Physical Science
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Physical Science is an interdisciplinary course that explores the fundamental principles governing the natural world, focusing primarily on the fields of physics and chemistry. Students will examine topics such as matter, energy, motion, force, the structure of atoms, chemical reactions, and the laws of nature that describe physical phenomena. Through a combination of theoretical concepts, laboratory experiments, and real-world applications, the course fosters scientific reasoning, critical thinking, and an understanding of how scientific principles shape technology and impact everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
Physical Science 9th Edition by Bill Tillery
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24 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: What Is Science
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Q1) An event with two situations with all the influencing factors identical except one is a (an)
A)hypothetical experiment.
B)experiment.
C)controlled experiment.
D)impossible experiment.
Answer: C
Q2) The most recently developed scientific theory is the A)plate tectonic theory.
B)atomic theory.
C)theory about the nature of light.
D)theory of evolution.
Answer: A
Q3) One of the basic differences between science and a pseudoscience is the lack of A)data.
B)valid and reliable experimental studies.
C)testable hypotheses.
D)theories.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ignoring air resistance, the velocity of a falling object
A)is constant.
B)is constantly increasing.
C)increases for a while, then becomes constant.
D)depends on the mass of the object.
Answer: B
Q2) A boy on a skateboard pushes off the ground with his foot.He and the skateboard accelerate down the sidewalk due to the force
A)he exerts against the ground.
B)between the skateboard wheels and the ground.
C)the ground exerts against his foot.
D)of gravity acting on the skateboard.
Answer: C
Q3) Everything that happens in the universe can be traced to interactions of A)matter and gravity.
B)light and matter.
C)four fundamental forces.
D)gravity waves and light.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Roughly, what fraction of our nation's current energy needs is supplied by coal?
A)10%
B)20%
C)40%
D)80%
Answer: B
Q2) Of the following, which rank of coal has the most desirable burning properties and highest energy content?
A)peat
B)lignite
C)subbituminous
D)bituminous
Answer: D
Q3) The solar technology that is today contributing about as much energy as moving water is
A)solar cells.
B)OTEC.
C)power tower.
D)biomass.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Heat and Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water beads up on wax paper because its cohesive forces are greater than the adhesive forces.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The process by which solids vaporize without first becoming a liquid is called A)sublimation.
B)condensation.
C)evaporation.
D)boiling.
Q3) The heat death of the universe is a theoretical time in the future when the universe is supposed to
A)have a high enough temperature to kill all living things.
B)have a very high temperature, vaporizing all matter.
C)freeze at a uniform low temperature.
D)use up the entire supply of entropy.
Q4) The heat needed to warm one gram of water one Celsius degree is called a A)joule.
B)calorie.
C)Btu.
D)kilocalorie.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Wave Motions and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) The time that is required for a vibrating object to complete one full cycle is called
A)frequency.
B)wavelength.
C)amplitude.
D)period.
Q2) When you are moving toward a stationary source of a sound, its frequency will appear lower than it actually is.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The higher the frequency of a sound wave
A)the higher the pitch.
B)the longer the wavelength.
C)the higher the velocity.
D)the greater the amplitude.
Q4) In resonance the amplitude of a vibrating source becomes larger.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrical resistance is a property of conductors that is measured in units of A)coulomb.
B)volt.
C)amp.
D)ohm.
Q2) The reading on your electric bill shows the amount of power you have used in a month.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you double the distance between two charged objects, you reduce the electrical force by a factor of four.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The resistance of a wire depends on
A)the length of the wire.
B)the cross-sectional area of the wire.
C)the temperature of the wire.
D)All of the above.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Light
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phenomena such as diffraction and interference can be most easily explained in terms of the
A)ray model of light.
B)particle model of light.
C)wave model of light.
D)photoelectric effect.
Q2) The radiation from the Sun is most intense near the yellow-green wavelength. A)True
B)False
Q3) You are able to see non-luminous objects because light has undergone A)diffuse reflection.
B)refraction.
C)constructive interference.
D)a change in speed.
Q4) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of refraction. A)True B)False
Q5) The sky appears blue due to the light reflected from the oceans. A)True B)False
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Chapter 8: Atoms and Periodic Properties
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Q1) Isotopes of an element are atoms that have
A)the same number of protons, but a different number of electron.
B)the same number of neutrons, but a different number of protons.
C)the same number of protons, but a different number of neutrons.
D)equal numbers of protons and neutrons.
Q2) The energy of a photon of light emitted by an electron equals the
A)energy of the level it currently occupies.
B)energy of the level it just left.
C)energy of the ground state of the atom.
D)difference in energy between two levels.
Q3) Niels Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom
A)was controversial because it contradicted accepted principles of physics.
B)held that electrons existed in allowed orbits and nowhere else.
