______________________________
Q12) Label C: ______________________________ Page 6
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Q1) Label O: ______________________________
Q2) Label AA: ______________________________
Q3) The metaphysis is the tubular shaft of a long bone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Label O: ______________________________
Q5) Label E: ______________________________
Q6) Perforating canals (canals of Volkmann)
A)are arranged parallel to the surface of the bone.
B)are always associated with osteons in spongy bone.
C)transmit blood vessels to osteons deep inside the bone.
D)occur in growing juvenile bone, but are obliterated in adult bone.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q7) Increased levels of calcium in the blood in a pregnant woman would stimulate the secretion of
A)calcitonin.
B)calcitriol.
C)parathyroid hormone.
D)thyroid hormone.
E)growth hormone. Page 8
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Q1) Label W: ______________________________
Q2) The sphenoid bone contains the foramen rotundum and superior orbital fissure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Label G: ______________________________
Q4) The bony structure of the orbit is composed of which of the following
A)maxilla, zygomatic, lacrimal, and palatine only
B)ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, lacrimal, maxilla, zygomatic, and palatine
C)zygomatic, nasal, frontal, and sphenoid only
D)zygomatic, nasal, frontal, sphenoid, palatine, lacrimal, and temporal
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q5) Label H: ______________________________
Q6) The lowest section of the vertebral column is the sacrum.
A)True B)False
Q7) CPR involves forcefully depressing the sternum.
A)True B)False

Page 10
Q8) Label H: ______________________________
Q9) Label C: ______________________________
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Q1) Label R: ______________________________
Q2) Label CC: ______________________________
Q3) Label T: ______________________________
Q4) Label C: ______________________________
Q5) Label T: ______________________________
Q6) Label S: ______________________________
Q7) The curve of the foot that runs from the calcaneus to the phalanges is the ________.
Q8) Label I: ______________________________
Q9) Label F: ______________________________
Q10) Label W: ______________________________
Q11) Label U: ______________________________
Q12) The connection between the humerus and the scapula is called the ________ joint.
Q13) The pelvis
A)is a composite structure.

Page 12
B)contains bones from both the axial and the appendicular skeleton.
C)protects pelvic organs.
D)is dramatically different in males and females.
E)All of the answers are correct.
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Q1) Pronation and supination occur at the A)elbow.
B)proximal radioulnar joint. C)hip.
D)ankle. E)knee.
Q2) Label X: ______________________________
Q3) A joint with a cavity filled with fluid is called a ________ joint.
Q4) The thick fibrocartilage pad in the TMJ is called a bursa. A)True B)False
Q5) Label N: ______________________________
Q6) Label F: ______________________________
Q7) Label B: ______________________________
Q8) Label Y: ______________________________
Q9) Label A: ______________________________
Q10) Label O: ______________________________
Q11) Label M: ______________________________
Q12) Label D: ______________________________ Page 14
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Q1) Label B: ______________________________
Q2) Label A: ______________________________
Q3) Label S: ______________________________
Q4) Label S: ______________________________
Q5) Describe the arrangement within a myofibril.
Q6) The connective tissue surrounding a bundle of muscle fibers is called A)endomysium.
B)epimysium.
C)perimysium.
D)a tendon.
E)an aponeurosis.
Q7) Label H: ______________________________
Q8) Each skeletal muscle fiberis controlled by a single
A)synaptic terminal.
B)motor end plate.
C)transverse tubule.
D)neuromuscular synapse.
E)brain cell.

Page 16
Q9) Label Q: ______________________________
Q10) How are oxygen and nutrients supplied to the tissues of a muscle
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Q1) Label G: ______________________________
Q2) Label T: ______________________________
Q3) Which muscle has three attachments to bone
A)sternocleidomastoid
B)sternohyoid
C)thyrohyoid
D)mylohyoid
E)stylohyoid
Q4) A muscle that elevates the corner of the mouth and draws it laterally is the ________ muscle.
