Physical Science for Educators
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Physical Science for Educators provides an engaging introduction to fundamental concepts in physics and chemistry tailored for future teachers. The course covers topics such as matter and its properties, energy, force and motion, electricity and magnetism, and the structure of the atom. Emphasis is placed on hands-on experiments, scientific inquiry, and effective teaching strategies for the elementary and middle school classroom. By connecting scientific principles to real-world applications, students develop both a solid understanding of core physical science concepts and the skills necessary to inspire young learners through active, inquiry-based instruction.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Physical Science 14th Edition by James Shipman(Numbers)
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24 Chapters
3231 Verified Questions
3231 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) A standard unit
A) is the same in all systems of units.
B) may not be fixed in value.
C) is found only in the British system.
D) is used for taking accurate measurements.
E) is found only in the metric system.
Answer: D
Q2) If there are 2.54 cm/in.,how many inches are there per centimeter?
Answer: 1/2.54 = 0.394
Q3) Write 0.000852 in standard powers-of-10 notation.
Answer: 8.52 *10<sup>-4</sup>?
Q4) Which of the following is a unit of mass density?
A) kg/m<sup>3</sup>
B) g/cm<sup>2</sup>
C) lb/ft<sup>3</sup>
D) lb/ft<sup>2</sup>
Answer: A
Q5) Which is larger,a liter or a quart?
Answer: A liter
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Chapter 2: Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) An object in uniform circular motion has A) constant acceleration.
B) variable radial distances.
C) constant velocity.
D) constant speed.
Answer: D
Q2) If the speed of an object in circular motion is increased by a factor of 3,its centripetal acceleration for the same radius will be multiplied by a factor of A) 0.111.
B) 0.333.
C) 1.73.
D) 9.
E) 3.
Answer: D
Q3) Dropped objects on the Moon fall at a slower rate than on Earth because of a smaller ______________.
Answer: acceleration due to gravity
Q4) A(n)______________ quantity has only magnitude. Answer: scalar
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Chapter 3: Force and Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gravitational pull of Earth acting on an object is zero when the object
A) has zero acceleration.
B) is in free fall.
C) is midway between Earth and the Moon.
D) is in orbit around Earth.
E) none of these
Answer: E
Q2) What is the mass in kilograms of an astronaut on the Moon who weighs 185 lb on Earth?
Answer: 84 kg
Q3) The relationship between mass and weight is given by the equation
A) m = wg.
B) w = m/g.
C) g = mw.
D) w = mg.
Answer: D
Q4) An automobile with a mass of 2000 kg is moving north on a level,straight highway with a constant velocity of 80 km/h.What is the unbalanced force acting on the automobile?
Answer: F = 0
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Work and Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Work is the process by which energy is ______________.
Q2) The units of work are the same as those of ______________.
Q3) A force of 7.2 N acting on a 1.0-kg object initially at rest moves it through a parallel distance of 2.5 m.How much work is done on the object?
Q4) Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?
A) Kinetic energy
B) Potential energy
C) Power
D) Work
E) None of these; that is, they are all scalar quantities.
Q5) The product of one ______________ and one meter is one joule.
Q6) A student weighing 700 N climbs a flight of stairs 5.0 m high.Calculate the work done.
Q7) For which of the following reasons is production of ethanol unwise?
A) Pollutants aren't significantly reduced.
B) It takes twice as much fossil-fuel energy to produce ethanol than the ethanol that is produced supplies.
C) It can drive costs of corn higher.
D) All of the above.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Temperature and Heat
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much heat is required to melt 3.0 kg of ice at 0°C to water at 0°C?
A) 240 kcal
B) 0 kcal
C) 1620 kcal
D) 360 kcal
Q2) When a material is found to have a definite volume and definite shape,and when it doesn't require a container to maintain its shape,what is the phase of the material?
A) Gas
B) Liquid
C) Plasma
D) Solid
Q3) The second law of thermodynamics forbids a heat engine to have thermal efficiency of ______________.
Q4) The SI unit of heat is the ______________.
Q5) Heat transfer that involves mass movement is
A) temperature.
B) conduction.
C) convection.
D) radiation.
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Chapter 6: Waves and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) The minimum sound intensity that can be detected by the human ear is called the ______________ of hearing.
Q2) For a wave with a constant speed,the greater the frequency of the wave,the ______________ its wavelength.
Q3) During a thunderstorm,an observer notes that 10 s elapsed between the lightning flash and the sound of the thunder.What is the approximate distance,in miles,from the observer to the lightning?
