Physical Science for Educators
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Course Introduction
Physical Science for Educators is designed to provide future teachers with a solid foundation in the fundamental concepts of physics and chemistry, emphasizing their relevance to everyday phenomena and classroom instruction. The course covers topics such as matter and its properties, energy, motion, forces, electricity, magnetism, and basic chemical reactions. Through hands-on activities, experiments, and inquiry-based learning, students develop a deep understanding of scientific principles and effective strategies for delivering physical science content in diverse educational settings. This course also explores the integration of scientific literacy and critical thinking skills essential for fostering student engagement and promoting scientific curiosity.
Recommended Textbook
Physical Science 9th Edition by Bill Tillery
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Chapter 1: What Is Science
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Q1) An experimental situation used as the basis of comparison is the A)control group.
B)experimental group.
C)hypothetical group.
D)group of variables where changes will occur.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is not a SI unit of the property it measures?
A)length - meter
B)volume - liter
C)time - second
D)mass - kilogram
Answer: B
Q3) An event with two situations with all the influencing factors identical except one is a (an)
A)hypothetical experiment.
B)experiment.
C)controlled experiment.
D)impossible experiment.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Motion
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Q1) Everything that happens in the universe can be traced to interactions of A)matter and gravity.
B)light and matter.
C)four fundamental forces.
D)gravity waves and light.
Answer: C
Q2) Ignoring air resistance, the velocity of a falling object
A)is constant.
B)is constantly increasing.
C)increases for a while, then becomes constant.
D)depends on the mass of the object.
Answer: B
Q3) A 250-g ball travels at a velocity of 40 m/s.Its momentum is A)4 kg·m/s.
B)10 kg·m/s.
C)160 kg·m/s.
D)10,000 kg·m/s.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following does not have the same units as the others?
A)kinetic energy
B)momentum
C)potential energy
D)work
Answer: B
Q2) When a light bulb is rated at 60 W, it means that
A)the bulb uses 60 J of power when it is lit.
B)current is traveling at 60 m/s through the filament.
C)each second, the bulb converts 60 J of electrical energy to heat and light.
D)the bulb loses 60 W of potential energy each second.
Answer: C
Q3) Work is the rate at which you expend energy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The energy an object has because of its position is called potential energy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Heat and Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) The attractive forces between unlike molecules is called A)cohesion.
B)adhesion.
C)diffusion.
D)friction.
Q2) Molecules in a solid
A)are harder than molecules in liquids or gases.
B)transfer heat to their neighbors by a process called convection.
C)have no internal energy because they are not moving around.
D)are held in nearly fixed positions by strong attractive forces.
Q3) When water vapor condenses to a liquid
A)it absorbs energy from the surroundings.
B)its temperature drops sharply.
C)it transfers heat to the surroundings.
D)its temperature rises slightly.
Q4) The heat needed to warm one gram of water one Celsius degree is called a A)joule.
B)calorie.
C)Btu.
D)kilocalorie.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Wave Motions and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sound of 20 dB intensity is twice as loud as one of 10 dB.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Waves that move through air are transverse.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sound travels faster through cold, denser air than through warm, less dense air.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Resonance occurs at a (an)
A)natural frequency.
B)intensity match.
C)point of constructive interference.
D)point of destructive interference.
Q5) Condensation in a longitudinal wave corresponds to what part of a transverse wave?
A)crest
B)trough
C)wavelength
D)amplitude
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Chapter 6: Electricity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The unit of electric potential difference between two points is A)an ampere.
B)a coulomb.
C)a joule.
D)a volt.
Q2) The reading on your electric bill shows the amount of power you have used in a month.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If you were to mechanically rotate the armature in an electric motor
A)the motor would burn out.
B)the motor would behave like a generator.
C)the motor would become magnetized.
D)nothing would happen.
Q4) Electrical resistance is a property of conductors that is measured in units of A)coulomb.
B)volt.
C)amp.
D)ohm.
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Chapter 7: Light
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fluorescent light source emits light as a result of high temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A rainbow always appears
A)in the part of the sky in the same direction as the Sun.
B)in the part of the sky opposite from the Sun.
C)at an angle of 50 to 54 degrees from the Sun.
D)only at sunset.
Q3) Which of the following object does not emit light?
A)a candle flame
B)the Sun
C)the Moon
D)a burning coal
Q4) Max Planck discovered that the blackbody radiation emitted by vibrating molecules
A)was continuous, like a train of waves.
B)was constant for all objects.
C)varied greatly from one experiment to the next.
D)appeared to come in multiples of certain fixed amounts.
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Chapter 8: Atoms and Periodic Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) The quantum mechanical model of the atom differs from the Bohr model in that it
A)considers the electron as a particle.
B)considers the electron as a wave.
C)predicts the specific location of the electron in an atom.
D)states that electrons can only exist at specific distances from the nucleus.
