Physical Therapy Anatomy and Physiology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of human anatomy and physiology with a focus on systems relevant to physical therapy practice, including the musculoskeletal, nervous, cardiopulmonary, and integumentary systems. Students will learn the structural organization and functional mechanisms of the human body, with emphasis on how these systems interact during movement and rehabilitation. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and applied learning, the course equips future physical therapists with foundational knowledge necessary for clinical assessment, treatment planning, and the effective management of patients across diverse settings.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 11th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms refers to the foot?
A) cervical
B) brachial
C) antebrachial
D) femoral
E) pedal
Answer: E
Q2) The integrating center for the negative feedback loop that regulates body temperature is the A) hypothalamus.
B) skin.
C) temperature sensor.
D) positive feedback center.
E) thermostat.
Answer: A
Q3) Name the two upper abdominal quadrants and list the organs that lie in each.
Answer: right upper quadrant (RUQ): right lobe of liver, gallbladder, right kidney, portions of stomach, large and small intestines; left upper quadrant (LUQ): left lobe of liver, stomach, pancreas, left kidney, spleen, portions of large intestine
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the correct statement regarding the process of denaturation.
A) It is affected by low temperatures.
B) It is unaffected by changes in pH.
C) It is the loss of protein structure.
D) It is an increase in enzyme activity.
E) It results in decreased substrate availability.
Answer: C
Q2) Soluble inorganic compounds whose solutions will conduct an electric current are called
A) electrolytes.
B) ions.
C) isotopes.
D) free radicals.
E) metabolites.
Answer: A
Q3) What role do buffer systems play in the human body?
Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing hydrogen ions as needed.
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4
Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water molecules and small ions enter a cell through A) channels formed by integral membrane proteins.
B) peripheral proteins.
C) lipid channels.
D) peripheral carbohydrates.
E) defects in the lipid layer of the membrane.
Answer: A
Q2) Chromosomes consist of ________ and ________.
A) RNA; carbohydrates
B) DNA; lipids
C) DNA; proteins
D) water; RNA
E) RNA; proteins
Answer: C
Q3) Differentiate between transcription and translation.
Answer: In transcription, RNA polymerase uses the nucleotide sequence on DNA to construct a complementary strand of mRNA. In translation, ribosomes use information carried by the mRNA strand and tRNA to synthesize the corresponding polypeptide.
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an inflammatory response to injury, which of the following is the least likely in the region oftheinjury?
A) increase in basophils
B) increase in histamine
C) increase in blood flow
D) cold, pale skin
E) swelling
Q2) The fluid that lubricates movable joints is produced by
A) mucous membrane.
B) cutaneous membrane.
C) synovial membrane.
D) serous membrane.
E) plasma membrane.
Q3) Which type of tissue membrane is characteristically dry?
A) synovial
B) cutaneous
C) serous
D) mucous
E) pleural
Q4) Explain why sunburned skin peels rather than being shed as a powder.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many lipid-soluble medications can be delivered by diffusion across the skin. This process is called transdermal administration and is commonly done by applying patches that contain the medication to the surface of the skin. These patches can be attached anywhere on the skin except the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet. Why?
Q2) Skin cancer that starts in the mitotically most active epidermal layer is called
A) keratosis.
B) psoriasis.
C) squamous cell carcinoma.
D) melanoma.
E) basal cell carcinoma.
Q3) The epidermis of the skin is composed of what type of tissue?
A) keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
B) simple squamous epithelium
C) transitional epithelium
D) areolar connective tissue
E) nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
Q4) Why is scab formation important in wound healing?
Q5) Why is a subcutaneous injection with a hypodermic needle a useful method of administering drugs?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bones and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ________ fracture shatters the bone.
A) comminuted
B) greenstick
C) compression
D) transverse
E) spiral
Q2) The fracture of vertebrae subjected to extreme vertical stress is called a ________ fracture.
A) comminuted
B) greenstick
C) compression
D) transverse
E) spiral
Q3) In relationship to the diaphysis of a long bone, the osteons are
A) radial.
B) anterior.
C) parallel.
D) proximal.
E) diagonal.
Q4) What is the difference between ossification and calcification?
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton?
A) provides an attachment for muscles that move the appendicular skeleton
B) provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk
C) provides an attachment for muscles involved in breathing
D) provides protection for the brain and spinal cord
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q2) The condition in which distortions of the skull occur due to the premature closure of fontanelles is called
A) anencephaly.
B) microcephaly.
C) craniostenosis.
D) membranitis.
E) epicranial block.
Q3) The large foramen that serves as a passageway for the medulla of the brain and the accessory nerve (XI)isthe
A) foramen lacerum.
B) foramen rotundum.
C) carotid canal.
