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Physical Science with Laboratory is an introductory course designed to explore fundamental concepts in physics, chemistry, earth science, and astronomy. Through interactive lectures and hands-on laboratory experiments, students gain a foundational understanding of matter, energy, motion, and the scientific principles that underlie natural phenomena. The course emphasizes scientific inquiry, observation, and the application of the scientific method while fostering critical thinking and problem-solving skills. Laboratory sessions provide practical experience in data collection, experimental design, and analysis, strengthening students ability to interpret results and communicate scientific findings effectively. This course is suitable for non-science majors seeking a broad overview of the physical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Physical Science 13th Edition by James Shipman
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Q1) What does 4 \(\times\) 10<sup>-12</sup> times 3 \(\times\) 10<sup>-8</sup> divided by 2 \(\times\) 10<sup>24</sup> equal?
Answer: 6 \(\times\) 10<sup>-</sup><sup>44</sup>
Q2) In ratio form, the equivalence statement 1 mi = 1.61 km would be expressed as ______________.
Answer: 61 km)
Q3) A student's height is 180 cm. Determine that student's height in inches. Answer: 9 in.
Q4) A combination of one or more fundamental units is called a(n) ______________ unit.
Answer: derived
Q5) For the multiplication of 6.8 m divided by 8.6 m, the result should be reported with how many significant figures?
A) Two
B) One
C) Three
D) Four
E) Seven
Answer: A
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Q1) Motion necessarily involves
A) a change in velocity.
B) a change in speed.
C) a change in direction.
D) a change in position.
E) all of these
Answer: D
Q2) For an object in uniform circular motion, the acceleration points toward
Answer: the center of the circle
Q3) The rate at which an object's velocity changes with time is called its A) instantaneous velocity.
B) motion.
C) speed.
D) acceleration.
Answer: D
Q4) Temperature is an example of a(n) ______________ quantity.
Answer: scalar
Q5) A(n) ______________ quantity has only magnitude.
Answer: scalar
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Q1) Newton's third law force pair acts on ______________ objects. Answer: different
Q2) The buoyant force of an object is equal to the ______________ of the ______________ it displaces.
A) mass; fluid
B) weight; fluid
C) mass; solid
D) weight; solid
Answer: B
Q3) Mass is a measure of A) inertia.
B) force.
C) grams.
D) weight.
E) kilograms.
Answer: A
Q4) A change in motion requires a(n) ____________.
Answer: force (unbalanced or net)
Q5) A(n) ______________ force is necessary for uniform circular motion. Answer: centripetal
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Q1) A 5.00-kg object is lifted from the floor to a shelf. The object's new gravitational potential energy relative to the floor is 102 J. What is the height of the shelf?
Q2) The two types of mechanical energy are ______________ and ______________.
Q3) A horsepower is a unit of power equal to 550 ______________.
Q4) The energy of a system
A) always increases.
B) always remains constant.
C) increases when work is done by the system.
D) increases when work is done on the system.
Q5) Mechanical energy
A) is always the total energy of a system.
B) is the sum of the energies of motion and position.
C) is always conserved.
D) necessarily involves gravitational potential energy.
Q6) Which of the following is a vector quantity?
A) Energy
B) Power
C) Work
D) None of these

6
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Q1) A large calorie (Cal) is the amount of heat needed to change the temperature of one ______________ of water by one Celsius degree.
A) dekagram
B) centigram
C) gram
D) kilogram
Q2) A circular hole is drilled into an aluminum sheet. When the sheet is heated, the diameter of the hole will
A) become smaller.
B) become larger.
C) depend on the thickness of the sheet.
D) not be affected.
Q3) Which of the following has the lowest thermal conductivity?
A) Glass
B) Iron
C) Wood
D) Styrofoam
Q4) The first law of thermodynamics states that heat added to a closed system can change the internal energy of the system and/or do ______________.
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Q1) A disturbance in particle motion parallel to the wave velocity is called a
A) transverse wave.
B) acoustic wave.
C) standing wave.
D) longitudinal wave.
Q2) A series of ocean waves are moving past a surfer at a frequency of 25 waves per hour. Approximately how many waves would the surfer expect during 41 minutes?
A) 1025 waves
B) 17 waves
C) 25 waves
D) 37 waves
Q3) A sound with a frequency of 48 kHz is in the ______________ region of the sound spectrum.
A) infrasonic
B) ultrasonic
C) audible
D) visible
Q4) Of the two main types of waves, light is a(n) ______________ wave.
Q5) The SI unit of frequency is ______________.
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Q1) Light traveling from a more dense to a less dense medium is refracted ______________ the normal.
Q2) The speed of light in a material is 2.35 \(\times\) 10<sup>8 </sup>m/s. What is the index of refraction of this material?
A) 1.28
B) 0.783
C) 2.35
D) 0.294
Q3) Optics is divided into ray optics and ______________ optics.
Q4) The image formed by a diverging spherical lens is always A) upright.
