Physical Science
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Physical Science is an interdisciplinary course that introduces students to the foundational concepts in physics, chemistry, earth science, and astronomy. Through a combination of theoretical lessons, laboratory experiments, and real-world applications, students explore topics such as the structure of matter, motion and forces, energy transformations, chemical reactions, and the physical principles underlying natural phenomena. This course emphasizes scientific inquiry, critical thinking, and problem-solving skills, providing a solid grounding for further study in science and fostering an appreciation for the role of physical science in everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
EARTH 1st Edition by Graham R. Thompson
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Chapter 1: Earth Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A __________ is a combination of interacting components that form a complex whole.
A) feedback mechanism
B) catastrophic event
C) threshold effect
D) system
Answer: D
Q2) __________ means that the geologic processes operating today also worked in the past.
A) Gradualism
B) Uniformitarianism
C) Catastrophism
D) Density layering
Answer: B
Q3) The Earth's core is part of the __________.
A) geosphere
B) atmosphere
C) hydrosphere
D) biosphere
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is not necessary for a substance to be a solid to be a mineral.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A mineral that is valued for its beauty rather than for industrial use is a/an
A) accessory mineral
B) ore mineral
C) gem
D) rock-forming mineral
Answer: C
Q3) Copper, lead, and zinc commonly form:
A) native elements.
B) gems.
C) sulfide ore minerals.
D) carbonate minerals.
Answer: C
Q4) A/an __________ is a mineral that is prized for its rarity and beauty.
Answer: gem
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Chapter 3: Rocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Igneous rocks that have a composition between __________ and __________ are termed intermediate.
A) basalt, granite
B) granite, rhyolite
C) basalt, gabbro
D) basalt, peridotite
Answer: A
Q2) The same mineral that solidifies slowly to form granite can also erupt to form
A) rhyolite
B) andesite
C) basalt
D) gabbro
Answer: A
Q3) The process by which rocks and minerals change in response to changing temperature, pressure, and/or chemical composition within the crust is __________.
Answer: metamorphism
Q4) The weight of overlying sediment on sedimentary grains causes their __________. Answer: compaction
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Chapter 4: Geologic Time: a Story in the Rocks
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Q1) The largest time units in the geologic column are periods.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Geologists establish the age relationship of rocks from different locations through the process of __________.
A) conformation
B) invention
C) information
D) correlation
Q3) Carbon-14 dating is used to determine the age of materials older than 50,000 years.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The principle of __________ states that most sediment is deposited as nearly horizontal beds.
A) superposition
B) original horizontality
C) limited horizontality
D) faunal succession
Q5) During a __________ __________, many life-forms on Earth die out suddenly.
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Chapter 5: Geologic Resources
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ energy resources are replenished by natural processes as we use them.
Q2) _______________ is formed as a residual deposit in warm climates.
A) Bauxite
B) Banded iron
C) A manganese nodule
D) A hydrothermal vein deposit
Q3) The __________ __________ refers to the fact that electricity can be used to dissociate water into oxygen and hydrogen that could then be used to power a fuel cell to drive an electric motor.
Q4) Hydrothermal vein deposits:
A) form when dissolved metals precipitate in a fracture in rock.
B) can yield several million dollars worth of gold and silver.
C) form placer deposits.
D) a and b
Q5) ________________ processes form mineral deposits as liquid magma solidifies to form an igneous rock.
A) Magmatic
B) Enigmatic
C) Metamorphic
D) Energetic
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Chapter 6: The Active Earth: Plate Tectonics
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Q1) __________ have occurred on average every 500,000 years over the past 65 million years of Earth's history.
A) Supercontinents
B) Major mass extinctions
C) Banded iron formations
D) Magnetic reversals
Q2) The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is a leg of the Mid-Oceanic Ridge system that divides the Atlantic Ocean.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the theory of isostasy, the __________ is in floating equilibrium on the __________.
A) core, asthenosphere
B) asthenosphere, mantle
C) lithosphere, asthenosphere
D) inner core, outer core
Q4) A continent can be pulled apart at a divergent boundary in a process called __________ __________.
Q5) The __________ is the hot, weak, and plastic uppermost portion of the mantle.
Page 8
Q6) Alfred Wegener named his supercontinent __________.
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Chapter 7: Earthquakes and the Earths Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Earthquakes occur repeatedly along established faults because:
A) they are over a spreading center.
