Physical Science Laboratory
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Physical Science Laboratory is a hands-on course designed to complement theoretical concepts introduced in physical science lectures. Through a series of experiments and practical activities, students explore fundamental principles in physics, chemistry, earth science, and astronomy. The laboratory emphasizes scientific inquiry, data collection, and analytical skills, allowing students to observe phenomena, test hypotheses, and draw conclusions based on empirical evidence. By engaging in collaborative and independent laboratory work, students gain a deeper understanding of scientific methods and their applications in solving real-world problems.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Physical Science 6th Edition by Paul G. Hewitt
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29 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Patterns of Motion and Equilibrium
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Sample Questions
Q1) As an object freely falls,its
A)velocity increases.
B)acceleration increases.
C)both of these
D)none of the above
Answer: A
Q2) Which has the greatest mass?
A)a fluffed-up king-size pillow
B)a scrunched-up king-size pillow
C)an automobile battery
D)all about the same
Answer: C
Q3) If Burl carried Paul piggy-back while standing in the middle of a scaffold,the tensions in the two supporting ropes would
A)cancel to zero.
B)be equal.
C)be unequal.
D)more easily support Burl and Paul.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Newtons Laws of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) If gravity between the Sun and Earth suddenly vanished,Earth would move in A)a curved path.
B)an outward spiral path.
C)an inward spiral path.
D)a straight-line path.
Answer: D
Q2) A sack of potatoes weighing 200 N falls from an airplane.As the velocity of fall increases,air resistance also increases.When air resistance equals 200 N,the sack's acceleration is
A)0 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
B)5 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
C)10 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
D)infinite.
E)none of the above
Answer: A
Q3) To say there is no such thing as only one force means A)there must also be an oppositely directed force.
B)other forces,perhaps not evident,are there.
C)gibberish.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Momentum and Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A popular swinging-balls apparatus (Newton's cradle)consists of a series of identical elastic balls suspended by strings so they barely touch each other.When two balls are pulled away from one end and released,they strike the row of balls and two balls pop out from the other end.If instead,one ball popped out with twice the speed,this would violate the conservation of A)momentum. B)energy.
C)both of these D)none of the above
Answer: B
Q2) A music console is pushed 2 m by a force of 20 N.The work done on the console is A)2 J.
B)10 J.
C)20 J.
D)40 J.
E)80 J.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Gravity, Projectiles, and Satellites
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Sample Questions
Q1) If there were no gravity,a cannonball fired upward at 45° would follow a straight-line path.Due to gravity,however,at the end of 3 s it is
A)5 m below the straight line.
B)10 m below the straight line.
C)15 m below the straight line.
D)20 m below the straight line.
E)more than 20 m below the straight line.
Q2) If there were no gravity,a ball thrown upward at an angle would follow a straight-line path.Due to gravity,however,at the end of 1 s it is
A)5 m below the straight line.
B)10 m below the straight line.
C)15 m below the straight line.
D)20 m below the straight line.
E)more than 20 m below the straight line.
Q3) Your weight is equal to mg when you are
A)firmly supported on a horizontal surface and in equilibrium.
B)in Earth's gravitational field.
C)anywhere except in Earth's orbit.
D)all of the above
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Fluid Mechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The density of a submarine cruising beneath the ocean surface has the same density as A)a crab.
B)iron.
C)a floating submarine.
D)ocean water.
E)none of the above
Q2) When a gas in a container is squeezed to half its volume at constant temperature,the gas pressure
A)is half.
B)doubles.
C)quadruples.
D)remains the same.
Q3) When a gas in a container is squeezed to half its volume at constant temperature,its density
A)halves.
B)doubles.
C)quadruples.
D)remains the same.
Q4) Explain why ships of any weight are balanced on the Falkirk Wheel.
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Chapter 6: Thermal Energy and Thermodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which law of thermodynamics addresses the direction of heat flow?
A)First law
B)Second law
C)Third law
D)all of the above
Q2) Which will stay cooler for a longer time in a picnic cooler on a hot summer day?
A)sandwiches
B)salami
C)Jello
Q3) A pre-electronic thermostat employs a coiled
A)wire of low conductivity.
B)bimetallic strip.
C)tube of mercury.
Q4) The temperature of water rises when 2.00 calories are added.It will rise the same when
A)4.19 J are added.
B)8.38 J are added.
C)83.4 J are added.
Q5) Explain what is meant by saying a thermometer measures its own temperature.
Page 8
Q6) Distinguish between the concepts of thermal energy,temperature,and heat.