B) reduced.
C) virtual.
D) all of these.
Q5) If a ray of light passes from air into glass, the angle of incidence will be A) less than the angle of refraction.
B) sometimes greater and sometimes less than the angle of refraction.
C) greater than the angle of refraction.
D) equal to the angle of refraction.
Q6) Polarizing sunglasses have the transmission axis oriented ______________.
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Q1) A system of 8 electrons and 4 neutrons has a net charge of
A) -12.8 \(\times\) 10<sup>-19 </sup>C.
B) 12.8 \(\times\) 10<sup>-19 </sup>C.
C) -6.4 \(\times\) 10<sup>-19 </sup>C.
D) -8.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>-19 </sup>C.
E) 6.4 \(\times\) 10<sup>-19 </sup>C.
Q2) For an ohmic conductor, current is
A) inversely proportional to voltage.
B) inversely proportional to resistance.
C) independent of resistance.
D) independent of voltage.
Q3) In a(n) ______________, electrons do not move freely.
Q4) In a battery circuit with different resistors in parallel,
A) the total resistance is larger than the value of the largest resistor.
B) the current is the same through each resistor.
C) the total resistance is larger than the value of the smallest resistor.
D) the voltage is the same across each resistor.
Q5) A doorbell has an input voltage of 120 V. A transformer that steps the voltage down to 12 V has 500 turns on its primary. What is the number of turns on the secondary?
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Q1) Niels Bohr postulated that the hydrogen electron radiates energy only when it makes a(n) ______________ from one allowed orbit to another.
Q2) Which of these colors of light has photons of greatest energy?
A) Green
B) Red
C) Blue
D) Yellow
Q3) Calculate the radius in nanometers of the orbit of a hydrogen atom's electron with n = 5.
Q4) Aristotle's "continuous" model of matter was proved wrong about 1807 by A) Bohr.
B) Thomson.
C) Dalton.
D) Rutherford.
Q5) When an electron is added to an atom, a(n) _______________ ion is formed.
Q6) Bohr's revolutionary step in his theory was to ______________ the angular momentum of the electron.
Q7) The energy of a photon equals ______________ multiplied by the frequency.
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Q8) The principal quantum number is symbolized by the letter ______________.

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Q1) The number of neutrons in a triton is ______________.
Q2) Plutonium-239 and uranium-235 undergo fission when bombarded by A) protons.
B) neutrons.
C) alpha particles.
D) electrons.
Q3) When an unstable Cesium nucleus undergoes gamma decay, the nucleus formed is that of
A) Cesium.
B) Lanthanum.
C) Xenon.
D) Iodine.
E) Barium.
Q4) When an unstable Lu nucleus undergoes alpha decay, the nucleus formed is that of A) Lutetium.
B) Tantalum.
C) Ytterbium.
D) Thulium.
E) Hafnium.
Q5) The diameter of the average nucleus is about ______________ m.
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Q1) Elements that display some properties of both metals and nonmetals are called ______________.
Q2) The shell electron configuration for an argon atom is ______________.
Q3) The common name for CH<sub>4</sub> is ______________.
Q4) The greater amount of substance in a solution is generally called the A) salt.
B) solute.
C) molar concentrate.
D) solvent.
Q5) The pale-green, gaseous element named ______________ was used as a poisonous gas in World War I.
Q6) A bubble-producing soda is an example of A) an unsaturated solution.
B) a saturated solution.
C) a supersaturated solution.
D) a completely unsaturated solution.
Q7) In a given period, the element of Group ______________ has the lowest ionization energy.
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Q8) The molecular formula of "buckyball" is ______________.
Q9) ______________ are substances that cannot be decomposed by chemical processes.
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Q1) The definitions of an acid and a base as substances that give H<sup>+</sup> and OH<sup>-</sup> ions, respectively, in water were proposed by the chemist named
Q2) What basic type of reaction is illustrated by the general equation AB \(\to\) A + B?
A) Combination
B) Decomposition
C) Double-replacement
D) Single-replacement
Q3) The substances that are diminished in a chemical reaction are called the A) products.
B) reactants.
C) chemicals.
D) precipitates.
Q4) Which type of reaction is 2Cu(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> \(\to\) 2CuO + 4NO<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub>?
A) Single-replacement
B) Double-replacement
C) Combination
D) Decomposition
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Q1) The calendar we presently use is the ______________ calendar.
Q2) The parallel that is a great circle is the ______________.
Q3) Which two of the following places are nearest to each other?
Place A at latitude 20°N, longitude 90°W
Place B at latitude 30°N, longitude 90°W
Place C at latitude 30°N, longitude 75°W
Place D at latitude 20°N, longitude 75°W
Q4) A ______________ is always shorter than a ______________ .
A) solar day; sidereal day
B) solar day; mean solar day
C) sidereal day; solar day
D) mean solar day; solar day
Q5) Six months of darkness at the North Pole begins when the Sun is at the
A) winter solstice.