Q2) The fact that wavelengths of the four lines in the Balmer series fit a regular pattern was evidence supporting the idea that
A)electrons could exist in only four energy states in a hydrogen atom.
B)there must be four electrons in each hydrogen atom.
C)electrons could only gain or lose specific amounts of energy in hydrogen atoms. D)electrons were continuously losing energy.
Q3) Millikan found that all of the oil droplets in his apparatus carried a charge that was an integer multiple of one particular value.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The word halogen comes from the Greek, meaning salt-former.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Chemical Bonds
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Sample Questions
Q1) The formation of a positive ion
A)occurs when an atom gains a proton.
B)involves a release of energy.
C)occurs when an electron is removed from an atom.
D)occurs in covalent bonding.
Q2) The formation of an ionic bond
A)involves a transfer of one or more electrons.
B)results in a release of energy.
C)helps atoms achieve a noble gas electron arrangement.
D)All of the above.
Q3) Evidence of a chemical reaction includes A)a color change.
B)a change in temperature.
C)the production of a gas.
D)All of the above.
Q4) The breaking and making of chemical bonds can explain chemical reactions and energy flow.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a sign of an ion exchange reaction?
A)a precipitate is formed
B)a compound is broken down into simpler substances
C)a reactant is oxidized
D)a metal ion is reduced
Q2) Because of our belief in the law of conservation of mass, it seems reasonable that A)in combustion reactions, part of the mass of the reactants must be converted into fire.
B)the mass of a newly formed compound cannot be changed.
C)molecules cannot be broken down, for the mass would be reduced.
D)the number of atoms of reactants must equal the number of atoms of products.
Q3) Chemists effectively count atoms by weighing matter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Substances that lose electrons in reactions are called oxidizing agents.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Water and Solutions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A solution is saturated when no more of a solute will dissolve in a solvent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cooks add a pinch of salt to water to increase its boiling point since it is known that solutions boil at a higher temperature than pure water.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Water containing large amounts of Mg<sup>2+</sup> and Ca<sup>2+</sup>ions is said to be hard because it is hard to make soap lather in the water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A solution is a heterogeneous mixture of two or more substances. A)True B)False
Q5) The presence of solute molecules makes a solution freeze at a lower temperature than the pure solvent.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 12: Organic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Formic acid is the acid that forms in muscle tissue during anaerobic metabolism of carbohydrates, causing soreness and fatigue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Propanol and iso-propanol have
A)the same physical and chemical properties.
B)the same physical, but different chemical properties.
C)different physical, but the same chemical properties.
D)different physical and chemical properties.
Q3) What would paint thinner, a petroleum distillate, most likely contain?
A)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>
B)C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
C)C<sub>17</sub>H<sub>34</sub>
D)C<sub>40</sub>H<sub>82</sub>
Q4) The prefix n- before an alkane means a normal, straight-chain hydrocarbon.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Esters give flowers and fruits their characteristic odor and taste.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Nuclear Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nuclei with a higher than desired neutron-to-proton ratios tend to undergo which type of decay?
A)alpha
B)beta
C)gamma
D)All of the above.
Q2) Alpha radiation is the least dangerous as alpha particles can be stopped by your skin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Airline crews receive roughly three times the background radiation of those of us who spend most of our time on the ground.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When an isotope releases gamma radiation the atomic number
A)decreases by two and the mass number decreases by four.
B)increases by one and the mass number remains the same.
C)and the mass number decrease by one.
D)and the mass number remain the same.
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Chapter 14: The Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) The eventual fate of our Sun is to become
A)a neutron star.
B)a supernova.
C)a white dwarf.
D)a black hole.
Q2) Which of the following is evidence for the existence of "dark matter" in the universe?
A)The rate of expansion of the universe is speeding up.
B)Stars eventually use up their fuel and stop shining.
C)The outlying stars in a galaxy appear to rotate more rapidly than expected.
D)Either there is no proof that dark matter exists, or there is no way to calculate its abundance.
Q3) A protostar is an accumulation of gases in outer space that will become a star.
A)True B)False
Q4) Red giants are enormously bright because they are extremely hot.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Planets moving around stars have been directly observed outside the solar system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about the length of a planet's day is true?
A)The closer the planet is to the Sun, the shorter is its day.
B)The more massive the planet, the longer its day.
C)The four gas giants barely rotate at all.
D)None of the above.
Q3) Venus, the sister planet to Earth, has an atmosphere whose composition is similar to that of Earth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most of the mass of the solar system is found in
A)the terrestrial planets.
B)the gas giants.
C)the comets and asteroids.
D)the Sun.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Earth in Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) During which month of the year does Earth receive the greatest average energy from the Sun?
A)January
B)March
C)June
D)September
Q2) On the Summer Solstice, the Sun rises south of due east, and sets south of due west.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The axis of Earth's rotation will not always point toward Polaris due to precession.