C)accounted for the observed spectrum in hydrogen.
D)All of the above.
Q4) The atomic number of an element is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Chemical Bonds
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Sample Questions
Q1) A covalent bond is a shared pair of electrons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Atoms gain or lose electrons in chemical reactions in order to increase their energy state.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What kind(s) of bonding takes place in NaOH?
A)covalent
B)ionic
C)metallic
D)both covalent and ionic
Q4) The -ide ending in nitrogen dioxide tells you that this is an ionic compound.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Ionic compounds are generally
A)white, crystalline solids.
B)gaseous substances.
C)syrupy liquids.
D)amorphous solids.
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Chapter 10: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the formula weight of methane, CH<sub>4</sub>?
A)13 u
B)16 u
C)52 u
D)None of the above.
Q2) Because of our belief in the law of conservation of mass, it seems reasonable that A)in combustion reactions, part of the mass of the reactants must be converted into fire. B)the mass of a newly formed compound cannot be changed. C)molecules cannot be broken down, for the mass would be reduced. D)the number of atoms of reactants must equal the number of atoms of products.
Q3) What is the total mass of products in the methane reaction shown before question 11?
A)80 u
B)64 u
C)62 u
D)48 u
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Chapter 11: Water and Solutions
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Q1) Polar compounds such as alcohol would be expected to be
A)more soluble in water than in non-polar solvents.
B)more soluble in non-polar solvents than in water.
C)equally soluble in water and non-polar solvents.
D)None of the above.
Q2) A strong acid is a concentrated solution of the acid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A solution is saturated when no more of a solute will dissolve in a solvent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Highway departments spread salt on icy roads because the solution process generates heat, which melts the ice.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The solubility of a gas in water decreases as the water temperature increases.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Organic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sucrose is an example of a A)monosaccharide.
B)disaccharide.
C)polysaccharide.
D)fruit sugar.
Q2) The R in R-COOH or R-C=O stands for A)a reactive atom.
B)a separate functional group.
C)any hydrocarbon group.
D)a rigid part of the molecule.
Q3) Sugars, starches, and cellulose belong to the class of A)polymers.
B)triglycerides.
C)carbohydrates.
D)carboxylic acids.
Q4) What would paint thinner, a petroleum distillate, most likely contain?
A)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>
B)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
C)C<sub>17</sub>H<sub>34</sub>
D)C<sub>40</sub>H<sub>82</sub>
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Nuclear Reactions
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Q1) Airline crews receive roughly three times the background radiation of those of us who spend most of our time on the ground.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As the size of nuclei increases, the ratio of neutrons to protons in the band of stability increases to
A)1.25 to 1.
B)1.5 to 1.
C)2 to 1.
D)None of the above.
Q3) This type of radiation ionizes atoms and molecules.
A)alpha
B)beta
C)gamma
D)All of the above.
Q4) X undergoes radioactive decay to Y with a half-life of five minutes.After 10 minutes, the sample of X has completely decayed to Y.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: The Universe
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Q1) The difference in brightness between two stars is related to the
A)amount of light and energy produced by the stars.
B)relative size of the stars.
C)distance to the stars.
D)All of the above.
Q2) Red giants are enormously bright because they are extremely hot.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The location of the celestial meridian is determined by your location.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which type of star has the shortest life span?
A)large, very massive
B)small, not very massive
C)one on the main sequence
D)a star about the size of our Sun
Q5) It is known that if there is sufficient dark matter in the universe, then the universe will eventually stop its expansion.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Solar System
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Q1) The smallest planet in the solar system is
A)Mercury.
B)Mars.
C)Uranus.
D)Venus.
Q2) It is impossible to theorize about the formation of the solar system because no other planetary systems can be observed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The asteroids forming a belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter were prevented from forming a planet by the strong gravitational field of Jupiter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One of the following planets is denser than the others:
A)Saturn.
B)Jupiter.
C)Uranus.
D)Earth.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Earth in Space
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Q1) The findings from the Apollo space missions to the Moon support the idea that the Moon formed from the impact of Earth with a very large object.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The position of a spot on the floor made by a sunbeam traces out a "figure eight" pattern over the course of a year.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During which phase of the Moon would we most likely see a solar eclipse?
A)full
B)first quarter
C)last quarter
D)new
Q4) How frequently does the Sun appear directly overhead in Mexico City (\(\approx\) 20? N latitude)?
A)daily
B)once a year
C)twice a year
D)four times a year
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Chapter 17: Rocks and Minerals
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Q1) Fine-grained igneous rocks formed as magma cooled slowly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Granite and basalt are different because of their rate of cooling when they formed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not an example of a silicate mineral?
A)quartz
B)hornblende
C)limestone
D)feldspar
Q4) The most common rock type in Earth's crust is
A)igneous.