B) summer solstice.
C) autumnal equinox.
D) vernal equinox.
Q6) Daylight Saving Time begins on the first Sunday of ______________ and ends on the last Sunday in ______________.
Q7) Our current calendar is the____________ calendar.
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Q1) The terrestrial planets have
A) relatively high densities.
B) solid surfaces.
C) weak magnetic fields.
D) all of these.
Q2) The planet with the Great Red Spot is
A) Jupiter.
B) Neptune.
C) Uranus.
D) Saturn.
E) Mars.
Q3) Determine the sidereal period of a planet that is located 5.2 AU from the Sun.
Q4) That a planet moves with different speeds in its orbit is given by which of Kepler's laws?
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth
Q5) Other planetary systems are best detected by the Doppler shifts that change the pattern of the star's ______________.
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Q1) When a meteor strikes Earth's surface, it is called a(n) ______________.
Q2) A high tide is occurring at Charleston, South Carolina (80°W, 33°N). At approximately what other longitude is a high tide occurring?
Q3) If a person weighs 150 lb on Earth, what will the person weigh on the Moon?
Q4) The phase of the Moon that one observes on the overhead meridian at 10 P.M. local time is a ______________ moon.
A) waxing crescent
B) waning crescent
C) waxing gibbous
D) waning gibbous
Q5) ______________ is the largest known asteroid.
Q6) ______________ is the major moon of Neptune.
A) Triton
B) Titan
C) Ganymede
D) Europa
E) Callisto
Q7) As comets approach and move around the Sun, the coma and the tail ______________ in size.
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Q1) Land and sea breezes result from
A) the Coriolis force.
B) convection cycles.
C) low-pressure areas.
D) high-pressure areas.
Q2) The troposphere derives energy by means of A) latent heat of condensation only.
B) absorption of terrestrial radiation only.
C) conduction from Earth's surface only.
D) all of these.
Q3) The major contribution in heating the troposphere comes from ______________.
Q4) When the relative humidity is 100%, the air temperature is equal to A) the lapse rate.
B) 100°F.
C) the dew point temperature.
D) none of these.
Q5) The ______________ lies below the stratosphere.
Q6) The atmospheric division that lies directly above the stratosphere is the ______________.
Q7) The ozone layer absorbs ______________ radiation.
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Q1) The radius of Earth's mantle is about
A) 870 km.
B) 2900 km.
C) 1050 km.
D) 5800 km.
Q2) Seismic waves that travel through our planet are called ______________ waves.
A) Earth
B) planet
C) body
D) ground
Q3) Earthquake waves are monitored by an instrument called a(n) ______________.
Q4) Each whole-number step on the Richter scale represents about how many times more energy release that the preceding whole-number step?
A) 10
B) 32
C) 18
D) 2
Q5) The mountains of the Alps in Europe are examples of ______________ mountains.
Q6) Secondary seismic waves travel ______________ (slower or faster?) than primary waves in solids.
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Q1) When a mineral's surface reflects light in a manner similar to a smooth metal, the mineral is said to have a(n) ______________ luster.
Q2) Which igneous rock has light color (high silica content) and large grains (coarse texture)?
A) Gabbro
B) Granite
C) Rhyolite
D) Basalt
Q3) The sedimentary rock known as ______________ consists of angular pebbles cemented together by silica, calcium carbonate, or iron oxide.
A) conglomerate
B) breccia
C) limestone
D) shale
Q4) Gas, lava, and pyroclastics are the three general products emitted during a(n)
Q5) Rocks formed from consolidated sediment deposited in layers are known as _____________ rocks.
Q6) Marble and gneiss are classified as ______________ rocks.
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Q1) The most important acid involved in chemical weathering is A) carbonic acid.
B) sulfuric acid.
C) hydrochloric acid.
D) none of these.
Q2) Which of the following phenomena results from limestone being dissolved by rainwater?
A) Caverns
B) Delta formation
C) Sea arches
D) Beaches
Q3) The true edges of the continental landmasses are called the ______________.
Q4) The slow, particle-by-particle movement of weathered debris down a slope is called A) an avalanche.
B) a landslide.
C) slump.
D) creep.
Q5) A stream's load is divided into three components: dissolved load, ______________ load, and bed load.
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Q1) Sedimentary layer A is found above sedimentary layer B, and the two are separated by a horizontal layer of ash, C. Therefore, the order from oldest to youngest is
A) B, C, A.
B) C, B, A.
C) A, C, B.
D) none of these.
Q2) The Pliocene is a(n)
A) epoch.
B) era.
C) eon.
D) period.
Q3) Periods are divided into A) eons.
B) epochs.
C) millennia.
D) eras.
Q4) The term age of reptiles is sometimes used to refer to the ______________ era.
Q5) Lack of knowledge of the phenomenon called ______________ led Lord Kelvin to an incorrect estimate of the age of Earth.
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