Course Introduction
Physical Science in Society Final
Exam
Physical Science in Society explores the fundamental principles of physics, chemistry, and earth sciences, emphasizing their relevance to modern life and societal issues. Students examine how natural laws and scientific discoveries shape technology, environmental policy, energy use, and public health. Through case studies and real-world examples, the course encourages critical thinking about the interaction between scientific innovation and ethical, cultural, and economic considerations, fostering an informed perspective on the impact of physical science on daily living and global challenges.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Physical Science 14th Edition by James Shipman(Numbers)
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is longer,a meter or a yard?
Answer: A meter
Q2) For the multiplication of 6.3 m divided by 2.8 m,the result should be reported with how many significant figures?
A) Two
B) One C) Three
D) Four
E) Seven
Answer: A
Q3) The International System of Units (SI)has ______________ base units.
A) four
B) six
C) seven
D) five
Answer: C
Q4) One liter of pure water at its maximum density has a mass of 1 ______________.
Answer: kg
Q5) The standard unit of mass in the SI is the ______________.
Answer: kilogram
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Chapter 2: Motion
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Q1) An object with a mass of 5 kg is dropped and takes 9 s to hit the ground.Then another object with a mass of 10 kg is dropped from the same point.How long does it take to hit the ground?
A) 9 s
B) 18 s
C) 5 s
D) 81 s
E) 729 s
Answer: A
Q2) If the magnitude of the velocity of an object increases,we may be sure that during the time of this increase,
A) the object is accelerated.
B) the acceleration of the object increases.
C) the object is moving in a straight path.
D) the object is changing direction.
E) none of these
Answer: A
Q3) A continuous change in position is called ______________.
Answer: motion
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Force and Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be the same for a person on the Moon rather than on Earth?
A) Maximum jumping height
B) Weight
C) The amount of time for an object to fall 2 meters from rest
D) Mass
E) Gravitational acceleration
Answer: D
Q2) Newton's third law force pair acts on ______________ objects.
Answer: different
Q3) The law of conservation of angular momentum states that the angular momentum of an object remains constant if there are no external ______________ torques acting.
Answer: unbalanced (or net)
Q4) In keeping with Newton's second law of motion,if the force acting on a moving object is doubled,then its ______________ is doubled.
Answer: acceleration
Q5) A quantity that is capable of producing motion or a change in motion is called a(n)______________.
Answer: force
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Chapter 4: Work and Energy
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Q1) The kinetic energy of a pendulum is ______________ at the bottom of its swing.
Q2) Some food costs may rise in the future as a consequence of the increased use of which food-based fuel?
A) Ethanol
B) Gasoline
C) Oil
D) Coal
Q3) Work requires
A) motion.
B) zero net force.
C) zero momentum.
D) a force perpendicular to the direction of motion.
Q4) The kinetic energy of a pendulum is least
A) when its potential energy is least.
B) at the top of its swing.
C) at the bottom of its swing.
D) when its total energy is greatest.
Q5) In lifting an object,work is done against ______________.
Q6) Given 10 kWh of electricity and assuming no losses,how much work,in joules,could be done?
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Chapter 5: Temperature and Heat
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Q1) The energy balance in a thermodynamic process is expressed in the ______________.
Q2) If 700 Joules of heat is added to a system,and the internal energy increases by 450 Joules,how much work is done by the system?
A) -1150 J
B) -250 J
C) 700 J
D) 250 J
E) 1150 J
Q3) A common property used to measure temperature is the ______________ of materials.
Q4) A temperature of degrees 5 Fahrenheit is equivalent to _____ Kelvin.
A) 258.2
B) 278.0
C) -15.0
D) -268.0
Q5) The first law of thermodynamics states that heat added to a closed system can change the internal energy of the system and/or do ______________.
Q6) In the gas laws,the ______________ temperature scale must be used.
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Chapter 6: Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a wave with a constant speed,the greater the frequency of the wave,the ______________ its wavelength.
Q2) If a wave has a frequency of 15 Hz,it has a period of
A) 1/15 s.
B) 3.9 s.
C) 225 s.
D) 15 s.
Q3) The SI unit of frequency is ______________.
Q4) Which of the following sound frequencies lie(s)in the audible range?
A) 26 Hz
B) 27 kHz
C) 1 MHz
D) All of these
Q5) As a truck moves away from a person with its horn blowing,the person hears a frequency ______________ than that of the horn.
Q6) A certain radio wave has a frequency of 1.03 MHz.What is the wavelength?
Q7) Sound is a(n)______________ wave.