A) 10 mi
B) 50 mi
C) 2 mi
D) 100 mi
Q4) Sound is a(n)
A) longitudinal wave.
B) electromagnetic wave.
C) transverse wave.
D) standing wave.
Q5) Of the two main types of waves,light is a(n)______________ wave.
Q6) What are the wavelength limits,in meters,of the audible region of the sound spectrum (v = 344 m/s)?
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Chapter 7: Optics and Wave Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) When light enters a denser medium and is refracted, A) the wavelength is unchanged.
B) the wave speed increases.
C) the frequency is unchanged.
D) the wavelength increases.
Q2) The image of an object at the focal point of a concave spherical mirror
A) looks the same as the object. B) is said to be formed at infinity. C) is real.
D) is reduced.
Q3) The least diffraction occurs for A) < d.
B) = d.
C) > d.
D) none of these; that is, it makes no difference.
Q4) When an object is inside the focal point of a concave mirror,a(n)______________ image always results.
Q5) The speed of light in diamond is 1.24 × 10<sup>8</sup>m/s.What is the index of refraction of diamond?
Q6) A(n)______________ image cannot be focused on a screen.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Electricity and Magnetism
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Sample Questions
Q1) For an ohmic conductor,current is
A) directly proportional to voltage.
B) directly proportional to resistance.
C) independent of resistance.
D) independent of voltage.
Q2) A system of an electron and a neutron has a net charge of
A) +1.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
B) -1.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
C) 3.2 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
D) zero.
Q3) A system of a proton and a neutron has a net charge of
A) +1.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
B) -1.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
C) 3.2 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
D) zero.
Q4) In a battery circuit with different resistors in parallel,
A) the total resistance is larger than the value of the largest resistor.
B) the current is the same through each resistor.
C) the total resistance is larger than the value of the smallest resistor.
D) the voltage is the same across each resistor.
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Chapter 9: Atomic Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle states that it is impossible to know simultaneously which two properties of a particle?
A) Momentum and energy
B) Position and velocity
C) Position and charge
D) Time and place
Q2) In the quantum model of the atom,the location of the electron is described in terms of ______________.
Q3) Theoretical limits on measurement accuracy are set by a principle associated with which scientist?
A) de Broglie
B) Schrödinger
C) Heisenberg
D) Pauli
Q4) An excited gas in a gas-discharge tube emits light that disperses into a(n)______________ spectrum.
Q5) The concept of the dual nature of light indicates that light acts sometimes like a(n)______________ and sometimes like a(n)______________.
Q6) The "X" in X-ray stands for ______________.
11
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Chapter 10: Nuclear Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thermonuclear warheads,or hydrogen bombs,are powerful mainly because of the A) fission process.
B) fusion process.
C) absorption of neutrons by <sup>238</sup>U.
D) emission of protons by <sup>238</sup>U.
Q2) The number of nucleons in a nucleus is the same as the number of neutrons plus the number of ______________.
Q3) Who discovered radium?
A) Marie and Pierre Curie
B) Ernest Rutherford
C) Henri Becquerel
D) Niels Bohr
Q4) The fission of <sup>235</sup>U nuclei is initiated by A) electrons.
B) protons.
C) alpha particles.
D) neutrons.
Q5) Write the equation for the beta decay of \({ } _ { 30 } ^ { 69 } \mathrm { Zn }\)
Q6) The common unit of radiation absorbed dosage is the ______________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Chemical Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) A watermelon is a good example of A) a compound.
B) an element.
C) a homogeneous mixture.
D) a heterogeneous mixture.
Q2) The element barium should produce compounds most similar to those of A) sodium.
B) nitrogen.
C) carbon.
D) calcium.
Q3) The pale-green,gaseous element named ______________ was used as a poisonous gas in World War I.
Q4) About 74% by mass of Earth's crust is composed of the two elements
A) oxygen and iron.
B) aluminum and iron.
C) oxygen and silicon.
D) silicon and aluminum.
Q5) The electrons in the outermost shell are called ______________ electrons.
Q6) An element that tends to lose its valence electrons during chemical reactions is classified as a(n)______________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Chemical Bonding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A general principle of ionic compound formation is that the total ionic charge in the formula unit must be
A) 0.
B) no greater than that of the metal ion.
C) between +4 and -4.
D) no less than that of the nonmetal ion.
Q2) Which of the following elements commonly forms an ion with a 2+ charge?
A) Li
B) Al
C) S
D) Ca
Q3) If aluminum arsenate is AlAsO<sub>4</sub>,the ionic charge on the arsenate ion must be ______________.
