Physical Science
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Physical Science is an interdisciplinary course that explores the fundamental principles governing the natural world, focusing primarily on the fields of physics and chemistry. Students will investigate topics such as matter and its properties, energy transformations, motion, forces, electricity, magnetism, and the laws that dictate how these phenomena interact. Through a combination of theoretical understanding and practical experiments, the course aims to develop critical thinking skills, scientific literacy, and an appreciation for the role of science in everyday life and technological advancement.
Recommended Textbook
The Cosmic Perspective 8th Edition by Jeffrey O. Bennett
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Modern View of the Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) Earth is made mostly of metals and rocks.Where did this material come from?
A)It was produced in the Big Bang.
B)It was created by chemical reactions in interstellar space.
C)It was produced by the nuclear fusion in stars that made the heavy elements.
D)It was made by our Sun.
E)It was made by nuclear fission of uranium and other radioactive materials.
Answer: C
Q2) If we use 1 millimeter to represent 1 light-year,how large in diameter is the Milky Way Galaxy?
A)100 millimeters
B)100 meters
C)1 kilometer
D)100 kilometers
E)1 million millimeters
Answer: B
Q3) Consider the following statement,and explain whether or not it is sensible: Earth is always precisely 1 AU from the Sun.
Answer: Not sensible: One AU is the average distance between Earth and the Sun.
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Chapter 2: Discovering the Universe for Yourself
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Q1) If,from the point of view of Earth-bound observers,the Moon is in new Moon phase on a particular day,what phase is Earth as seen from the Moon?
Answer: full Earth
Q2) Why is it summer in the Northern Hemisphere when it is winter in the Southern Hemisphere?
A)The Northern Hemisphere is closer to the Sun than the Southern Hemisphere.
B)The Northern Hemisphere is "on top" of Earth and therefore receives more sunlight.
C)The Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun and receives more direct sunlight.
D)The Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the Sun and receives more indirect sunlight.
E)It isn't: both hemispheres have the same seasons at the same time.
Answer: C
Q3) If you lived on the Moon,you'd see full Earth when we see new Moon.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: The Science of Astronomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Copernicus's model of the solar system gave much better predictions than the model of Ptolemy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) How did the Ptolemaic model explain the apparent retrograde motion of the planets?
A)The planets moved along small circles that moved on larger circles around Earth.
B)The planets sometimes stopped moving and then reversed to move backward along their circular orbits.
C)The model showed that apparent retrograde motion occurs as Earth passes by another planet in its orbit of the Sun.
D)The planets resided on giant spheres that sometimes turned clockwise and sometimes turned counterclockwise.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Making Sense of the Universe: Understanding
Motion, Energy, and Gravity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under what conditions is an object weightless?
Q2) The mass of Jupiter can be calculated by
A)measuring the orbital period and distance of Jupiter's orbit around the Sun.
B)measuring the orbital period and distance of one of Jupiter's moons.
C)measuring the orbital speed of one of Jupiter's moons.
D)knowing the Sun's mass and measuring how Jupiter's speed changes during its elliptical orbit around the Sun.
E)knowing the Sun's mass and measuring the average distance of Jupiter from the Sun.
Q3) The orbital period of a geosynchronous satellite is
A)23 hours 56 minutes.
B)24 hours.
C)365.25 days.
D)12 years.
E)26,000 years.
Q4) In the formula E=mc²,what does E represent?
A)the mass-energy,or potential energy stored in an object's mass
B)the kinetic energy of a moving object
C)the radiative energy carried by light
D)the gravitational potential energy of an object held above the ground
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Light and Matter: Reading Messages from the Cosmos
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Sample Questions
Q1) An atom in an excited state contains more of what type of energy than the same atom in the ground state?
A)mass-energy
B)kinetic energy
C)thermal energy
D)gravitational potential energy
E)electric potential energy
Q2) Consider an atom of oxygen in which the nucleus contains 8 protons and 8 neutrons.If it is doubly ionized,what is the charge of the oxygen ion and how many electrons remain in the ion?