Q8) The intensity of a 70-dB whistle is doubled.What is the new decibel level?
Q10) A sound level of 96 dB is how many times as intense as one of 90 dB? Page 8
Q9) If the wave frequency is doubled,the period of the wave is ______________.
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Optics and Wave Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) The speed of light in a particular transparent medium is 2/8 the speed of light in a vacuum.What is the index of refraction of the material?
A) 1.3
B) 0.75
C) 4
D) 0.25
Q2) A diverging lens produces an image of a real object.This image is
A) reduced, upright, and virtual.
B) enlarged, inverted, and real.
C) reduced, inverted, and virtual.
D) enlarged, upright, and real.
E) enlarged, upright, and virtual.
Q3) Total internal reflection occurs when the angle of incidence of the light is greater than the ______________ angle.
Q4) Optics is divided into ray optics and ______________ optics.
Q5) FM radio reception may be blocked by buildings because the wavelengths are too short to be ______________ around buildings.
Q6) The waveform of interfering waves is described by the principle of ______________.
Page 10
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Chapter 8: Electricity and Magnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a positively charged object is brought near a suspended,negatively charged object,the suspended object will be
A) repelled.
B) charged more.
C) discharged.
D) attracted.
Q2) Three resistors,80 ,10 ,and 70 ,are wired in parallel and connected to a 120-V battery.How much current flows in this circuit?
A) 0.75
B) 15
C) 950
D) 0.0021
Q3) The unit of resistance is called a(n)
A) volt.
B) ampere.
C) coulomb.
D) ohm.
E) watt.
Q4) Power may be expressed as _____________ times resistance.
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Chapter 9: Atomic Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these colors of light has photons of greatest energy?
A) Violet
B) Red
C) Blue
D) Yellow
Q2) The number of electrons in a hydrogen atom is ______________.
Q3) The ancient Greek who is known for championing the concept of atom was named ______________.
A) Democritus
B) Socrates
C) Plato
D) Zeus
Q4) When a hydrogen electron is in its ground state,its principal quantum number is
A) zero.
B) -13.6 eV.
C) 1.
D) +13.6 eV.
E) none of these.
Q5) The ancient Greek who is known for championing the concept of the atom was named ______________.
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Chapter 10: Nuclear Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Short-term and long-term effects of radiation on the health of the recipient are called ______________ effects.
Q2) When an unstable Cd nucleus undergoes gamma decay,the nucleus formed is that of
A) Cadmium.
B) Tin.
C) Silver.
D) Palladium.
E) Indium.
Q3) Complete the equation,and state what type of decay is occurring.
\[{ } _ { 53 } ^ { 131 } \mathrm { I } \rightarrow { } _ { 54 } ^ { 131 } \mathrm { Xe } +\]
Q4) Which type of hydrogen is referred to as "heavy hydrogen"?
A) Tritium
B) Hydronium
C) Protium
D) Deuterium
Q5) A scientist named ______________ discovered the neutron in 1932.
Q6) The central core of the atom is called the ______________.
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Q7) Write the equation for the beta decay of \({ } _ { 30 } ^ { 69 } \mathrm { Zn }\)
Chapter 11: The Chemical Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following Period 4 elements has the smallest atom?
A) Kr
B) Ga
C) Ca
D) Br
Q2) Which of the following polyatomic ions has a single minus charge?
A) Acetate
B) Sulfate
C) Phosphate
D) Ammonium
Q3) Earth's atmosphere is 78% ______________.
Q4) Arrange the atoms calcium,barium,chlorine,and bromine in order of increasing atomic radius.
Q5) An atom of chlorine has how many valence electrons?
A) 1
B) 7
C) 4
D) 17
Q6) H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> is the formula for ______________acid.
Q7) Homogeneous mixtures are also called ______________.
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Chapter 12: Chemical Bonding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Element A,mass 9.00 g,reacts exactly with 5.00 g of element B to form 14.00 g of compound AB.If 36.00 g of element A is reacted with 41.00 g of element B to form the same compound,what mass of compound AB will be formed?
A) 9.00 g
B) 56.00 g
C) 9.00 g.
D) 30.00 g
Q2) A stream of a certain liquid compound is attracted to an electrically charged rod.The compound is probably
A) metallic.
B) nonpolar covalent.
C) ionic.
D) polar covalent.
Q3) The formula mass of calcium hydroxide,Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub>,is
A) 74.1 u.
B) 38.1 u.
C) 57.1 u.
D) 58.1 u.
Q4) Ice is less dense than liquid water because of ______________ bonding.