Q5) Why are there so few spinal flexors, when there are a large number of different extensor groups
Q6) Label A: ______________________________
Q7) How do the muscles of the urogenital triangle control the functions of this area
Q8) Label UU: ______________________________
Q9) Label ZZ: ______________________________
Q10) What specific structural characteristic makes voluntary control of urination possible
Q11) Label R: ______________________________
Q12) Label AA: ______________________________ Page 18
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Q1) Label M: ______________________________
Q2) Label H: ______________________________
Q3) Label C: ______________________________
Q4) Label P: ______________________________
Q5) Label R: ______________________________
Q6) The forearm muscles that provide strength and gross control of the hand and fingers are (the)
A)flexors of the hand.
B)extrinsic muscles of the hand.
C)intrinsic muscles of the hand.
D)carpal tunnel muscles of the hand.
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q7) The major groups of appendicular muscles include those of (the)
A)vertebral column.
B)posterior cervical region.
C)shoulder and upper limb region.
D)pelvic girdle and lower limbs.
E)shoulder, pelvis, and upper and lower limbs.
Q8) Label M: ______________________________ Page 20
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Q1) Label E: ______________________________
Q2) Label H: ______________________________
Q3) Label N: ______________________________
Q4) Label O: ______________________________
Q5) Label V: ______________________________
Q6) Flexing the arm slightly while simultaneously clenching the fist will cause the ________ on the surface of the biceps brachii to bulge.
A)cephalic vein
B)median antebrachial vein
C)median cubital vein
D)radial artery
E)brachial artery
Q7) If venipuncture is performed improperly, the ________ is most likely to be damaged.
A)radial artery
B)tendon of the biceps brachii
C)brachioradialis
D)anconeus
E)flexor carpi radialis
Q8) Label C: ______________________________ Page 22
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Q1) Visceral sensory receptors receive information from internal organs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Label B: ______________________________
Q3) Label K: ______________________________
Q4) A group of cell bodies within the PNS is called a nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Functions of the nervous system include which of the following
A)controlling and adjusting the activities of the other systems
B)receiving input from the senses
C)stimulating muscles and glands to contract
D)integrating and processing data
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q6) Label E: ______________________________
Q7) Label J: ______________________________
Q8) A somatic motor neuron controls smooth and cardiac muscles.
A)True B)False

24
Q9) Label H: ______________________________
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following arises from the lumbar portion of the lumbosacral plexus
A)superior gluteal nerve
B)peroneal nerve
C)tibial nerve
D)pudendal nerve
E)saphenous nerve
Q2) Label C: ______________________________
Q3) Label U: ______________________________
Q4) The ventral root of a spinal nerve contains
A)axons of sensory neurons.
B)ventral rami.
C)axons of motor neurons.
D)cell bodies of motor neurons.
E)interneurons.
Q5) Label H: ______________________________
Q6) The first branch of the lumbar plexus is the ________ nerve.
Q7) Label E: ______________________________
Q8) The classification of reflexes according to their development includes innate and ________ reflexes. Page 26
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ carries information that controls muscle tone and balance.
Q2) Label C: ______________________________
Q3) Label B: ______________________________
Q4) The corticospinal tracts that synapse on motor neurons in the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord are visible as they descend along the ventral surface of the medulla as a pair of thick bands, the ________.
Q5) Label D: ______________________________
Q6) Label E: ______________________________
Q7) Sensations detected by the receptors for the lateral spinothalamic pathway include A)proprioception.
B)pressure.
C)temperature.
D)vibration.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q8) The most disproportionate area of the body in the motor homunculus is the relatively small size of the ________ compared to its actual size.
Q9) Label M: ______________________________
Q10) The fiber pathways nearest the anterior median fissure make up the ________. Page 28
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Q1) Label P: ______________________________
Q2) Label H: ______________________________
Q3) Label L: ______________________________
Q4) Label X: ______________________________
Q5) Label I: ______________________________
Q6) The posterior nuclei of the thalamus impact emotional state and integrate sensory information.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What region of the brain might be damaged if a person is unable to interpret associated words or commands even though individual words can be comprehended
A)the frontal lobes
B)the general interpretive center
C)the speech center
D)the prefrontal cortex
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q9) Label C: ______________________________ Page 30
Q8) Label B: ______________________________
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Q1) Label FF: ______________________________
Q2) The neuroeffector synapse of a postganglionic sympathetic neuron ends in a large branching network with enlarged areas called
A)synaptic knobs.