A)Charge = +2;number of remaining electrons = 8.
B)Charge = -2;number of remaining electrons = 10.
C)Charge = +2;number of remaining electrons = 6.
D)Charge = +2;number of remaining electrons = 2.
Q3) Suppose you have a 100-watt light bulb that you leave turned on for one minute.How much energy does it use?
A)6,000 joules
B)6,000 watts
C)100 watts
D)100 joules
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Telescopes: Portals of Discovery
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Q1) Process of Science: Explain how technology advances help address astronomical questions.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the principle advantage of CCDs over photographic film?
A)CCDs allow long exposures (e.g. ,minutes or hours)and film does not.
B)CCDs capture a much higher percentage of the incoming photons than film.
C)CCDs can record the colors of astronomical objects accurately while film cannot.
D)CCDs can be attached to modern telescopes more easily than can photographic film.
Q3) In what part of the electromagnetic spectrum do the biggest telescopes on Earth operate?
A)radio
B)infrared
C)visible
D)ultraviolet
E)X-ray
Q4) X-rays from astronomical objects can only be detected from telescopes in space.
A)True
B)False
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8
Chapter 7: Our Planetary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the outer planets?
A)They have very few,if any,satellites.
B)They are all large balls of gas.
C)They are primarily made of hydrogen and helium.
D)Their orbits are separated by relatively large distances.
E)They all have rings.
Q2) Which planet has a ring system?
A)Jupiter
B)Saturn
C)Uranus
D)Neptune
E)all of the above
Q3) Where does nuclear fusion occur in the Sun?
A)on the surface
B)anywhere below the surface
C)in its core
D)just above the visible surface
E)all of the above
Q4) What are some of the things that make Earth unique in the solar system?
Q5) What is comparative planetology,and what is its basic premise?
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Chapter 8: Formation of the Solar System
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Q1) Within the frost line,planetesimals were composed entirely of rock and outside the frost line planetesimals were composed entirely of ice.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the giant impact hypothesis for the origin of the Moon?
A)The Moon formed when two gigantic asteroids collided with one another.
B)The Moon originally was about the same size as Earth,but a giant impact blasted most of it away so that it ended up much smaller than Earth.
C)The Moon formed from material blasted out of the Earth's mantle and crust by the impact of a Mars-size object.
D)The Moon formed just like Earth,from accretion in the solar nebula.
Q3) What is the primary basis upon which we divide the ingredients of the solar nebula into four categories (hydrogen/helium;hydrogen compound;rock;metal)?
A)the temperatures at which various materials will condense from gaseous form to solid form
B)the atomic mass numbers of various materials
C)the locations of various materials in the solar nebula
D)the amounts of energy required to ionize various materials
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Chapter 9: Planetary Geology: Earth and the Other
Terrestrial Worlds
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Q1) What observational evidence supports the idea that Mercury once shrank by some 20 kilometers in radius?
A)the presence of many impact craters
B)the characteristics of the Caloris Basin
C)Mercury's unusually high density
D)the presence of many long,tall cliffs
Q2) The strength of a rock depends on its composition,its temperature,and the surrounding pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following describes impact cratering?
A)the excavation of bowl-shaped depressions by asteroids or comets striking a planet's surface
B)the eruption of molten rock from a planet's interior to its surface
C)the disruption of a planet's surface by internal stresses
D)the wearing down or building up of geological features by wind,water,ice,and other phenomena of planetary weather
Q4) Describe the three sources of internal heat of the terrestrial planets?
Q5) Why is erosion more effective on Earth than on Venus or Mars?
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Chapter 10: Planetary Atmospheres: Earth and the Other
Terrestrial Worlds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Earth's stratosphere is heated primarily by which process?
A)Convection from the Earth's surface.
B)Absorption of infrared radiation by greenhouse gases.
C)Absorption of visible light by ozone.
D)Absorption of ultraviolet radiation by ozone.
E)Atoms and molecules absorb infrared sunlight.
Q2) Based on everything we have learned about Venus and Mars,what is the most surprising aspect of Earth's climate history?