D) jugular foramen.
E) foramen magnum.
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of the
A) skull.
B) pelvis.
C) sacrum.
D) teeth.
E) thoracic cage.
Q2) Which surface feature(s) along the ilium mark(s) attachment sites for large hip muscles?
A) lunate surface
B) greater sciatic notch
C) gluteal lines
D) lesser sciatic notch
E) pubic symphysis
Q3) The distal end of the tibia articulates with the
A) talus.
B) fibula.
C) patella.
D) calcaneus.
E) navicular.
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arthritis always involves damage to the ________ cartilages, but the specific cause can vary.
A) articular
B) intervertebral
C) costal
D) elastic
E) fibrous
Q2) Ankle extension is also called
A) dorsiflexion.
B) inversion.
C) eversion.
D) plantar flexion.
E) protraction.
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid?
A) shock absorption
B) increases osmotic pressure within joint
C) lubrication
D) provides nutrients
E) protects articular cartilages
Q4) When the triceps brachii muscle contracts, what movements does it produce?
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle contraction. What is the correct sequence of these events?
1) Myosin cross-bridges bind to the actin.
2) The free myosin head splits ATP.
3) Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4) The myosin head pivots toward the center of the sarcomere.
5) Calcium ion binds to troponin.
6) The myosin head binds an ATP molecule and detaches from the actin.
A) 1, 3, 5, 4, 6, 2
B) 5, 1, 4, 6, 2, 3
C) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6
D) 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2
E) 1, 4, 6, 2, 3, 5
Q2) In which of the following would the motor units have the fewest muscle fibers?
A) muscles of the neck
B) postural muscles of the back
C) muscles that control the eyes
D) thigh muscles
E) calf muscles
Q3) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a motor unit contain?
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a type of fascicle arrangement?
A) parallel
B) palmate
C) unipennate
D) circular
E) convergent
Q2) Jill suffers a severe cut that severs the tendon that attaches the insertion of the flexor carpi ulnaris.As a result of this injury, what action is difficult for her to perform?
A) flex her forearm
B) flex her elbow
C) flex her ulna
D) flex and adduct her hand
E) flex her shoulder
Q3) Identify the muscle labeled "25."
A) rectus femoris
B) biceps femoris
C) adductor longus
D) risorius
E) sartorius
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of an acetylcholine (ACh) molecule undergoes reuptake by the axon terminal to be reused in another acetylcholine molecule? (Figure 12-16)
A) acetate
B) choline
C) coenzyme A
D) calcium
E) acetyl-CoA
Q2) In the peripheral nervous system, Schwann cells participate in the repair of damaged nerves by
A) producing new axons.
B) regenerating cell bodies for the neurons.
C) forming a cellular cord that directs axonal regrowth.
D) clearing away cellular debris.
E) producing more satellite cells that fuse to form new axons.
Q3) Which part(s) of the neuron can propagate an action potential?
A) 1
B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 3
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true regarding an epidural block?
A) It is commonly used as a method of pain control during labor and delivery.
B) This procedure does not provide sustained anesthesia.
C) It can provide sensory and motor anesthesia, depending on the anesthetic selected.
D) Intubation is not necessary because respiratory muscles are not paralyzed.
E) It affects only the spinal nerves in the immediate area of the injection.
Q2) The ________ innervates the ventrolateral body surface, structures in the body wall, and the limbs.
A) white rami communicantes
B) gray rami communicantes
C) posterior rami
D) anterior rami
E) dermatomes
Q3) The posterior root of a spinal nerve contains
A) axons of motor neurons.
B) axons of sensory neurons.
C) cell bodies of motor neurons.
D) cell bodies of sensory neurons.
E) interneurons.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) ________ is a printed record of the brain's electrical activity over a period of time.
A) electrocardiogram
B) electroencephalogram
C) x-ray
D) MRI
E) CT scan
Q2) Specialized ________ form the secretory component of the choroid plexus.
A) epididymal cells
B) ependymal cells
C) arachnoid cells
D) astrocyte
E) blood cells
Q3) Examination of a tissue sample from the central nervous system reveals many darkly pigmented cells. Thistissue probably came from the
A) nucleus gracilis.
B) nucleus cuneatus.
C) motor cortex.
D) substantia nigra.
E) cerebellar nucleus.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What occurs in this neural pathway at label "3"?
A) synapse
B) communication between sensory and motor neurons
C) amplification of motor signals
D) decussation
E) autonomic reflexes
Q2) Using the two-point discrimination test you can fairly accurately determine whether you have been touchedwith one point or two because of the density of the A) effectors.
B) perception.
C) labeled line.
D) receptor fields.
E) action potential.
Q3) The cerebellum adjusts motor activity in response to all of the following except A) touch sensations.