A)True
B)False
Q4) We always see the same side of the Moon because A)the Moon doesn't rotate.
B)the Moon's periods of rotation and revolution are the same.
C)the Moon's orbit is circular.
D)the period of rotation of both Earth and the Moon is the same.
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Chapter 17: Rocks and Minerals
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Q1) It is believed that at one time all rocks of Earth were
A)igneous.
B)clastic sedimentary.
C)chemical sedimentary.
D)metamorphic.
Q2) Most rocks are composed of minerals that are A)carbonaceous.
B)metamorphic.
C)silicates.
D)igneous.
Q3) Very rapid cooling of magma produces glass rather than a mineral.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which one of the following metamorphic rocks is different from the others?
A)quartzite
B)slate
C)schist
D)gneiss
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Plate Tectonics
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Q1) P-waves travel through both solid and liquid rock, but S-waves cannot travel through liquid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hot, molten rock moves up from Earth's core, causing the continents to drift apart.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The crust beneath the oceans is much younger than continental crust.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Long, high, and continuous mountain ranges run through the middle of the oceans.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Seismic evidence indicates that rocks of the crust "float" in a molten mantle.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The mantle is largely composed of ferromagnesian minerals such as olivine. A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Building Earths Surface
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Sierra Nevada in California is a classic example of A)compressional folding.
B)faulting and upthrust.
C)volcanic intrusions.
D)None of the above.
Q2) The point of initial rock movement along a fault during an earthquake is called the A)epicenter.
B)focus.
C)strike.
D)fault zone.
Q3) Stress is the adjustment a rock makes when it is subjected to a strain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The chief difference between a joint and a fault is that A)a joint results from shear stress.
B)jointing takes place at much greater depths than faulting.
C)jointing involves breaking without relative displacement.
D)faults are vertical cracks, whereas joints are horizontal.
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21
Chapter 20: Shaping Earths Surface
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Q1) Soils formed in cold, dry climates have shallow topsoil with less humus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Acid-rain is strictly a man-made phenomenon resulting from the heavy industrialization of the eastern United States.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Steep, conical deposits of rock fragments at the base of a cliff or slope are called talus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ventifacts are
A)rocks picked up by the wind and transported to new locations.
B)wind-deposited mounds of ridges of sand.
C)areas where deflation has removed loose sediment from the surface.
D)rocks sculpted by wind abrasion.
Q5) Weathering is the process that must occur before erosion can take place.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Geologic Time
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Q1) Minerals replaced the wood in trees over a very long period making petrified wood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lack of fossils in Pre-Cambrian rocks means that very little life existed in this era.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a common way for fossils to form?
A)preservation of skeletal remains
B)preservation of an organism's shape
C)preservation of signs of activity
D)preservation of soft parts by entombment in amber
Q4) Correlating and relative dating of rock units is made possible by application of the principle of
A)cross-cutting relationships.
B)faunal succession.
C)superposition.
D)All of the above.
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Chapter 22: The Atmosphere of Earth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Frost is more likely to form
A)on a cloudy night.
B)under a tree.
C)on objects with greater surface area.
D)None of the above.
Q2) Earth's atmosphere is composed chiefly of nitrogen, oxygen, and carbon dioxide.
A)True
B)False
Q3) On a clear, calm night, you would expect the air in a valley to be
A)cooler than that on a hillside.
B)warmer than the air on a hillside.
C)less dense than that in surrounding areas.
D)the same temperature as that in surrounding areas.
Q4) The principle components of Earth's atmosphere are nitrogen, oxygen, and A)carbon dioxide.
B)argon.
C)water vapor.
D)hydrogen.
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24
Chapter 23: Weather and Climate
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Q1) Without condensation nuclei, a cooling air mass can become supersaturated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The graph describes an atmosphere in a state of A)stability.
B)instability.
C)temperature inversion.
D)saturation.
Q3) How does the average amount of water that returns to the oceans by precipitation compare to the water that leaves by evaporation?
A)Evaporation is greater than precipitation.
B)Precipitation and evaporation are equal.
C)Precipitation is greater than evaporation.
D)There is no pattern that can be generalized.
Q4) Longer periods of drizzle, rain, or snow are usually associated with which cloud type?
A)stratus
B)cumulus
C)cirrus
D)None of the above.
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Chapter 24: Earths Waters
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Q1) The greatest volume of water is moved by the A)Mississippi River.
B)Gulf Stream.
C)Colorado River.
D)California Current.
Q2) The average daily water consumption in the United States is roughly ____ liters/day.
A)150
B)570
C)1,500
D)5,700
Q3) The water table is an underground layer of water that tends to follow the topography of the surface.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Dense, high salinity water from the Atlantic Ocean flows into the Mediterranean Sea, making it one of the saltier seas.
A)True
B)False
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