A)the fact that the temperature of our planet has remained relatively steady throughout our planet's history
B)the fact that Earth apparently got a lot of atmospheric gas from outgassing by volcanoes
C)the fact that Earth had enough water to form oceans
D)the fact that Earth's climate can be affected by changes in its axis tilt
Q3) What is the "runaway greenhouse effect"?
Q4) Why is the sky blue (on Earth)?
A)because the Sun emits mostly blue light
B)because molecules scatter red light more effectively than blue light
C)because deep space is blue in color
D)because molecules scatter blue light more effectively than red light
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Chapter 11: Jovian Planet Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What atmospheric constituent is responsible for the blue color of Uranus and Neptune?
A)methane
B)hydrogen
C)water
D)ammonia
Q2) If Jupiter were 10 times more massive,it would actually have a smaller radius.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Jupiter and the other jovian planets are sometimes called "gas giants." In what sense is this term misleading?
A)The materials they are made of are not the kinds of thing we usually think of as gases.
B)They are not in any sense "giants."
C)Actually,it's a great description,because these worlds are big and gaseous throughout.
D)They actually contain relatively little material in a gaseous state.
Q4) Jupiter is slowly shrinking through gravitational contraction today.
A)True
B)False
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13
Chapter 12: Asteroids, Comets, and Dwarf Planets: Their
Nature, Orbits, and Impacts
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Q1) Among discovered meteorites,we have found some with all the following origins except
A)being a fragment from the surface of Mars.
B)being a fragment from the surface of the Moon.
C)being a fragment from Comet Halley.
D)being a fragment of a shattered asteroid.
Q2) Why does the plasma tail of a comet always point away from the Sun?
A)The solar wind electromagnetically "blows" the ions directly away from the Sun.
B)Radiation pressure from the Sun's light pushes the ions away.
C)The conservation of the angular momentum of the tail keeps it always pointing away from the Sun.
D)Gases from the comet,heated by the Sun,push the tail away from the Sun.
E)It is allergic to sunlight.
Q3) Viewed from Pluto,the Sun would appear more than a thousand times fainter than on Earth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe at least three ways in which our solar system would be different if orbital resonances had never been important.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Other Planetary Systems: The New Science of Distant Worlds
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Q1) What would happen to the planets in a solar system where the central star did not have a strong wind?
A)One planet would grow to dominate all the others and gravitationally eject them out of the system.
B)All planets would continue to grow to large sizes but their orbits would be unchanged.
C)The gas in the solar nebula would create a drag on the planets and their orbits would migrate inwards.
D)The gas in the solar nebula would create a drag on the planets and their orbits would migrate outwards.
E)Nothing,the star does not affect the process of planet formation.
Q2) A planet's density can be measured by combining
A)Doppler and astrometric observations.
B)Doppler and transit observations.
C)spectral observations of the planet's atmosphere.
D)any method that measures the gravitational tug of the planet on the star.
E)direct imaging from the new generation of space telescopes.
Q3) Why is our Jupiter not a "hot Jupiter"?
Q4) Why is it so difficult to make a direct image of a planet around another star?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Our Star
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does the Sun emit neutrinos?
A)Solar flares create neutrinos with magnetic fields.
B)Fusion in the Sun's core creates neutrinos.
C)Convection releases neutrinos,which random walk through the radiation zone.
D)The Sun was born with a supply of neutrinos that it gradually emits into space.
E)The Sun does not emit neutrinos.
Q2) The Sun is a relatively young star,near the beginning of its life.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The fundamental nuclear reaction occurring in the core of the Sun is
A)nuclear fission.
B)radioactive decay.
C)nuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium.
D)nuclear fusion of helium to carbon.
Q4) Briefly describe the phenomena of the sunspot cycle.
Q5) The chromosphere is the layer of the Sun that we see as its visible surface.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Might changes in the Sun affect weather or climate on Earth?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Surveying the Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose our Sun were suddenly replaced by a supergiant star.Which of the following would be true?
