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The Physical Therapist Assistant Program equips students with the knowledge and hands-on skills required to support physical therapists in the delivery of rehabilitative care to patients. The curriculum covers foundational courses in anatomy, physiology, kinesiology, and therapeutic exercises, alongside practical training in clinical settings. Students learn to assist in implementing treatment plans, observe and report patient progress, and educate patients and families about therapeutic techniques. Emphasizing teamwork, communication, and professional ethics, the program prepares graduates to contribute effectively in a variety of healthcare environments including hospitals, outpatient clinics, and rehabilitation centers.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Language Immerse Yourself 4th Edition by Susan M. Turley
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19 Chapters
4656 Verified Questions
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296 Verified Questions
296 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42850
Sample Questions
Q1) What two medical word parts combine to make a medical word that means "study of the mind"?
A)pneumon/o-,-itis
B)psych/o-,-logy
C)neur/o-, -pathy
D)pre-,-graphy
Answer: B
Q2) One of the disadvantages related to a paper medical record is that only one healthcare professional can access it at a time.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A prefix can be as small as a single letter.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Not every medical word contains a combining form.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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483 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following words is MISSPELLED?
A)hereditery
B)symptomatology
C)auscultation
D)palliative
Answer: A
Q2) The techniques used during a physical examination include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A)percussion
B)auscultation
C)palpation
D)diagnosis
Answer: D
Q3) In the medical word hereditary,the combining form means ________.
A)"genetic inheritance"
B)"medical treatment;physician"
C)"disease within"
D)"individual;unknown"
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the abbreviation for a type of feeding tube?
A)PUD
B)PEG
C)CBD
D)LES
Answer: B
Q2) The combining forms lingu/o- and gloss/o- mean "salivary gland."
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) If an infected appendix bursts,it can cause ________.
A)dysentery
B)a gastric ulcer
C)diverticulitis
D)peritonitis
Answer: D
Q4) The combining form bili/o- means "bile;gall."
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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320 Verified Questions
320 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure is composed of smooth muscle and no cartilage?
A)bronchioles
B)larynx
C)trachea
D)lumen
Q2) A patient who might have TB could have all of the following tests done EXCEPT
A)tine test
B)Mantoux test
C)chest x-ray
D)arterial blood gas test
Q3) Breathing in is known as inspiration or ________.
Q4) If the physician wants to say apex of both lungs,the plural for of apex would be ________.
A)apexes
B)apical
C)apices
D)all of the above
Q5) Attachments on a bronchoscope can remove foreign bodies,suction thick mucus,or perform a ________ to remove a piece of tissue.
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347 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT categorized as a blood vessel?
A)artery
B)capillary
C)endothelium
D)vein
Q2) Which is a very serious type of heart block in which no electrical impulses reach the ventricles?
A)murmur
B)sick sinus syndrome
C)hyperlipidemia
D)third-degree heart block
Q3) Which of the following combining forms does NOT mean "blood vessel"?
A)vas/o-
B)phleb/o-
C)angi/o-
D)vascul/o-
Q4) The patient had surgery to remove a weakness in the wall of an artery.This surgery is known as a/an ________.
Q5) The combining form lipid/o- means "________;lipid."
Q6) How do calcium channel blocker drugs work and what are they used to treat?
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207 Verified Questions
207 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a blood clot has formed,the process of cessation of bleeding is known as hemostasis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Anemia is characterized by ________.
A)blood clots
B)a bacterial infection of the blood
C)a decreased number of erythrocytes
D)too many white blood cells
Q3) Sepsis or septicemia is also known as ________.
A)anemia
B)blood poisoning
C)AIDS
D)hemophilia
Q4) Hemophilia is caused by an abnormal gene on ________.
A)the Y chromosome carried by the father
B)factor VIII in the blood
C)the X chromosome carried by the mother
D)cancerous lymphocytes in the blood
Q5) Briefly describe how the blood forms a clot.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference in the extent of skin affected between second- and third-degree burns?
Q2) The epidermis is located ________ the dermis.
A)below B)around C)within D)above
Q3) A dermatome is ________.
A)used to make a cut to form a skin graft
B)a skin area that sends sensory information to a spinal nerve
C)a surgical instrument
D)all of the above
Q4) Which is the primary accented syllable in the medical word necrosis (neh-kroh-sis)?