B) visual information.
C) equilibrium-related sensations.
D) input from the motor cortex.
E) input from proprioceptors.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The statement "Preganglionic axon terminals release acetylcholine" is
A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
E) true only for the somatic nervous system.
Q2) Parasympathetic ganglia that are near the eyes and salivary glands are called ________ ganglia.
A) somatic
B) collateral
C) contralateral
D) intramural
E) terminal
Q3) For minor surgical procedures, Valium is typically given to patients to cause anterograde amnesia. Thismeans the patient will temporarily
A) forget all fact memories such as the color of a stop sign.
B) forget skill memories like how to ride a bike.
C) forget long-term memories like their name.
D) forget memories from before surgery.
E) forget memories from during and immediately after surgery.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dietary deficiency of vitamin A is likely to cause
A) retinitis pigmentosa.
B) color blindness.
C) night blindness.
D) retinal detachment.
E) altered depth perception.
Q2) Amacrine cells are found where what other types of cells synapse? Horizontal cells are found where what other types of cells synapse? (Figure 17-7)
A) bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells; photoreceptors synapse with bipolar cells
B) photoreceptors synapse with bipolar cells; bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells
C) photoreceptors synapse with ganglion cells; bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells
D) horizontal cells synapse with photoreceptors; amacrine cells synapse with ganglion cells
E) horizontal cells synapse with bipolar cells; amacrine cells synapse with bipolar cells
Q3) What six basic steps are involved in the process of hearing?
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hormones known as "catecholamines" are
A) lipids.
B) peptides.
C) steroids.
D) derivatives of the amino acid tyrosine.
E) derivatives of reproductive glands.
Q2) The pancreatic hormone that causes blood sugar levels to fall is A) cortisol.
B) somatotropin.
C) insulin.
D) glucagon.
E) aldosterone.
Q3) The condition known as seasonal affective disorder (SAD) may be caused by A) increased levels of melanin.
B) increased levels of melatonin.
C) increased levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone.
D) increased levels of gonadotrophins.
E) decreased levels of testosterone.
Q4) What does it mean to say that the pancreas is both an endocrine and an exocrine organ?
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Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cross-match test is performed between donor blood and recipient blood, even though the ABO and Rh blood types match between the two because
A) there are many more surface antigens on red blood cells other than A, B and Rh.
B) all antibodies of the donor blood and the recipient blood must be identified.
C) coagulation can occur even in a small percentage of cases.
D) one has to make sure that the same agglutinogens have to be on both donor and recipients red blood cells.
E) errors are commonly made by the clinical staff regarding donor-recipient matches.
Q2) In an emergency situation, a patient may be given plasma expanders while blood typing occurs. The plasmaexpanders are used to
A) stimulate blood clotting.
B) replace lost albumin.
C) increase blood volume and maintain osmolarity.
D) elevate blood pH.
E) stimulate immune responses.
Q3) Which of the formed elements would increase after the donation of a pint of blood?
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21
Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ circuit carries blood to and from the lungs.
A) pulmonary
B) systemic
C) oxygen
D) portal
E) primary
Q2) The heart beats approximately ________ times each day.
A) 1,000
B) 10,000
C) 100,000
D) 1,000,000
E) 10,000,000
Q3) The term ________ refers to blockage in the coronary circulation.
A) congestive heart failure
B) atherosclerosis
C) coronary artery disease
D) embolism
E) phlebitis
Q4) Adoctor tells her nursing students that it is important to monitor patients' blood pressure when they are receiving verapamil (a calcium channel blocker). Why?
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Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Q1) The ________ collects blood from the entire small intestine and two-thirds of the large intestine.
A) celiac trunk
B) hepatic portal vein
C) splenic vein
D) gastric vein
E) superior mesenteric vein
Q2) The vascular pressure that declines from roughly 35 mm Hg to about 18 mm Hg is the
A) venous pressure.
B) capillary hydrostatic pressure.
C) diastolic pressure.
D) peripheral pressure.
E) pulse pressure.
Q3) You would expect to find fenestrated capillaries in
A) skeletal muscles.
B) cardiac muscle.
C) the pituitary gland.
D) bone.
E) skin.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order for a lymphocyte to respond to an antigen, the antigen must
A) be phagocytized by the lymphocyte.
B) enter the cytoplasm of the lymphocyte.
C) bind to the DNA of the lymphocyte.
D) bind to specific receptors on the lymphocyte surface.
E) depolarize the lymphocyte.
Q2) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects ________cells.
A) B
B) plasma
C) cytotoxic T
D) helper T
E) suppressor T
Q3) Lymphocytes
A) are actively phagocytic.
B) destroy red blood cells.
C) respond to antigens.