A)Earth would be inside the supergiant.
B)The supergiant's surface temperature would be much hotter than the surface temperature of our Sun.
C)Earth would fly off into interstellar space.
D)The supergiant would appear as large as the full Moon in our sky.
Q2) Approximately,what basic composition are all stars born with?
A)half hydrogen,half helium,no more than 2 percent heavier elements
B)three-quarters hydrogen,one-quarter helium,no more than 2 percent heavier elements
C)90 percent hydrogen,10 percent helium,no more than 1 percent heavier elements
D)one-quarter hydrogen,three-quarters helium,no more than 2 percent heavier elements
E)98 percent hydrogen,2 percent helium
Q3) If Star A is closer to us than Star B,then Star A's parallax angle is
A)smaller than that of Star B.
B)larger than that of Star B.
C)hotter than that of Star B.
D)fewer parsecs than that of Star B.
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Chapter 16: Star Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clouds that appear dark in visible light often glow when observed at long infrared wavelengths.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most stars are born in clusters containing thousands of stars.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is interstellar reddening?
A)Interstellar dust absorbs more red light than blue light,making stars appear redder than their true color.
B)Interstellar dust absorbs more red light than blue light,making stars appear bluer than their true color.
C)Interstellar dust absorbs more blue light than red light,making stars appear redder than their true color.
D)Interstellar dust absorbs more blue light than red light,making stars appear bluer than their true color.
E)The spectral line shift due to a star's motion through the interstellar medium.
Q4) Explain how gas in a protostellar disk spirals onto the central star.
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Chapter 17: Star Stuff
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Q1) An H-R diagram for a globular cluster will show a horizontal branch-a line of stars above the main-sequence but to the left of the subgiants and red giants.Which of the following statements about these horizontal branch stars is true?
A)They have inert (non-burning)carbon cores.
B)Their sole source of energy is hydrogen shell burning.
C)They generate energy through both hydrogen fusion and helium fusion.
D)In a particular star cluster,all horizontal branch stars have the same spectral type.
Q2) Which statement about this cluster is not true?
A)It is likely to be located in the halo of the galaxy.
B)It contains some stars that are burning helium in their cores.
C)It is the type of cluster known as an open cluster of stars.
D)It probably contains no young stars at all.
E)It is likely to be spherical in shape.
Q3) A spinning neutron star has been observed at the center of a A)planetary nebula.
B)supernova remnant.
C)red supergiant.
D)protostar.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Bizarre Stellar Graveyard
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Q1) What would happen if a small piece (say the size of a paper clip)of neutron star material struck Earth?
Q2) What makes us think that the star system Cygnus X-1 contains a black hole?
A)It emits X-rays characteristic of an accretion disk,but the unseen star in the system is too massive to be a neutron star.
B)No light is emitted from this star system,so it must contain a black hole.
C)The fact that we see strong X-ray emission tells us that the system must contain a black hole.
D)Cygnus X-1 is a powerful X-ray burster,so it must contain a black hole.
Q3) Which of the following statements about degeneracy pressure is not true?
A)Degeneracy pressure can continue to support an object against gravitational collapse even if the object becomes extremely cold.
B)Degeneracy pressure arises from a quantum mechanical effect that we don't notice in our daily lives.
C)Black holes form when gravity overcomes neutron degeneracy pressure.
D)Degeneracy pressure can arise only from interactions among electrons.
Q4) What is an X-ray burster? What causes the X-ray bursts?
Q5) Why would Earth's orbit be unaffected were the Sun to suddenly become a black hole?
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Chapter 19: Our Galaxy
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Q1) The most common form of gas in the disk of the Milky Way Galaxy is
A)molecular hydrogen.
B)gas in hot bubbles.
C)atomic hydrogen gas.
D)gas in stellar winds.
Q2) Shapley used the distribution of globular clusters in the galaxy to determine that the Sun was not at the center of the Milky Way.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What kinds of objects lie in the disk of our galaxy?