Q5) The hard,fibrous protein that fills cells in the epidermis is ________.
A)melanin
B)keratin
C)basal
D)sebum
Q6) The English word wart means the same as the medical word ________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are TRUE about hemarthrosis EXCEPT ________.
A)it is a condition of blood in the joint
B)it is caused by trauma or a penetrating wound
C)it is treated with extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy
D)it occurs spontaneously in hemophiliac patients
Q2) What is gout?
Q3) The ________,or shin bone,is the large bone on the medial side of the lower leg.
Q4) The orthopedic surgery that uses an external fixator device is ________.
A)physical therapy
B)leg lengthening
C)a cartilage transplant
D)traction
Q5) Each wrist contains eight small,individual ________ bones arranged in two rows.
Q6) The ________ vertebrae (C1-C7)are located in the neck.
Q7) The two combining forms meaning "joint" are arthr/o- and ________.
Q8) Osteomyelitis is cancer of the bone.
A)True
B)False
Q10) The combining form xiph/o- means "________." Page 10
Q9) The combining form malac/o- means "________."
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Q1) Torticollis is a condition that occurs in the muscles of the ________.
A)hand
B)back
C)neck
D)shoulder
Q2) The combining form masset/o- means "________."
Q3) A fluid-filled sac that decreases friction where a tendon rubs against a bone near a synovial joint is called a/an ________.
A)fascicle
B)extensor
C)bursa
D)platysma
Q4) A muscle biopsy is a surgical procedure to ________.
A)cut the fascia and release built-up blood and tissue fluid in patients with compartment syndrome
B)suture together the torn ends of a muscle following an injury
C)diagnosis of muscle weakness that could be caused by many different muscular diseases
D)suture together the torn ends of a tendon following an injury
Q5) The abbreviation rehab stands for ________.
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Q1) The drugs donepezil (Aricept)and tacrine (Cognex)are used to treat ________.
A)Alzheimer's disease
B)Bell's palsy
C)Guillain-Barré syndrome
D)Parkinson's disease
Q2) A subdural hematoma would be located beneath the medulla oblongata.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Briefly discuss the purpose of the parasympathetic division of the nervous system.
Q4) The name of the medical procedure that records the electrical activity of the brain is an ________.
Q5) Which condition is also known as tic douloureux?
A)neurofibromatosis
B)neuroma
C)epilepsy
D)trigeminal neuralgia
Q6) The ________ division of the nervous system is active when the body is active or exercising.
Q7) The brain and its surrounding structures fill the ________ cavity.
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188 Verified Questions
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Q1) Uremic ________ occurs when excess urea is excreted through the sweat glands,creating a white deposit on the skin.
Q2) A bladder neck suspension surgery is performed to treat ________.
A)stress urinary incontinence
B)renal cell cancer
C)end-stage renal failure
D)nephroptosis
Q3) What is polycystic kidney disease?
Q4) Enlargement of the kidney due to constant pressure from backed-up urine is called
A)hydronephrosis
B)glomerulonephritis
C)nephrolithiasis
D)polycystic kidney disease
Q5) What is the indentation where the renal artery enters and the renal vein and ureter exit the kidney?
A)distal tubule
B)urethra
C)hilum
D)glomerulus

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which abbreviation means a disease contracted through sexual contact?
A)PSA
B)STD
C)BPH
D)TURP
Q2) A vasovasostomy is performed in a patient who has previously had an orchiectomy and now wishes to have more children.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The onset of ________ is also called adolescence.
Q4) Which word parts do you need to build a medical word that means "condition (of enlargement in which the male's chest resembles the female breast"?
A)-ary,genit/o-,urin/oB)-ia,gynec/o-,mast/oC)-itis, test/o-, crypt/oD)-stomy,vas/o-,vas/o-
Q5) Prostatitis is a chronic or acute ________ infection of the prostate gland.
Page 15
Q6) A spermatozoon (or a female ovum)that has only half the usual number of chromosomes is known as a/an ________.
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Q1) In this surgical procedure to treat breast cancer,the entire breast is removed,as well as the overlying skin,the nipple,axillary nodes,and the pectoralis major and minor muscles.
A)simple mastectomy
B)total mastectomy
C)radical mastectomy
D)prophylactic mastectomy
Q2) The neonate's hands and feet are often bluish.This is a temporary condition known as ________.