B)terminal arborizations.
C)varicosities.
D)adrenergic endplates.
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q3) Sympathetic preganglionic fibers
A)release norepinephrine.
B)innervate the body wall and skeletal muscle fibers.
C)innervate as many as thirty-two ganglionic neurons in different ganglia.
D)stimulate contraction of smooth muscle fibers.
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q4) A low light level reaching the visual receptors will trigger the pupillary reflex.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Label E: ______________________________
Q6) Label A: ______________________________
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Q1) Which of the following is true of receptors
A)Each has a characteristic sensitivity.
B)Each receptor is equally sensitive to several different types of stimuli.
C)The most complex, specific, and sensitive receptors are free nerve endings.
D)They are evenly distributed over all surfaces of the body.
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q2) The fact that we cannot sense infrared radiation is related to
A)our inability to see temperatures.
B)our range of sensitivity.
C)humans not having receptors for all types of stimuli.
D)our inability to process radiation.
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q3) The auditory ossicles connect (the)
A)tympanic membrane to the round window.
B)cochlea to the tympanic membrane.
C)cochlea to the round window.
D)tympanic membrane to the oval window.
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q4) Label E:

Page 33
Q5) How does conductive deafness differ from nerve deafness
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of positive feedback
A)release of PTH in response to low calcium levels
B)release of oxytocin in response to smooth muscle contraction in the uterus
C)release of insulin in response to low blood sugar
D)release of insulin in response to high blood sugar
E)ADH release due to low blood pressure
Q2) The thyroid gland is located just inferior to the A)trachea.
B)esophagus.
C)larynx.
D)heart.
E)spinal column.
Q3) The most important hormone produced by the pineal gland is A)renin.
B)erythropoietin.
C)melatonin.
D)somatostatin.
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q4) What is the function of the zona glomerulosa of the suprarenal cortex
Q5) Label H: ______________________________
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Q1) A college student who is constantly dieting decides to go to the dining hall, as she has no energy, is experiencing muscular weakness, and sometimes becomes dizzy upon exertion. What is the likely diagnosis, and what is the cause of this condition
Q2) Label A: ______________________________
Q3) A low red cell count could cause which of the following problems
A)impaired immune response
B)inefficient toxin removal from the tissues
C)a reduced rate of diapedesis
D)diminished transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q4) Label F: ______________________________
Q5) The waste gas taken away from all cells of the body by the blood is ________.
Q6) Children who suffer from protein starvation have bloated bellies because of ascites (an accumulation of fluid in the tissue spaces of the abdomen). How would a shortage of protein in the diet cause the condition
Q7) Solutions that can be used to increase blood volume temporarily are called
Q8) Acidophils are so named because their granules stain darkly with ________, an acidic red dye.
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Q1) The right ventricle
A)has thinner muscular walls than does the left ventricle.
B)receives blood from the left atrium through the tricuspid valve.
C)pumps blood out of the heart to the systemic circuit.
D)sends blood out through the aortic semilunar valve.
E)is connected to the pulmonary veins.
Q2) The bicuspid valve is the exit of the right ventricle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Label H: ______________________________
Q4) The ________ carries blood to and from the gas exchange surfaces of the lungs.
Q5) The visceral pericardium is also called the A)pericardial cavity.
B)parietal pericardium.
C)epicardium.
D)pericardial sac.
E)fibrous pericardium.
Q6) Label E: ______________________________
Q7) Label L: ______________________________
Q8) Label H: ______________________________
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Q1) The right common carotid artery and right subclavian arteries are branches of (the) A)thyrocervical trunk.
B)vertebral artery.
C)brachiocephalic trunk.
D)aortic arch.
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q2) Label K: ______________________________
Q3) Label D: ______________________________
Q4) The liver, stomach, and spleen are supplied by the celiac trunk.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Label W: ______________________________
Q6) After leaving the thoracic cavity and passing over the outer border of the first rib, the subclavian artery becomes the A)brachial artery.
B)radial artery.
C)clavicular artery.
D)axillary artery.
E)ulnar artery.
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Q1) Lymphoid functions of the spleen include
A)production of B and T cells.