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Chapter 7: Heat Transfer and Change of Phase
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Sample Questions
Q1) We feel uncomfortably warm on a muggy day because water molecules are A)evaporating from our moist bodies.
B)condensing on our bodies.
C)preventing the evaporation from our moist bodies.
Q2) A bare roof of a warmly heated home on a snowy day indicates A)an unwanted flow of heat.
B)good insulation.
C)a change of phase.
D)all of the above
Q3) Convection currents in the air near a seashore are produced by A)shifting winds.
B)unequal heating of land and water.
C)varying temperatures.
D)none of the above
Q4) The planet Earth loses heat primarily by A)conduction.
B)convection.
C)radiation.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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Chapter 8: Static and Current Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A certain bulb with a resistance of 95 ohms and labeled "150 W" is designated for use in a
A)120-V circuit.
B)240-V circuit.
C)either
D)not enough information
Q2) Which has the larger resistance,a 60-W or a 100-W incandescent lamp,both rated for 120-V operation?
A)60-W lamp
B)100-W lamp
C)both the same
Q3) Two charged particles near each other are released.As the particles move,the velocity of each increases.Therefore,the particles have
A)the same sign.
B)the opposite sign.
C)not enough information
Q4) Which has the thicker lamp filament,a 60-W incandescent bulb or a 100-W incandescent bulb?
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Chapter 9: Magnetism and Electromagnetic Induction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alternating current is normally produced by a A)battery.
B)generator.
C)both of these
D)none of the above
Q2) A strong magnetic field easily penetrates
A)human flesh.
B)plastic coatings.
C)both of these
D)none of the above
Q3) A copper ring can be made to levitate about the extended bar of an electromagnet because the magnetic field induced in the ring
A)remains strong and steady.
B)opposes the field producing it.
C)is attracted to the top end of the bar.
D)none of the above
Q4) The current produced by a common generator is A)dc.
B)ac.
C)neither of these
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) Double the frequency of sound and you also double its A)wavelength.
B)speed.
C)amplitude.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) When the handle of a tuning fork is held solidly against a table,the time the fork keeps vibrating becomes A)longer.
B)shorter.
C)remains the same
Q3) A red shift for light indicates that the light source is moving A)toward you.
B)away from you.
C)both of these
D)none of the above
Q4) If you double the frequency of a vibrating object,its period A)doubles.
B)is halved.
C)is one-quarter.
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Chapter 11: Light
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Moon's reflected image in a lake often appears as a vertical column when the water is
A)perfectly still.
B)slightly rough.
C)very rough,churning with waves.
Q2) A beam of light emerges from water into air at an angle bent
A)towards the normal
B)away from the normal.
C)in a direction parallel to the normal.
D)in a direction perpendicular to the normal.
E)not at all.
Q3) Polarization is a property of
A)transverse waves.
B)longitudinal waves.
C)both of these
D)none of the above
Q4) Relative to radio waves,the velocity of visible light waves in a vacuum is
A)less.
B)more.
C)the same.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Atoms and the Periodic Table
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Sample Questions
Q1) A beam of protons and a beam of neutrons of the same energy are both harmful to living tissue.The beam of neutrons,however,is less harmful.Why?
A)Neutrons are much smaller and lighter than protons and would do less damage.
B)Neutrons travel at reduced speed compared to the speed at which protons travel.
C)Neutrons carry no electric charge and thus have a greater likelihood of passing through the tissue.
D)All of the above are reasons why neutrons are less harmful.
Q2) The following statement describes which subatomic particle best? It does not have an electrical charge.
A)an electron
B)a proton
C)a neutron
D)A and B
E)B and C
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14
Chapter 13: The Atomic Nucleus and Radioactivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about carbon-14 dating is true?
A)Carbon-14 dating is very accurate because the amount of carbon-14 in the atmosphere is constant.
B)Carbon-14 can be used to date anything younger than 50,000 years.
C)Carbon-14 dating can be used to date stone tools as well as bone.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) What evidence supports the contention that the strong nuclear force is stronger than the electrical interaction at short inter-nuclear distances?
A)Protons are able to exist side-by-side within an atomic nucleus.
B)Neutrons spontaneously decay into protons and electrons.
C)Uranium deposits are always slightly warmer than their immediate surroundings.
D)The radio interference that arises adjacent to any radioactive source.
Q3) Which of the following statements about fission is true?
A)The amount of energy released in the fission of large nuclei is very large.
B)The amount of energy released in the fusion of small nuclei is very large.
C)Bombarding a nucleus with neutrons always leads to fission.