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Chapter 13: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rate of a chemical reaction would be decreased by A) stirring the reactants.
B) increasing the concentration of the reactants.
C) adding a catalyst to the reactants.
D) cooling the reactants.
Q2) When an atom or ion gives up electrons,it is said to be ______________.
Q3) In order,from top to bottom,in the activity series come K,Zn,Pb,H,Cu,and Au.Therefore,
A) adding Pb to ZnCl<sub>2</sub> will release Zn.
B) adding Cu to HCl will release hydrogen.
C) adding Au to HCl will release hydrogen.
D) adding Cu to AuCl<sub>3</sub> will release Au.
Q4) When the equation NH<sub>4</sub>NO<sub>3</sub> N<sub>2</sub>O + H<sub>2</sub>O is balanced,the total of all the coefficients (both written and "understood")is
A) 3.
B) 4.
C) 7.
D) 8.
Q5) When an element is oxidized,it ______________ electrons.
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Chapter 14: Organic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term detergent means "cleansing agent" and commonly refers to a(n)______________ substitute.
Q2) Which of the following could be the monomer of an addition polymer?
A) CCl<sub>4</sub>
B) Cl<sub>2</sub>C=CH<sub>2</sub>
C) CHCl<sub>3</sub>
D) Cl<sub>3</sub>C=CCl<sub>3</sub>
Q3) ______________ has the general formula (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>10</sub>O<sub>5</sub>)<sub>n</sub>,where n may take on values up to 3000.
Q4) When a carbon atom forms four single bonds,the bonds are at what angle to one another?
A) 109.5°
B) 90°
C) 120°
D) 23.5°
E) 60°
Q5) n-Butane and isobutane are the two ______________ of C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>.
Q6) A(n)______________ is a material whose basic molecule has no duplicate in nature.
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Chapter 15: Place and Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) The present standard for time is based on
A) the transition of an electron between two energy levels of the cesium-133 atom.
B) Earth's rotation.
C) Earth's orbit.
D) none of these.
Q2) The longest-daylight day for people in the Southern Hemisphere at latitudes greater than 30°S occurs at the
A) summer solstice.
B) vernal equinox.
C) winter solstice.
D) autumnal equinox.
Q3) For a period after June 21,in Hawaii sunrise occurs ______________ each day.
Q4) A ______________ is always longer than a ______________ .
A) solar day; sidereal day
B) solar day; mean solar day
C) sidereal day; solar day
D) mean solar day; solar day
Q5) Longitude can be defined as the angular measurement,in degrees,east or west of the ______________ meridian.
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Chapter 16: The Solar System
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Q1) The planet ______________ has retrograde motion.
Q2) The planet with the polar "ice caps" of frozen carbon dioxide is ______________.
Q3) The apparent displacement in the direction of light coming from a star because of Earth's orbital motion is called the ______________.
Q4) Kepler's first law states that Earth's orbit around the Sun takes the shape of a(n)______________.
Q5) The Earth-centered model of the solar system is called the ______________ model.
Q6) Kepler's first law states that the orbits of the planets around the Sun are A) circles.
B) ellipses.
C) all lying in the same plane.
D) none of these.
Q7) Which of the following planets cannot be in opposition?
A) Venus
B) Jupiter
C) Saturn
D) Mars
Page 19
Q8) The solar system is a complex system of moving masses held together by ______________ forces.
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Chapter 17: Moons and Small Solar System Bodies
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Q1) The Moon rises 50 minutes later each day because
A) the tidal forces on the Moon slow Earth's rotation, causing its period to be longer.
B) the Moon revolves eastward around Earth.
C) the Moon rotates on its axis.
D) the Moon revolves westward around Earth.
Q2) Short-period comets,such as Halley's comet,are believed to come from ______________.
A) the Kuiper Belt
B) the Oort cloud
C) the asteroid belt
D) Earth
Q3) ______________ is the largest known asteroid.
Q4) The "horns" of the crescent moon point
A) always away from the Sun.
B) in random directions.
C) down toward Earth.
D) always away from Earth.
Q5) The moons of Mars are believed to be captured ______________.
Q6) The oldest Moon rocks are about ______________ years old.
Page 20
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Chapter 18: The Universe
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Q1) A point in the universe where the density of matter and the gravitational field are theoretically infinite is called a(n)______________.
Q2) The Big Dipper is a(n)
A) cluster of galaxies.
B) constellation.
C) galaxy.
D) asterism.
Q3) The modification of the standard Big Bang theory is known as the A) cosmic model.