B) when tectonic stress builds, the rock is more likely to move along the fault than to crack again and create a new fault.
C) they are occurring slowly and continuously at a subduction zone.
D) they occur at plate interiors.
Q2) __________ __________ are body waves that can travel through air, liquid, and solid material.
Q3) In liquefaction, the soil loses its shear strength and becomes a solid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Moment magnitude most closely reflects the total amount of energy released during an earthquake.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Mercalli scale expresses the amount of energy released by an earthquake.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Earthquakes occur along the upper portion of a sinking plate in the __________ zone.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Volcanoes and Plutons
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Sample Questions
Q1) Long chains of silicate tetrahedra form in magma with __________ composition.
Q2) Lava with a smooth, ropy surface is:
A) pahoehoe.
B) aa.
C) granitic.
D) plutonic.
Q3) A granitic pluton that is exposed for less than 100 square kilometers is called a/an
Q4) A chaotic mixture of volcanic ash and rock fragments that is left behind when most of the gas escapes into the atmosphere during an ash flow and solidifies is called a/an
__________ __________ __________.
Q5) Volcanic eruptions have no effect on global climate. A)True B)False
Q6) If lava solidifies before the gas in it escapes, the bubbles are preserved as holes called __________.
Q7) Mount St. Helens in the state of Washington is an example of a stratovolcano. A)True B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Mountains
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sedimentary basin between a subduction complex and an island arc is called a __________ __________.
Q2) Mountains affect weather and climate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A/an __________ __________ is any feature produced by rock deformation.
Q4) A normal fault occurs as a result of:
A) extensional stress stretching the Earth's crust.
B) crustal shortening.
C) the hanging wall moving upward relative to the footwall.
D) plastic behavior of rock.
Q5) A fold:
A) usually results from compressive stress.
B) always shortens the horizontal distances in rock.
C) usually occurs as part of a group of many similar folds.
D) all of the above
Q6) Island arcs are abundant in the Pacific Ocean.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The term __________ refers to the process of mountain building.
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Chapter 10: Weathering, Soil, and Erosion
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is the only rock-forming silicate mineral that does not weather to clay.
A) Feldspar
B) Quartz
C) Biotite
D) Muscovite
Q2) Mechanical weathering occurs when air and water react with rock to alter its chemical composition and mineral content.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Erosion involves little or no movement of the decomposed rocks and minerals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The soil layer in which you would find the least organic material is the:
A) B horizon.
B) O horizon.
C) C horizon.
D) A horizon.
Q5) When Mount St. Helens erupted, the meltwater from melting glaciers mixed with soil to form __________.
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Chapter 11: Fresh Water: Streams, Lakes, Ground Water, and Wetlands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most streams carry the largest part of their load as bed load.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you dig into the unsaturated zone, the hole will fill with water.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Low-gradient streams flow in a series of bends called __________.
Q4) Turnovers in lakes situated in temperate climates typically occur in __________.
A) spring only
B) summer only
C) spring and fall
D) summer and winter
Q5) Caverns usually form in __________.
A) granite
B) limestone
C) fractured schist
D) conglomerate
Q6) Stream energy directed toward the stream's banks causes __________ erosion.
13
Q7) Downward stream erosion is called __________.
Q8) Ions dissolved in water are called __________ __________.
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Chapter 12: Water Resources
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Q1) Excessive water removal in coastal areas can cause __________ intrusion into wells.
Q2) A/an __________ __________ __________ forms near a well where water is withdrawn faster than it can flow.
Q3) A biodegradable pollutant:
A) can be consumed and destroyed by organisms in a reasonable amount of time.
B) cannot be consumed and destroyed by organisms in a reasonable amount of time.
C) contains bioaccumulative toxic chemicals.
D) contains PCBs.
Q4) Any process that uses water and then returns it to the Earth far from its source is called __________.
Q5) Excessive removal of ground water can cause __________, the sinking or settling of the Earth's surface.
Q6) If desert or semidesert soils are irrigated for long periods of time:
A) the soil remains fertile and productive.
B) salt accumulates and destroys fertility.
C) salinization improves soil fertility.
D) the water becomes too silty to use.
Q7) Irrigation in arid or semiarid areas can lead to the problem of __________.
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Q8) A leaking septic tank is an example of __________ __________ pollution.
Chapter 13: Glaciers and Ice Ages
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cycles identified by Milutin Milankovitch are caused by changes in:
A) the Earth's tides.
