Physical Therapist Assistant Seminar
Practice Exam
Course Introduction
The Physical Therapist Assistant Seminar is designed to provide students with a comprehensive overview of their roles and responsibilities as future practitioners in the field of physical therapy. This course integrates knowledge from previous coursework while focusing on professional development, ethical considerations, current trends in physical therapy, and career preparation. Students will engage in discussions, case studies, and activities that enhance critical thinking, problem-solving, and effective communication skills. The seminar also addresses preparation for licensure examinations, resume building, interview techniques, and the transition from student to entry-level physical therapist assistant.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology for the Physical Therapist Assistant 1st Edition by Penelope J. Lescher
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14 Chapters
280 Verified Questions
280 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3867 Page 2
Chapter 1: Inflammation and Healing
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77090
Sample Questions
Q1) Scar tissue is a natural effect of wound healing.However,some types of scarring can cause problems.Which of the following terms applies to a scar that forms far beyond the margins of the original wound?
A) Adhesions
B) Cirrhosis
C) Hypertrophic scarring
D) Keloid scarring
Answer: D
Q2) Metaplasia is the term used for an increase in cell size within an organ or tissue.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?
A) Heat (calor)
B) Pain
C) Redness
D) Tremor
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Immunopathology, neoplasia, and
Chromosome Abnormalities
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who exercises does not have a better chance of having a healthy immune system or fighting off infection than a person who gets no exercise.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Antibiotic- and antimicrobial-resistant bacteria are becoming much more common.Prescribing antimicrobial medications to young children with minor infections and patients not completing the entire prescribed course of antimicrobials are two of the reasons for this increase in occurrence of these bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a type of T lymphocyte?
A) Helper T cell
B) Macrophage
C) Suppressor T cell
D) Natural killer cell
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Cardiovascular Pathologies
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77088
Sample Questions
Q1) The perceived rate of exertion (RPE)is a subjective scale used to determine a safe level of intensity of activity for patients with cardiac problems.Which of the following statements regarding the RPE is true?
A) The monitoring of the RPE is of no actual use because it is a subjective scale.
B) A number 20 on the scale defines a minimal level of exertion.
C) During exercise,the RPE,as well as the vital signs and any observable signs of discomfort,should be monitored.
D) Only the RPE should be monitored during exercise.
Answer: C
Q2) A heart rate slower than 60 beats per minute is considered to be:
A) bradycardia.
B) syncope.
C) tachycardia.
D) tachypnea.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Respiratory Diseases
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sputum coughed up from the lungs by a person can indicate various problems.Sputum that is thick,yellow,or green in color and has a bad odor may indicate:
A) cystic fibrosis,pneumonia,or bronchiectasis.
B) inhalation of smoke from cigarettes or fires or inhalation of coal dust.
C) pulmonary bacterial infection such as pseudomonas or pneumococcus.
D) pulmonary edema.
Q2) In normal lungs,the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)is usually what percentage of the vital capacity (VC)?
A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%
Q3) A condition characterized by intestinal malabsorption with foul-smelling feces,a productive cough,delayed onset of puberty,and male infertility is:
A) asthma.
B) bronchiectasis.
C) cystic fibrosis.
D) pneumonia.
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Chapter 5: Degenerative Joint Diseases and Bone Pathologies
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77086
Sample Questions
Q1) A disease resulting in inflammation of the bone caused by an infection is:
A) tuberculosis.
B) osteoarthritis.
C) osteomyelitis.
D) osteomalacia.
Q2) Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH),also known as congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH),is a genetic condition in which the head of the femur dislocates from the acetabulum of the pelvis.All of the following statements are true EXCEPT:
A) If DDH is not diagnosed,shortening of the affected leg may occur as a result of hip dislocation,and the gait pattern will be affected.
B) The key to a good outcome with DDH is early diagnosis and intervention.
C) The usual treatment for infants with DDH is a double hip spica cast or splint for several months with the hips maintained in an abducted position.
D) DDH is more prevalent in males than females.
Q3) An example of a benign tumor of bone is a Ewing's sarcoma.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Rheumatoid Arthritis and Related Conditions
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement regarding rheumatoid arthritis (RA)is NOT true?
A) Many people with RA have rheumatoid factor in their blood.
B) The joints most affected in the early stages of RA are the proximal interphalangeal joints (PIPs)and the metacarpophalangeal joints (MTPs).
C) Joints are usually affected symmetrically.
D) Early morning stiffness generally lasts less than 30 minutes.
Q2) Physical therapy interventions for people with rheumatoid arthritis (RA)are extensive.Which of the following should NOT be included in a physical therapy intervention plan for a person with RA?
A) The use of resting splints at night to keep the knees in an extended position
B) The use of finger splints and thumb spica splints to correct hand deformities
C) The use of low repetition and high weights exercise programs for strengthening muscles
D) The use of neuromuscular stimulation,ultrasound,and heat modalities during subacute and chronic stages of the disease
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8
Chapter 7: Neurological Disorders
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alzheimer's disease is categorized into stages.Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of the severe cognitive decline phase?