B) Hubble-Leavitt model.
C) inflationary model.
D) Hertzsprung-Russell model.
Q4) The "surface" of a black hole is known as the _______________.
A) core
B) corona
C) photosphere
D) event horizon
Q5) The stars of highest photospheric temperature are those of spectral class ______________.
Q6) Six trillion miles is equivalent in distance to one ______________.
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Chapter 19: The Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has the smallest albedo?
A) Water
B) Polar ice
C) Fresh snow
D) Dry sand
Q2) About 80% of the mass of the atmosphere and most of the clouds and water vapor are located in the
A) stratosphere.
B) troposphere.
C) mesosphere.
D) thermosphere.
Q3) The top of the thermosphere is called the
A) stratopause.
B) tropopause.
C) mesopause.
D) thermopause.
Q4) After nitrogen and oxygen,the major constituent of the air is______________.
Q5) On a particular day,the air temperature is 75°F.If lowering the air temperature by 9° would cause the air to be saturated,what is the relative humidity?
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Chapter 20: Atmospheric Effects
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Q1) When the dew point is below 0°C,which of the following is likely to form?
A) Sleet
B) Snow
C) Hail
D) Dew
Q2) Hurricanes derive their energy from
A) gravity.
B) specific heat.
C) the Coriolis force.
D) latent heat.
Q3) When air is cooled below its dew point without condensation,it is said to be A) wet.
B) dry.
C) supersaturated.
D) unsaturated.
Q4) Picnickers see a lightning flash of an approaching thunderstorm and hear the thunder 8.0 s later.
a. Approximately how far away, in miles, is the storm?
b. If the storm is moving at a speed of 10 mi/h and the picnickers take 20 minutes to finish eating and pack, will they get wet?
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Chapter 21: Structural G Eology and P Late Tectonics
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Q1) Mountains characterized by folded rock strata are known as ______________ mountains.
Q2) Which of the following is not a general type of faulting?
A) Forward
B) Normal
C) Strike-slip
D) Reverse
Q3) The three principal types of mountain building are fold,volcanic,and ______________.
Q4) The idea of continental drift was not generally accepted when Wegener proposed it because
A) the Bible did not support it.
B) Wegener was a meteorologist, not a geologist.
C) Wegener was not well known.
D) no satisfactory mechanism was proposed.
Q5) The layer of rock immediately below the lithosphere is called the A) outer core.
B) asthenosphere.
C) Moho.
D) lower mantle.
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Chapter 22: Minerals, rocks, and Volcanoes
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Q1) Igneous rocks are classified according to their silica content,or color,and their
Q2) When a mineral's surface reflects light in a manner similar to a smooth metal,the mineral is said to have a(n)______________ luster.
Q3) Which of the following classes of rock is most likely to contain fossils?
A) Igneous
B) Foliated
C) Metamorphic
D) Sedimentary
Q4) Metamorphism occurs for which class of rocks?
A) Metamorphic only
B) Sedimentary only
C) Igneous only
D) All of the above
Q5) The study of planet Earth is known as
A) mineralogy.
B) petrology.
C) geology.
D) paleontology.
Q6) The study of minerals is called ______________.
Page 25
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Chapter 23: Surface Processes
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Q1) The wearing away of soil and rock and the subsequent downslope movement of the fragments are called
A) erosion.
B) weathering.
C) cross-cutting.
D) deposition.
Q2) The two major types of weathering studied in this chapter are mechanical weathering and ______________ weathering.
A) stream
B) chemical
C) abrasion
D) adverse
Q3) A large ice mass that flows on a land surface under the influence of gravity is called a(n)______________.
Q4) A material's capacity to transmit fluids is called its A) permeability.
B) solifluction.
C) drift.
D) porosity.
Q5) ______________ water has a high content of calcium,magnesium,and iron salts.
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Geologic Time
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Q1) Rubidium-______________ dating is an important radiometric dating tool.
Q2) When rocks and geologic events are placed in chronological order without regard to actual dates,______________ geologic time is obtained.
Q3) The Holocene is a(n)
A) epoch.
B) era.
C) eon.
D) period.
Q4) The Triassic period is part of which era?
A) Cenozoic
B) Mesozoic
C) Paleozoic
D) Jurrasic
Q5) The organisms called ______________ were the first organisms with eyes and were wiped out at the end of the Paleozoic era.
Q6) We live in the ______________ epoch.
Q7) A dike that intrudes a bed of sedimentary rock is ______________ than the sedimentary rock.
Q8) Petrified wood is a common type of ______________ fossil.
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