Q4) What is the formula mass of ammonium phosphide,(NH<sub>4</sub>)<sub>3</sub>P?
A) 85.0 u
B) 49.0 u
C) 48.0 u
D) 57.0 u
Q5) Predict the formula and draw the Lewis structure of magnesium bromide.
Q6) When forming covalent compounds,atoms ______________ electrons.
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Chapter 13: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) For an exothermic reaction,the energy barrier is ______________ on the reactant side than on the product side.
A) smaller
B) not different in size
C) greater
Q2) When aqueous solutions of Na<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub> and BaCl<sub>2</sub> are mixed,the products are NaCl and ______________.
Q3) How many atoms are in 1.00 mol of Mg?
A) 24.3
B) 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup>
C) 24.3 × 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup>
D) 24.3 × 10<sup>23</sup>
Q4) In the activity series,Zn is more active than Pb.This means that
A) Zn is a better catalyst than Pb.
B) Zn loses its electrons more easily than Pb.
C) Pb is more readily oxidized than Zn.
D) none of these
Q5) When energy is released in a chemical reaction,the reaction is called a(n)______________ reaction.
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Chapter 14: Organic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following could be the formula of an alkyne?
A) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
B) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>10</sub>
C) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
D) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>
Q2) Draw the structural formula for methyl alcohol.
Q3) Which organic compound is represented by a pentagon?
A) Benzene
B) Cyclopentane
C) Cyclopropane
D) Cyclobutane
E) Methane
Q4) A monomer may be repeated many times in the formation of a chainlike molecule called a(n)______________.
Q5) Which compound has three hydroxyl groups?
A) Ethylene glycol
B) Ethanol
C) Cholesterol
D) Glycerol
Q6) Draw the two structural isomers for propanol.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Place and Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) A time zone is theoretically ______________° wide.
Q2) If it is 1:00 P.M.EST in Washington,D.C.,what is the time in Denver,Colorado,the longitude of which is 30° more westerly?
A) 9:00 A.M. MST
B) 11:00 A.M. MST
C) 3:00 P.M. MST
D) Noon. MST
Q3) A ______________ is always longer than a ______________ .
A) solar day; sidereal day
B) solar day; mean solar day
C) sidereal day; solar day
D) mean solar day; solar day
Q4) The calendar we presently use is the ______________ calendar.
Q5) The slow,25,800-year rotation of Earth's axis is called ______________.
Q6) A line of equal longitude is called a
A) meridian.
B) zone.
C) circle.
D) parallel.
Q7) The international standard time is called ______________.
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Chapter 16: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The motion of a Foucault pendulum proves that Earth is
A) rotating.
B) revolving.
C) precessing.
D) an oblate spheroid.
Q2) The large,central portion of a swirling solar nebula is called a(n)______________.
Q3) The planet with the largest number of moons is
A) Jupiter.
B) Saturn.
C) Uranus.
D) Neptune.
Q4) That a planet moves with different speeds in its orbit is given by which of Kepler's laws?
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth
Q5) Halley's comet has a sidereal period of 76.2 years.Determine the value of the semimajor axis of its orbit.(Use Kepler's third law.)
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Chapter 17: Moons and Small Solar System Bodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______________ is the only moon in the solar system to have retrograde motion.
Q2) Probably the best-known comet is ______________ Comet.
A) Sally's
B) Bally's
C) Bailey's
D) Malley's
E) Halley's
Q3) Which planet has a large moon with retrograde motion?
A) Jupiter
B) Saturn
C) Uranus
D) Neptune
Q4) The Moon rises 50 minutes later each day because
A) the tidal forces on the Moon slow Earth's rotation, causing its period to be longer.
B) the Moon revolves eastward around Earth.
C) the Moon rotates on its axis.
D) the Moon revolves westward around Earth.
Q5) ______________ tides occur during the first-quarter and last-quarter moon phases.
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Chapter 18: The Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Sun projects charged particles into space,giving rise to a flow of radiation called the
A) heliosphere.
B) solar wind.
C) corona.
D) chromosphere.
Q2) The cluster of galaxies that includes our Milky Way is called the ______________.
Q3) According to the ______________ theory,the universe began from a single point 13.7 billion years ago.
Q4) Another name for a pulsar is ______________.
Q5) The three fusion reactions used by the Sun to generate energy are together known as the ______________.
Q6) An incredibly dense star so massive that light cannot escape from its surface is called a _______________.
A) red giant
B) black hole
C) white dwarf
D) pulsar
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Chapter 19: The Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term weather refers to the atmospheric conditions of the ______________.