B)maturation of T cells.
C)phagocytosis of damaged or infected cells circulating with the blood.
D)addition of many new NK cells to the circulation.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q2) The lymphatic network begins with the ________, also called terminal lymphatics.
Q3) A major role of the lymphoid system is to produce, maintain, and distribute
Q4) Label K: ______________________________
Q5) Lymphatic ________ are the smallest lymphatic vessels.
Q6) When is the thymus most active
A)from puberty to adulthood
B)during infancy and youth
C)during middle age
D)during old age
E)throughout life
Q7) Cytotoxic T cells attack foreign cells or body cells infected by viruses by direct contact, and are said to confer ________ on the body tissues they defend.
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Q1) Label N: ______________________________
Q2) Respiratory muscles that become active when the depth and frequency of respiration must be increased markedly include the
A)external and internal intercostals.
B)diaphragm.
C)sternocleidomastoid, serratus anterior, and scalenes.
D)transversus thoracis, abdominal obliques, and rectus abdominis.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Label I: ______________________________
Q4) Label P: ______________________________
Q5) Collapse of the lungs due to insufficient surfactant is called respiratory distress syndrome.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The passageway between the oral cavity and the oropharynx is (the) A)fauces.
B)palatoglossal arch.
C)palatopharyngeal arch.
D)uvula.
E)None of the answers are correct.
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Q1) The movement of organic molecules, electrolytes, vitamins, and water across the digestive epithelium and into the interstitial fluid of the digestive tract is called ________.
Q2) Large aggregate lymphoid nodules, called ________, occur in the submucosa of the ileum.
Q3) Label X: ______________________________
Q4) Shallow depressions in the wall of the stomach that contain many mucous cells are called ________.
Q5) Goblet cells produce gastrin.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ________ surfaces of the first incisors touch one another.
A)mesial
B)occlusal
C)distal
D)buccal
E)lingual
Q7) The ventral mesentery that forms the border between the right and left lobe of the liver is called the ________.
Q8) Label T: ______________________________
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Q1) Label D: ______________________________
Q2) Compared to the male urethra, the female urethra is much ________.
Q3) The urethra is ________ in the male than in the female.
Q4) Urine leaves the kidney and travels to the urinary bladder through the ________.
Q5) The ________ is internal to the renal cortex.
Q6) Label B: ______________________________
Q7) An inflammation of the urethral wall is called cystitis.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Label G: ______________________________
Q9) Urine is carried to the exterior of the body by the A)circulatory system.
B)lymphoids.
C)ureters.
D)urethra.
E)urachus.
Q10) Label K: ______________________________
Q11) Health problems that might cause an inability to control the micturition reflex in older humans include ________, Alzheimer's disease, and other CNS problems. Page 41
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Q1) Label I: ______________________________
Q2) Describe the difference between the nonpregnant uterus and one shortly prior to the birth of a baby.
Q3) Label I: ______________________________
Q4) Label R: ______________________________
Q5) The hormone that is responsible for increasing the flexibility of the pelvis and causes dilation of the cervix during birth is ________.
Q6) Erection of the penis is caused by
A)the penis filling with the semen to be ejaculated.
B)contraction of the longitudinal muscles.
C)erectile tissues that become engorged with blood.
D)protrusion of the os penis, the penis bone.
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q7) Label B: ______________________________
Q8) Which of the following is part of the male reproductive system only
A)ovaries
B)bulbo-urethral glands
C)uterus
D)uterine tubes
E)vagina
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Q1) Label M: ______________________________
Q2) The first of the extraembryonic membranes to appear, which ultimately becomes involved in blood cell formation, is (the)
A)amnion.
B)allantois.
C)chorion.
D)yolk sac.
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q3) A fetus begins to look distinctly human
A)from the point of conception.
B)at the end of the first trimester.
C)by the beginning of the second trimester.
D)for the first time, at the end of the third trimester.
E)at 8 weeks when the embryo becomes the fetus.
Q4) Label K: ______________________________
Q5) The neural groove becomes the notochord.
A)True B)False
Q6) Label U: ______________________________
Q7) Dilation, expulsion, and placental are the three stages of ________.
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