D)The fragments of a fusion reaction are always the same size.
E)none of the above
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Elements of Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) How would you describe the volume of the following object? the amount of water in a swimming pool
A)microscopic
B)macroscopic
C)submicroscopic
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) What do members of the Chemical Manufacturers Association pledge in the Responsible Care program?
A)The members pledge to manufacture utilizing responsible chemical standards.
B)The members pledge to manufacture without causing environmental damage.
C)The members pledge responsible care for all laboratory test animals.
D)The members pledge responsible care by using only USP grade reagents.
Q3) In naming compounds,the prefix is used to
A)indicate the level of toxicity.
B)categorize the compound.
C)indicate the relative number of atoms.
D)indicate the relative number of molecules.
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16
Chapter 15: How Atoms Bond and Molecules Attract
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many valence electrons does gallium (Ga,atomic no.= 31)have?
A)1
B)6
C)3
D)31
E)70
Q2) Which of the following elements has six valence electrons?
A)Be
B)B
C)C
D)N
E)O
Q3) The neon atom tends not to lose any electrons because A)of its relatively strong effective nuclear charge.
B)that would result in a negative ion.
C)its electrons are paired together within the same orbitals.
D)the ionization energy is so high.
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Chapter 16: Mixtures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it important to conserve fresh water?
A)There is little fresh water available to us on our planet.
B)As the human population grows,so does our need for fresh water.
C)It is expensive to purify nonpotable water.
D)all of the above
Q2) How does a suspension differ from a solution?
A)A suspension is a heterogeneous mixture whose components can be separated by simple filtration.A solution is a homogeneous mixture which cannot be separated by simple filtration.
B)A suspension is a heterogeneous mixture consisting of different phases whereas a solution is a homogeneous mixture consisting of a single phase.
C)Although a solution and suspension are both homogeneous mixtures,only the components of a suspension will separate by spinning the mixture in a centrifuge.
D)The difference between a suspension and a solution can only be determined by chemical means.
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Chapter 17: How Chemicals React
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a correctly balanced equation?
A)P<sub>4</sub> + 6 H<sub>2</sub> 4 PH<sub>3</sub>
B)1 P<sub>4</sub> + 6 H<sub>2</sub> 4 PH<sub>3</sub>
C)0 P<sub>4</sub> + 6 H<sub>2</sub> 4 PH<sub>3</sub>
D)2 P<sub>4</sub> + 12 H<sub>2</sub> 8 PH<sub>3</sub>
E)P<sub>4</sub> + 3 H<sub>2</sub> PH<sub>3</sub>
Q2) Which has the greatest number of atoms?
A)28 g of nitrogen, \(\mathrm { N } _ { 2 }\)
B)32 g of oxygen, \(\mathrm { O } _ { 2 }\)
C)16 g of methane,C \(\mathrm { H } _ { 4 }\)
D)38 g of fluorine, \(\mathrm { F } _ { 2 }\)
Q3) Since some of the compounds that are destroying ozone are found in nature normally,how is it possible to tell that the reactive molecules destroying the ozone are due to our actions?
A)They are accompanied by compounds that are only man-made.
B)The compounds only increased in the past few years.
C)The isotope distribution is unique to man-made elements.
D)The chemical composition is different than natural compounds.
E)all of the above
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Two Classes of Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The general chemical equation for photosynthesis is shown below.Through this reaction is the carbon oxidized or reduced? How can you tell? 6 \(\mathrm { CO } _ { 2 }\) + 6 \(\mathrm { H } _ { 2 }\) O ? \(\mathrm { C } _ { 6
\mathrm { O } _ { 6 }\) + 6 \(\mathrm { O } _ { 2 }\)
A)Oxidized,since carbon is in the +4 oxidation state in \(\mathrm { CO } _ { 2 }\) but in the +6 oxidation state in the product, \(\mathrm { C } _ { 6 } \mathrm { H } _
12 } \mathrm { O } _ { 6 }\) <sub>,</sub>glucose.
B)Reduced,since in carbon dioxide there are two oxygen atoms for every one carbon but within the product, \(\mathrm { C } _ { 6 } \mathrm { H } _ { 12 } \mathrm { O } _ { 6 }\) <sub>,</sub>(glucose),there is only one oxygen for every one carbon.
C)Neither,since carbon does not change its oxidation state and is neither oxidized nor reduced.
D)Both,since the carbon atoms within the glucose molecules display two different charge states.
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20
Chapter 19: Organic Compounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do ethers have lower boiling points than that of an alcohol of the same molecular weight?