Q2) The transition between the troposphere and the stratosphere is called the A) stratopause.
B) tropopause.
C) mesopause.
D) thermopause.
Q3) The major contribution in heating the troposphere comes from ______________.
Q4) The process that effectively regulates Earth's average temperature is
A) the greenhouse effect.
B) Rayleigh scattering.
C) the dew point.
D) auroras.
Q5) If the ground-level air temperature is 20°C,what is the air temperature at the top of the troposphere (16 km),assuming a normal lapse rate?
Q6) A normal lapse rate of 2.7 °F/1000 ft is equivalent to
A) 3.5 °C/m.
B) 1.5 °C/1000 ft.
C) 5.0 °C/1000 ft.
D) 6.5 °C/1000 ft.
Q7) Stratocumulus clouds belong to the ______________ cloud family.
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Chapter 20: Atmospheric Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Bergeron process,condensation occurs on A) ice crystals.
B) dust.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) oxygen.
Q2) A compound resulting from a major fuel impurity is
A) CO<sub>2</sub>.
B) CO.
C) SO<sub>2</sub>.
D) HC.
Q3) El Niño
A) increases the rainfall for the South American coastal countries.
B) means "little girl" in Spanish.
C) gives rise to colder ocean water in the eastern Pacific.
D) occurs when trade winds blow from east to west.
Q4) Changes in Earth's thermal balance by decreasing the transparency of the atmosphere to insolation can result from ______________ pollution.
Q5) During the approach of a severe thunderstorm,workers on a project see lightning and then hear the resulting thunder 5.0 s later.How far away,in kilometers,is the storm?
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Chapter 21: Structural G Eology and P Late Tectonics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The basic mechanism for plate movement is thought to be
A) earthquake surface waves.
B) the tidal force of the Moon.
C) convection cells in the asthenosphere.
D) earthquake body waves.
Q2) The three types of plate boundaries are ______________,divergent,and transform boundaries.
Q3) Large fractures in Earth's surface that are associated with the movement of lithospheric plates are called ______________.
A) canyons
B) trenches
C) subduction zones
D) faults
Q4) The three types of plate boundaries are called convergent,divergent,and ______________ boundaries.
A) strike
B) slip
C) transform
D) none of these
Q5) The Japanese word tsunami means "______________ wave."
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Chapter 22: Minerals, rocks, and Volcanoes
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Sample Questions
Q1) About what percent of Earth's surface is covered by land?
A) 70%
B) 10%
C) 50%
D) 30%
Q2) The term cleavage refers to the tendency of some minerals to
A) resist scratching.
B) break along definite smooth planes.
C) break into equal-sized halves.
D) scratch other minerals.
Q3) Which of the following is not a metamorphic rock?
A) Sandstone
B) Schist
C) Slate
D) Marble
Q4) A(n)______________ is a cohesive aggregate of one or more minerals.
Q5) Dripstone formations that form on cavern ceilings are called ______________.
Q6) A general name for an intrusive igneous rock formation is ______________.
Q7) Gas,lava,and pyroclastics are the three general products emitted during a(n)______________.
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Chapter 23: Surface Processes
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Q1) The physical disintegration or fracturing of rock is called ______________.
Q2) A loop-like bend in a river channel is called a(n)______________.
Q3) The process of leveling of the Earth by the wearing away of high places and the transportation of sediment to lower places is known as A) mass wasting.
B) the hydrologic cycle.
C) degradation.
D) gradation.
Q4) Glaciers are being considered as a source of A) scarce metals.
B) fresh water.
C) salt.
D) fertile soil.
Q5) Large,flat areas of sediments on the ocean basins are called A) abyssal plains.
B) guyots.
C) continental shelves.
D) atolls.
Q6) ______________ water has a high content of calcium,magnesium,and iron salts.
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Q7) Material that is transported and deposited by ice is called ______________.
Chapter 24: Geologic Time
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Sample Questions
Q1) We live in the ______________ epoch.
Q2) Stromatolites are structures created by A) algae.
B) brachiopods.
C) sea worms.
D) trilobites.
Q3) If a rock sample contains uranium and lead,and lead-204 is present,then
A) both radiogenic and primordial lead are present.
B) all the lead is primordial.
C) neither radiologic nor primordial lead is present.
D) all the lead is radiogenic.
Q4) The study of fossils is called A) paleontology.
B) biology.
C) geology.
D) history.
Q5) Reasonable values for the absolute ages of sedimentary rocks are frequently determined by relating them to ______________ rocks whose absolute ages have been determined.
Q6) Eons are subdivided first into ______________.
Page 26
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