A)open clusters
B)O and B stars
C)old K and M stars
D)gas and dust
E)all of the above
Q4) Spiral arms appear bright because
A)they contain more hot young stars than other parts of the disk.
B)they contain far more stars than other parts of the galactic disk.
C)they contain more molecular clouds than other parts of the disk.
D)they are the only places where we find stars within the disk of the galaxy.
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Chapter 20: Galaxies and the Foundations of Modern Cosmology
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Q1) Galaxies with disks but no evident spiral arms are called
A)irregular galaxies.
B)lenticular galaxies.
C)barred spiral galaxies.
D)spheroidal components.
Q2) If we say that a galaxy has a lookback time of 1 billion years,we mean that
A)its light traveled through space for 1 billion years to reach us.
B)is now 1 billion light-years away.
C)it was 1 billion light-years away when the light left the galaxy.
D)it is 400 million years old.
Q3) What does cosmological redshift do to light?
A)makes it brighter
B)stretches its wavelength
C)makes it slow down
D)makes all light infrared
Q4) Stars are continually forming in the halo of our Galaxy today.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
Q5) Process of Science: How we can test that a so-called "standard candle" is indeed standard?
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Chapter 21: Galaxy Evolution
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Q1) Briefly explain why starburst galaxies appear fairly ordinary when they are observed in visible light but extraordinary when they are observed in infrared light.
Q2) Intergalactic hydrogen clouds are easiest to study by looking at
A)21 cm radio emission.
B)radio emission from molecular hydrogen.
C)X-ray emission.
D)absorption lines in quasar spectra.
Q3) How does a starburst end? What might happen to the galaxy afterwards?
Q4) I observe a galaxy that is 100 million light-years away: what do I see?
A)the light from the galaxy as it is today,but it is blueshifted
B)the light from the galaxy as it is today,but it is redshifted
C)the light from the galaxy as it was 100 million years ago and it it blueshifted
D)the light from the galaxy as it was 100 million years ago and it is redshifted
E)Nothing: the galaxy lies beyond the cosmological horizon.
Q5) Galaxy collisions were more common in the past.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Why do spiral galaxy mergers often trigger starbursts?
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Chapter 22: The Birth of the Universe
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Q1) Evidence that the cosmic background radiation really is the remnant of a Big Bang comes from predicting characteristics of remnant radiation from the Big Bang and comparing these predictions with observations.Four of the five statements below are real.Which one is fictitious?
A)The cosmic background radiation is expected to have a temperature just a few degrees above absolute zero,and its actual temperature turns out to be about 3 K (actually 2.7 K).
B)The cosmic background radiation is expected to have a perfect thermal spectrum,and observations from the COBE spacecraft verify this prediction.
C)The cosmic background radiation is expected to contain spectral lines of hydrogen and helium,and it does.
D)The cosmic background radiation is expected to look essentially the same in all directions,and it does.
E)The cosmic background radiation is expected to have tiny temperature fluctuations at the level of about 1 part in 100,000.Such fluctuations were found in the COBE data.
Q2) Briefly describe the two key pieces of evidence that support the Big Bang theory.
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24
Chapter 23: Dark Matter, Dark Energy, and the Fate of the Universe
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Q1) What is not a main source of evidence for the existence of dark matter?
A)massive blue stars
B)rotation curves of disk galaxies
C)stellar motions in elliptical galaxies
D)velocities and positions of galaxies in clusters of galaxies
E)gravitational lensing by clusters of galaxies
Q2) Imagine that it turns out that dark matter (not dark energy)is made up of an unstable form of matter that decays into photons or other forms of energy about 50 billion years from now.Based on current understanding,how would that affect the universe at that time?
A)Stars would cease to exist when the dark matter is gone.
B)Planetary systems would expand and disperse.
C)The galaxies in clusters would begin to fly apart.
D)The universe would cease its expansion.
Q3) One possible ingredient of dark matter is known as WIMPs,or weakly interacting massive particles.WIMPs probably are made of protons and neutrons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain why observations suggest the presence of dark energy in the universe.?