A)Ethers cannot hydrogen bond to other ethers.
B)Ethers do not have hydrogens.
C)Ethers are more flammable and vaporize more easily.
D)Ethers have higher boiling points than alcohols.
E)all of the above
Q2) Explain why caprylic acid,C \(\mathrm { H } _ { 3 }\) (C \(\mathrm { H } _ { 2 }\) \()6\) COOH,dissolves in a 5 percent aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide but caprylaldehyde,C \(\mathrm { H } _ { 3 }\) (C \(\mathrm { H } _ { 2 }\) \()6\) CHO,does not.
A)With two oxygens the caprylic acid is about twice as polar the caprylaldehyde.
B)The caprylaldehyde is a gas at room temperature.
C)The caprylaldehyde behaves as a reducing agent,which neutralizes the sodium hydroxide.
D)The caprylic acid reacts to form the water soluble salt.
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Chapter 20: Rocks and Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) What two factors can change a rock's melting point?
Q2) The metamorphic equivalent of limestone is A)gneiss.
B)marble.
C)quartzite. D)schist.
Q3) Silica has a relatively A)low melting point.
B)high melting point.
Q4) The main producer of sediment is A)mechanical weathering.
B)ice wedging.
C)chemical Weathering. D)erosion.
Q5) Mica is not found in A)slate.
B)schist.
C)gneiss. D)quartzite.
Q6) Which mineral,quartz or feldspar,will crystallize first? Why?
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Chapter 21: Plate Tectonics and Earths Interior
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anticline is a fold in which the limbs bend
A)downward.
B)upward.
Q2) What simple observation inspired Alfred Wegener's hypothesis of continental drift?
Q3) Divergent boundaries are areas of
A)tensional forces that stretch the crust and generate a spreading center.
B)compressional forces that crunch the crust and generate a spreading center.
C)compressional forces that crunch and shorten the crust by folding and faulting.
D)plate collision.
Q4) Earth's internal layers were discovered by studying the movement of P- and Swaves through Earth's interior.In comparison to S-waves,the movement of P-waves is
A)fast,compressing and expanding the rock as they move through it.
B)fast,vibrating the rock particles up and down and side-to-side.
C)slower and can travel through solid granite,magma,water or air.
D)slower and can travel only through solids,not liquids.
Q5) Describe how the different paths of polar wandering helped establish that continents move over geologic time.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Shaping Earths Surface
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Sample Questions
Q1) The flow of a glacier begins
A)after it has reached a critical mass.
B)as pressure is exerted from behind.
C)when the accumulating snow begins to melt.
D)in the spring.
Q2) What is a stalactite and how does it form?
Q3) Glaciers will retreat when the amount of accumulation
A)is less than the amount of ablation each year.
B)exceeds the amount of ablation each year.
C)is equal to the amount of ablation.
Q4) In the formation of a river delta,why is it that coarser material is deposited first,followed by medium and finer material farther out?
Q5) Over withdrawal of groundwater causes ground subsidence in areas
A)of karst topography.
B)underlain by unconsolidated sediments.
C)underlain by consolidated sediments.
D)all of these
Q6) How does energy relate to the way that streams meander?
Q7) In what three ways does flowing water erode a stream channel?
Q8) What three factors affect stream speed?
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Chapter 23: Geologic Time - Reading the Rock Record
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Q1) In a sequence of rock layers we find trilobite fossils at the bottom of rock layer 1 and dinosaur fossils directly above the fossil trilobites in layer 2.There are inclusions of trilobites in layer 2.We conclude that A)dinosaurs were extinct long before trilobites came into existence.
B)dinosaurs are from the Cambrian Period.
C)by inclusion and faunal succession,layer 1 is older than layer 2.
D)there is no time gap between the rocks.
Q2) The theory that different forms of animals throughout Earth's past occurred in a definite order is called the principle of A)fossil assemblage.
B)faunal succession.
C)conformable fossils.
D)fossil determination.
Q3) The migration of humans from Asia to North America was aided by A)herds of woolly mammoths.
B)the collision of the Pacific Plate with the North American Plate.
C)land bridges due to lowered sea level.
D)glacial moraines that extended across the Bering Strait.
Q4) On what four assumptions is the principle of faunal succession based?
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Chapter 24: The Oceans, Atmosphere, and Climatic Effects
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Q1) Movement of air aloft can influence surface air pressure; sometimes air aloft spreads apart-it diverges-decreasing the mass of air above the surface.This causes the surface air pressure to
A)increase and surface winds to blow inward toward the center of highest pressure.