A)vernix caseosa
B)acrocyanosis
C)ischemic phase
D)oogenesis
Q3) For the fetus,the period of time from conception to birth is known as the ________ period.
Q4) Which test involves looking at the cervix with a magnifying,lighted scope?
A)mammography
B)colposcopy
C)Pap smear
D)D&C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exophthalmos is associated with ________.
A)diabetes mellitus
B)diabetes insipidus
C)Graves' disease
D)gigantism
Q2) The combining form antagon/o- means ________.
A)"block;hold back"
B)"exciting;strengthening"
C)"oppose; work against"
D)"receive"
Q3) Which is a treatment option for hyperthyroidism?
A)thymectomy
B)vanillylmandelic acid
C)radioactive sodium iodide 131 (I-131)
D)a thyroid supplement drug
Q4) Which of these abbreviations is associated with diabetes?
A)SIADH
B)IDDM
C)SAD
D)TSH
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169 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A/An ________ is the surgical removal of the eyeball from the bony orbit.
Q2) Which of the following is treated with a blepharoplasty?
A)infection of the eyelid
B)corneal abrasion or ulcer
C)xerophthalmia
D)sagging skin on the eyelids
Q3) A patient who has aphakia has no ________ in the eye because it has been surgically removed.
Q4) Xerophthalmia is also known as ________ eyes syndrome.
Q5) Which is an age-related disease with loss of central vision?
A)macular degeneration
B)papilledema
C)retinitis pigmentosa
D)presbyopia
Q6) Describe the abnormality in the eye that would signal to the physician that the patient has a liver disease.
Q7) How does the chart that is used to test vision in very young children differ from the chart used for adults?
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Q8) Explain the difference between the function of the rods and the cones in the retina.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The entrance to the inner ear is called the ________.
Q2) Rhinophyma is ________.
A)polyp formation in the nasal mucosa
B)frequent nosebleeds
C)lateral displacement of the nasal septum
D)redness and hypertrophy of the nose
Q3) To test a patient's hearing,audiometry uses pure tones while speech audiometry uses spoken words.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A rapid strep test would be done for a patient with ________.
A)a ruptured tympanic membrane
B)sinusitis
C)serous otitis media
D)sore throat
Q5) The medical word buccal means "pertaining to (the)________."
A)palate
B)jaw
C)cheek
D)tongue

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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the two "poles" of bipolar disorder?
Q2) Which word means repeated passage of stool into the clothing in a child older than age 5 who does NOT have gastrointestinal illness or disability?
A)autism
B)reactive attachment disorder
C)encopresis
D)Tourette syndrome
Q3) What does it mean if a psychiatrist documented that the patient had a flat affect?
A)There is no outward display on the face of any of the patient's emotions or thoughts.
B)The patient is not able to feel guilt or shame.
C)The patient does not receive any sexual arousal from images of the opposite sex.
D)The patient is in a stuporous,fixed position like a statue.
Q4) ________ is the fear of heights.
Q5) The three combining forms ment/o-,phren/o-,and psych/o- have a meaning of
Q6) ________ disorder is also known as manic-depressive disorder.
Q7) ________ is the fear of closed-in spaces.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of single cell destruction,or programmed cell death,is known as
A)apoptosis
B)mitosis
C)necrosis
D)oncogene
Q2) A surgical procedure that excises a tumor as well as all of the nearby organs is called an exenteration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a CT scan is used to pinpoint the location of a mass and guide the biopsy needle,the procedure is called a stereotactic biopsy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is spelled CORRECTLY?
A)lyomiosarcoma
B)leiomyosarcoma
C)lieomiosarcoma
D)lieomyosarkoma
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Q1) In oral cholecystography,contrast dye is NOT injected but rather is taken in the form of a tablet.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An intravenous cholangiography will help diagnose ________.
A)pancreatic cancer
B)gastric ulcers
C)gallstones
D)diverticulitis
Q3) An example of interventional radiology is using a CT scan to guide the insertion of the needle (for a biopsy).
A)True
B)False
Q4) The combining form roentgen/o- means ________.
A)"energy;power"
B)"light"
C)"film; picture"
D)"radiation;x-ray"
Q5) Obtaining radiographs requires the patient to be placed in different positions known as ________,or views.
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