D) are primarily found in red bone marrow.
E) decrease in number during infection.
Q4) List and briefly describe the four general properties of adaptive immunity.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory epithelium of the conducting airways consists of
A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
B) moist cuboidal epithelium.
C) simple squamous epithelium.
D) ciliated squamous epithelium.
E) stratified squamous epithelium.
Q2) The C shape of the tracheal cartilages is important because
A) large masses of food can move through the esophagus.
B) large masses of air can pass through the trachea and thus the bronchi.
C) it facilitates turning of the head.
D) the bronchi are also C-shaped.
E) it permits the trachea to pinch shut prior to sneezing.
Q3) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately
A) 35 mm Hg.
B) 45 mm Hg.
C) 55 mm Hg.
D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.
Q4) What is hypercapnia? How does it affect respiration? What are common causes?
Page 25
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Q1) The epithelium lining the oropharynx is
A) simple squamous.
B) simple cuboidal.
C) simple columnar.
D) stratified squamous.
E) pseudostratified squamous.
Q2) The bulk of each tooth consists of a mineralized matrix similar to that of bone called A) enamel.
B) cement.
C) dentin.
D) pulp.
E) periodontium.
Q3) Functions of the tongue include all of the following except A) mechanical processing of food.
B) manipulation of food.
C) sensory analysis of food.
D) aiding in speech.
E) partitioning the oropharynx from the nasopharynx.
Q4) Leon has gallstones. His doctor puts him on a diet low in fat. Why?
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Chapter 25: Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics
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Q1) The trace element needed as a cofactor for hemoglobin synthesis is A) zinc.
B) copper.
C) cobalt.
D) iodine.
E) silicon.
Q2) The vitamin that prevents breakdown of vitamin A and fatty acids is vitamin
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
E) E.
Q3) The process of glycogen formation is known as A) glycolysis.
B) gluconeogenesis.
C) cellular respiration.
D) glycemia.
E) glycogenesis.
Q4) What happens during protein catabolism? How is this related to nitrogen balance?
Q5) List and briefly describe the body's five metabolic components.
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Q1) Under normal conditions, glomerular filtration depends on three main pressures. From the list below, what are these three main pressures? 1. glomerular hydrostatic pressure
2) capsular hydrostatic pressure
3) capsular colloid osmotic pressure
4) blood colloid osmotic pressure
5) urinary bladder hydrostatic pressure
A) 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B) 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
C) 3, 4, and 5 are correct.
D) 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
E) 2, 4, and 5 are correct.
Q2) Where does most nutrient reabsorption occur?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
Q3) List each organ of the urinary system and concisely describe its function.
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) In which body fluid do the phosphate and protein buffer systems help regulate the pH? (Figure 27-10)
A) intracellular fluid
B) extracellular fluid
C) blood plasma
D) cerebrospinal fluid
Q2) Substances that can carry electrical current across cell membranes are called A) electrons.
B) electrolytes.
C) nonelectrolytes.
D) osmoregulators.
E) buffers.
Q3) Mg2+ and K+ are found in higher concentrations in the (intracellular, extracellular) fluid, whereas Na+ andCl- are found in higher concentrations in the (intracellular, extracellular) fluid. (Figure 27-2)
A) intracellular; extracellular
B) extracellular; intracellular
Q4) The maintenance of normal volume and composition of extracellular and intracellular fluids is vital to life.List and briefly describe the kinds of homeostasis involved.
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Q1) The process of spermiogenesis produces
A) spermatogonia.
B) primary spermatocytes.
C) secondary spermatocytes.
D) spermatids.
E) sperm.
Q2) Which layer of the uterus undergoes dramatic changes in thickness and structure during the uterine cycle responding to hormones.
A) functional layer of the endometrium
B) basal layer of the endometrium
C) myometrium
D) perimetrium
E) epimetrium
Q3) Which of the following is not found within the seminiferous tubule?
A) spermatogonia
B) spermatocytes
C) nurse cells
D) interstitial endocrine cells
E) spermatids
Q4) How are male and female reproductive systems functionally different?
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) The uterine epithelium is broken down by the enzyme,
A) hyaluronidase.
B) acrosin.
C) urase.
D) proteoglycan.
E) relaxin.
Q2) The prostaglandins produced in the endometrium
A) initiate the release of oxytocin for parturition.
B) stimulate smooth muscle contractions.
C) initiate secretory activity in the mammary glands.
D) promote breast development.
E) stimulate the milk let-down reflex.
Q3) The transfer of genetically determined characteristics from generation to generation is termed
A) development.
B) differentiation.
C) inheritance.
D) phylogeny.
E) maturity.
Q4) List and briefly characterize the three trimesters of gestation.
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