B)sedimentary.
C)metamorphic.
D)clastic.
Q5) Very rapid cooling of magma produces glass rather than a mineral.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Plate Tectonics
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Q1) When an oceanic plate and continental plate converge
A)the continental plate is subducted beneath the oceanic plate.
B)the two plates buckle and uplift the crustal material.
C)the oceanic plate is subducted beneath the continental plate.
D)new crustal material is created at the boundary.
Q2) P-waves travel through both solid and liquid rock, but S-waves cannot travel through liquid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The mantle is largely composed of ferromagnesian minerals such as olivine. A)True
B)False
Q4) The interior of Earth is molten from the heat produced by the intense bombardment Earth experienced during its formation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The crust is a thin layer of granite rock that makes up the continents and ocean basins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Building Earths Surface
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Q1) The principle of uniformity states that past geologic processes were very much similar to those of the present.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An arch-shaped fold resulting from plastic deformation is called
A)an anticline.
B)a syncline.
C)a plunging fold.
D)an isoclinal fold.
Q3) A rock that experiences plastic strain in response to stress
A)returns to its original shape when the stress is relieved.
B)cannot return to its original shape when the stress is relieved.
C)cracks or fractures.
D)fails to reach its elastic limit.
Q4) The Columbia Plateau in Washington, Idaho, and Oregon
A)is a vast volcanic neck.
B)resulted from the upthrust of sedimentary rock beds.
C)is made of many layers of basalt.
D)is a huge granite dome.
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Chapter 20: Shaping Earths Surface
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Q1) An easily crumbled soil with approximately equal amounts of sand, silt, and clay is called loam.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Glaciers form when
A)the temperature remains below freezing.
B)snow accumulates to form ice, which begins to flow.
C)a summer climate does not occur.
D)a solid mass of snow moves downhill under the influence of gravity.
Q3) A peneplain with monadnocks mean the landform development is in what stage?
A)early youth
B)rejuvenation
C)old age
D)maturity
Q4) The limestone caves of Kentucky and New Mexico were formed by the chemical weathering of limestone by carbonation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Geologic Time
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Q1) If you were hunting dinosaur fossils, you would be examining rocks from which era?
A)Precambrian
B)Paleozoic
C)Mesozoic
D)Cenozoic
Q2) The Geologic Time Scale defines eras in terms of
A)major worldwide extinctions of life on Earth.
B)reversals in Earth's magnetic field.
C)the beginning of the radioactive decay of elements in minerals.
D)major plate tectonic events.
Q3) Which of the following is not a common way for fossils to form?
A)preservation of skeletal remains
B)preservation of an organism's shape
C)preservation of signs of activity
D)preservation of soft parts by entombment in amber
Q4) Minerals replaced the wood in trees over a very long period making petrified wood.
A)True
B)False
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23
Chapter 22: The Atmosphere of Earth
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Q1) Hot air rising from the equatorial regions cools and descends to form
A)a belt of moist, low-pressure air.
B)a belt of dry, high-pressure air.
C)the jet stream.
D)a Chinook.
Q2) The principle components of Earth's atmosphere are nitrogen, oxygen, and A)carbon dioxide.
B)argon.
C)water vapor.
D)hydrogen.
Q3) The temperature of the atmosphere decreases steadily with increasing altitude. A)True
B)False
Q4) When a glass filled with a cold beverage "sweats," water evaporating from the surface of the beverage condenses on the cold glass surface.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The oceans contain much more carbon dioxide than does Earth's atmosphere. A)True
B)False
24
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Chapter 23: Weather and Climate
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Q1) Longer periods of drizzle, rain, or snow are usually associated with which cloud type?
A)stratus
B)cumulus
C)cirrus
D)None of the above.
Q2) From this graph, estimate the temperature of a parcel of air that has risen to 400 m.
A)26ºC
B)27.5ºC
C)25ºC
D)1.5ºC
Q3) Raindrops in a summer rainstorm may have actually started as ice crystals at high altitudes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Without condensation nuclei, a cooling air mass can become supersaturated.
A)True
B)False
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25
Chapter 24: Earths Waters
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Q1) Plant life in the upper, sunlit water tends to reduce the concentration of carbon dioxide and increase the concentration of dissolved oxygen gas.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The average daily water consumption in the United States is roughly ____ liters/day.
A)150
B)570
C)1,500
D)5,700
Q3) The largest freshwater reservoir in the world is
A)the oceans.
B)lakes and streams.
C)the atmosphere.
D)glaciers and ice caps.
Q4) The water that runs in permanent streams
A)comes from the runoff of recent rains or snow.
B)comes from groundwater that has seeped into the stream channel.
C)accounts for about 70% of precipitation.
D)flows intermittently.
26
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