A) Forgetfulness marked by loss of familiar objects such as keys and the inability to remember the names of friends and family
B) Inability to walk without assistance; needing help with feeding and toileting
C) Inability to recall phone numbers and personal history details; confusion as to day,time,or season; difficulty with simple arithmetic
D) Inability to perform daily tasks; needing help with activities of daily living; changes in sleep-wake cycle; personality changes (which can lead to delusions); possible wandering and becoming lost
Q2) Autism spectrum disorder encompasses a wide range of neurodevelopmental disorders including Asperger's syndrome,Rett's syndrome,and classical autism.The cause of autism is unknown but is thought to be a combination of genetic and environmental factors.Children with all types of the disorder exhibit impairment of social interaction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Burns and Skin Conditions
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77083
Sample Questions
Q1) Pressure garments are used in the healing process to reduce the occurrence of:
A) nevi.
B) pustules.
C) scarring.
D) ulcers.
Q2) What levels of skin are damaged in a deep partial-thickness burn?
A) Epidermis
B) Epidermis and dermis down to the papillary layer
C) Epidermis and dermis down to the reticular layer
D) Epidermis,dermis,and all underlying tissue
Q3) In an electrical burn,only muscle and bone are most likely to be damaged.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Kaposi's sarcoma
A)Area affected may appear as a nonhealing ulcer with an asymmetrical shape
B)Area of concern can be red,purple,or brown and is found mainly on the face and lower legs
C)Blister-like vesicles occurring along a dermatome
D)Lesions that are 6 mm in diameter and have mixed flat and raised areas
E)Occurs on areas regularly exposed to ultraviolet light
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Chapter 9: Endocrine, metabolic, and Nutritional Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77082
Sample Questions
Q1) Hyperparathyroidism
A)Perform gentle exercise and mobility
B)Improve endurance and strengthen muscle
C)Manage arthritic symptoms and perform muscle strengthening exercises
D)Treat muscle and soft tissues deficits that may arise
E)Treat the physical deficits caused by the disease process
Q2) In type 2 diabetes mellitus,insulin is not produced in sufficient amounts or is not used by the body effectively.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A person with bulimia nervosa has the tendency to overexercise.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bulging eyes is one sign of Grave's disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most people with endocrine system problems have increased strength and vigor.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Infectious Diseases
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77081
Sample Questions
Q1) Toxic shock syndrome has been linked to the use of tampons in women.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following diseases is NOT sexually transmitted?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D
Q3) Upon finding out your patient has HIV/AIDS,you are allowed to inform all the therapists in your department.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The treatment of this disease does NOT recommend chest physical therapy:
A) Influenza
B) Legionnaires' disease
C) Pertussis
D) Rubeola
Q5) The hepatitis A virus can be viable for months outside of the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Female and Male Reproductive System
Conditions
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77080
Sample Questions
Q1) Poor personal hygiene is a factor for this type of cancer:
A) Breast cancer
B) Carcinoma of the cervix
C) Carcinoma of the penis
D) Prostate cancer
Q2) What is the name of the type of contraction known as false labor?
A) Braxton-Hicks
B) Early
C) Postdate
D) Preeclampsia
Q3) Placenta previa
A)Development of the placenta either completely or partly over the internal opening of the cervix
B)Implantation of the placenta deeply into the myometrium
C)Woman pregnant for the first time
D)Woman who has given birth only once
E)Woman who has had several pregnancies
Q4) Estimating the date of delivery is calculated using Nägele's rule.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Diseases of the Digestive and Urinary Systems
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT part of the urinary system?
A) Adrenal glands
B) Bladder
C) Kidney
D) Rectum
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic medical test for digestive system diseases?
A) Barium enemas
B) Colonoscopy
C) Endoscopy
D) Testing for creatinine clearance
Q3) All of the following are likely causes of peritonitis EXCEPT:
A) bacterial infection.
B) infection due to hemodialysis.
C) infection from an intestinal condition.
D) irritation from the chemicals used during surgery.
Q4) Physical therapy intervention for rectal prolapse may include electrical stimulation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Intensive Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of ventilator provides the full amount of predetermined pressure and sustains a minimum respiratory rate?
A) Assist-control ventilator
B) Pressure-control ventilator
C) Pressure-support ventilator
D) Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilator
Q2) Which of the following lines will not harm the patient directly if it becomes kinked or pulled?
A) Arterial line
B) Catheter
C) Intravenous line
D) Pulse oximeter
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a machine or piece of equipment typically seen in an ICU room?
A) Blood pressure monitor
B) Catheter
C) Continuous passive motion machine
D) Intracranial pressure monitor
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15
Chapter 14: The Geriatric Patient
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of an alarm system to prevent a patient from falling or wandering is considered a restraint alternative.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Kübler-Ross stages of dying include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) anger.
B) bargaining.
C) depression.
D) surrender.
Q3) All of the following are skin effects due to aging EXCEPT:
A) easy bruising.
B) reduced elasticity and flexibility.
C) hair loss on the body.
D) thickening of the subdermal fat layer.
Q4) Which of the following is considered a risk factor for skin breakdown?
A) Checking the skin often
B) Clean,dry skin
C) Frequent turning while in bed
D) Presence of infection in the patient
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