B)decrease and surface winds to blow inward toward the center of high pressure.
C)increase and surface winds to blow inward toward the center of low pressure.
D)decrease and surface winds to blow inward toward the center of lowest pressure.
Q2) In the tropics,the trade winds drive equatorial ocean currents
A)eastward.
B)westward.
C)southward.
D)northward.
Q3) Circulation of the ocean's surface water results from
A)blowing wind and frictional force.
B)the Coriolis effect.
C)the pressure gradient force.
D)frictional force from winds,along with the pressure gradient and Coriolis forces.
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Chapter 25: Driving Forces of Weather
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Sample Questions
Q1) When evaporation rate equals the condensation rate,the air is A)humid.
B)super-saturated.
C)at its water-vapor capacity.
D)cool,with decreasing relative humidity.
Q2) Cloud types associated with stable air include A)cumulus and cumulonimbus.
B)cirrostratus,altostratus,and stratus.
C)cirrostratus,altocumulus,and altostratus.
D)stratocumulus,stratus,and cirrostratus.
Q3) A rise in pressure is an indication
A)of an approaching cold front.
B)that a cold front has passed.
C)orographic lifting.
D)a stationary front.
Q4) When water changes from a vapor phase to a liquid phase,it A)loses energy.
B)gives off energy.
C)gains energy.
D)radiates energy.
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Chapter 26: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is Jupiter the largest planet in the solar system?
A)Because that's just the way it happened.
B)Being the oldest planetary core,it had more time than the other planets to accumulate enough gas around itself before solar winds blew interplanetary dust away.
C)Due to a massive collision with another protoplanet.
D)Because of its distance from the Sun,the gravitational attraction between it and the Sun is perfectly balanced so as to create a density that results in the largest size of any planet.
Q2) Why is Mars' greenhouse effect negligible compared to that of Earth's?
A)Its mass is only one-ninth of Earth's.
B)Greenhouse gas emissions were greatly curtailed according to the International Mars Greenhouse Gas Reduction Treaty of 2003.
C)The Martian atmosphere is much thinner and retains little heat.
D)Martian carbon dioxide contains a rare isotope with little ability to trap heat.
Q3) The general direction of a comet's tail is
A)toward the Sun.
B)away from the Sun.
C)behind the comet's direction of motion.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Stars and Galaxies
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Q1) We do not see stars in the daytime because
A)the Sun blocks their view.
B)they simply don't exist in the daytime part of the sky.
C)skylight overwhelms starlight.
D)of the lack of contrast with moonlight.
E)the solar wind obscures their view.
Q2) Seasons here are Earth are a result of
A)the rotation of our planet about its axis.
B)the revolution of our planet around the Sun.
C)the movement of our planet within the Milky Way.
D)the tilt of Earth's axis.
Q3) Quasars are
A)ancient,extremely high energy galaxies believed to have formed in the early universe.
B)a conglomeration of pulsars within a galaxy.
C)a conglomeration of spiral galaxies.
D)white dwarfs that have undergone final collapse.
Q4) How does the mass of a giant star compare with the mass of the black hole it may become? How do the densities compare?
Q5) Describe the fate of planet Earth if the Sun were to collapse to a black hole.
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Chapter 28: The Structure of Space and Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) The universe as a whole is A)curved.
B)flat.
C)the shape of a saddle.
D)has yet to be determined,although most astrophysical data points to a flat universe.
Q2) Eternal Inflation refers to
A)the possibility that our universe is only a patch of a greater universe and that the process of universe spawning will continue forever.
B)the observation that cosmic inflation could eventually curve back in on itself,causing its opposite: the compression of space.
C)cosmic inflation inflating itself such that its own inflation is self-generating.
D)the presence of a distinct beginning of time.
Q3) The "redshift" of a galaxy refers to the rate
A)at which is receding.
B)at which it is approaching.
C)at which it is spinning.
D)of its fusion.
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30
Chapter 29: Prologue: The Nature of Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Science is a body of knowledge that extends back to A)humankind's beginnings.
B)Greece in the 7th century B.C.
C)Italy in the 16th century.
D)the time of Galileo.
Q2) A truly educated person is knowledgeable about A)science.
B)the arts.
C)religion.
D)all of the above
Q3) In science,a theory is A)an educated guess.
B)less than a fact.
C)a synthesis of a large body of well-tested knowledge. D)unchangeable.
Q4) A hypothesis that is scientific must have a test for proving it A)right.
B)wrong. C)either.
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