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Life in the Universe
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Q1) "Super-Earths" may be habitable at distances much greater from their star than Earth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) It is possible that life exists on orphan planets,even though they do not orbit a star.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How is it possible that orphan planets are potentially habitable,even though they do not orbit a star?
Q4) The Voyager I and II spacecraft visited the jovian planets in the 1980s.When will they reach the distance of the nearest stars?
A)in our lifetime
B)in our children's lifetime
C)in our grandchildren's lifetime
D)about a hundred thousand years from now
E)about a million years from now
Q5) Process of Science: Since the Drake equation does not give us a clear answer on how many aliens we expect to find,why it is useful scientifically?
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Chapter 25: Celestial Timekeeping and Navigation
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Q1) Which star can never be seen at latitude 40°N?
Q2) Which bright star (lowercase letters)is Algol,the "demon star"?
Q3) The three bright stars that make up the Winter Triangle are
A)Polaris,Aldebaran,and Algol.
B)Polaris,Betelgeuse,and Sirius.
C)Betelgeuse,Procyon,and Sirius.
D)Betelgeuse,Rigel,and Aldebaran.
E)Capella,Procyon,and Sirius.
Q4) The celestial coordinates of the Sun change from day to day.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The three stars of the Summer Triangle are
A)Antares,Arcturus,and Spica.
B)Arcturus,Vega,and Algol.
C)Deneb,Spica,and Vega.
D)Vega,Deneb,and Altair.
E)Altair,Antares,and Arcturus.
Q6) Process of Science: Describe a (rare)observation that directly shows that Venus lies between the Earth and Sun.What is a simple observation that shows that Mars is further from the Sun than Earth?
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Space and Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) The predictions of special relativity can sound implausible at first.What observational evidence do scientists have that the theory is correct?
A)Subatomic particles in accelerators exhibit effects of time dilation and mass increase at high speeds.
B)Light is always observed to travel at the same speed.
C)Time dilation can be observed in airplanes.
D)All of the above
Q2) Tom is going to your left at 90% of the speed of light and Joan is going to your right at 90% of the speed of light.What will Tom say about you and Joan?
A)You are moving away from him at 90% the speed of light.Joan is moving away from him at 180% of the speed of light.
B)You are moving away from him at 90% the speed of light.Joan is moving away from him at as speed that is faster than 90% of the speed of light,but slower than the whole speed of light.
C)You are moving away from him at 90% the speed of light.Joan is moving away from him at as speed of light.
D)You and Joan are both moving away from him at 90% the speed of light.
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Chapter 27: Spacetime and Gravity
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Sample Questions
Q1) We expect to directly detect gravitational waves in the near future.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you draw a spacetime diagram,the worldline of an object that is stationary in your reference frame is
A)vertical.
B)horizontal.
C)slanted.
D)curved.
E)a circle.
Q3) Assuming you are sitting still as you take this quiz,how would you draw your own worldline on a spacetime diagram?
A)as a straight,vertical line
B)as a straight,horizontal line
C)as a diagonal line
D)You would not have a worldline since you are not moving.
Q4) In your own words,explain what we mean by spacetime.
Q5) Process of Science: Describe a piece of observational evidence supporting general relativity.
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Q6) Briefly explain how the universe can be finite yet have no center and no edges.
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Chapter 28: Building Blocks of the Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two families of fundamental particles out of which all ordinary matter is made are
A)protons and neutrons.
B)leptons and quarks.
C)electrons and neutrinos.
D)quarks and neutrinos.
E)leptons and photons.
Q2) What does the exclusion principle say?
A)No two particles of any type can ever occupy the same quantum state at the same time.
B)If a particle has a precisely defined position it is excluded from having a precisely defined momentum.
C)The laws of quantum mechanics are excluded from our common sense.
D)Two fermions cannot occupy the same quantum state at the same time.
Q3) An up quark (u)has a charge of +2/3 and a down quark (d)has a charge of -1/3.Which of the following describes a neutron?
A)uuu
B)uud
C)udd
D)ddd
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