B) sunspot activity.
C) the Earth's orbital parameters (eccentricity, tilt, precession).
D) mountain uplift.
Q2) A/an __________is a massive, long-lasting accumulation of compacted snow and ice that forms on land.
Q3) The rate of glacial movement varies with:
A) slope steepness.
B) precipitation.
C) air temperature.
D) all of the above
Q4) The place where glacial flow cannot keep pace with melting is called the
Q5) The Matterhorn is an example of a glacial __________.
Q6) A glacier that covers an area of 50,000 square kilometers or more is a/an
Q7) A small glacial valley lying high above the floor of the main valley is called a/an
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Q8) A series of tarn lakes in the valley below a cirque are called __________ lakes.
Chapter 14: Deserts and Wind
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Sample Questions
Q1) Desert pavement forms because:
A) playa lake beds bake rock-hard in the hot summer sun.
B) wind selectively removes sand and silt and leaves large particles behind.
C) caliche deposits cement desert soil.
D) clay is easily removed.
Q2) Much of the rich loess of the central plains of the United States is the result of the Pleistocene Ice Age.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Wind erosion, called __________, is a selective process in which the wind moves only small particles, such as silt and sand.
Q4) A/an __________ is a broad, gently sloping depositional surface formed by merging alluvial fans.
Q5) A/an __________ is a flat-topped mountain shaped like a table common to the Colorado Plateau.
Q6) A bajada is an erosional surface.
A)True
B)False
Q7) __________ dunes are common in moist semiarid regions and along the seacoast.
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Chapter 15: Ocean Basins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studying the sea floor requires direct physical contact with the ocean floor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Moving away from mid-ocean ridges, oceanic crust becomes:
A) older, sinks, and forms the abyssal plains.
B) younger, sinks, and forms the abyssal plains.
C) older, rises, and becomes part of the continental shelf.
D) younger, rises, and becomes part of the continental shelf.
Q3) Most of layer 3 of the oceanic crust is composed of __________.
A) pelagic sediment
B) pillow basalt
C) gabbro
D) terrigenous sediment
Q4) Modern sea-floor maps are made with __________ __________ instruments.
Q5) Samples can be taken from the deep sea floor by:
A) coring devices.
B) echo sounders.
C) seismic profilers.
D) remote sensing.
Q6) A flat-topped seamount is called a __________.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Oceans and Coastlines
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Sample Questions
Q1) On a submergent coastline, a portion of the continental shelf that was previously underwater becomes exposed as dry land.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Submergent coasts commonly have steep, rocky shorelines.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Surface water becomes denser when it becomes __________ and __________.
A) warm, salty
B) warm, less salty
C) cool, salty
D) cool, less salty
Q4) The wave height is the:
A) highest part of a wave.
B) distance between successive crests.
C) fetch of a wave.
D) vertical distance between the crest and the trough of a wave.
Q5) If a coastline is flooded or sea level rises a/an __________ coastline is created.
Q6) Circular paths of ocean currents are called __________.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: The Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) A/an __________ is used to measure air pressure.
A) anemometer
B) thermometer
C) compass
D) barometer
Q2) Chlorofluorocarbons and halons destroy ozone in the stratosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Acid precipitation forms when sulfur dioxide reacts with ozone in the stratosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ is the release of volatiles from Earth's mantle in volcanic eruptions.
A) Intrusion
B) Oxidation
C) Outgassing
D) Photosynthesis
Q5) Acidity is expressed on the __________ scale.
Q6) __________ __________ reacts in moist air to produce sulfuric acid.
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Chapter 18: Energy Balance in the Atmosphere
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Q1) On the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, sunlight strikes Earth from directly overhead at the tropic of __________.
A) Aries
B) Centaurus
C) Cancer
D) Capricorn
Q2) All areas of the globe receive the same total number of hours of sunlight every year.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If Earth had no atmosphere, radiant heat loss would be so rapid that the Earth's surface would cool drastically at night.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When an object absorbs radiation, the:
A) photons disappear and are converted to another form of energy.
B) energy is lost.
C) photons reflect out to space.
D) photons slow down.
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Chapter 19: Moisture, Clouds, and Weather
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Sample Questions
Q1) When relative humidity reaches 100 percent, the air is:
A) saturated.
B) unsaturated.
C) extremely dry.
D) supersaturated.
Q2) Windward valleys receive much less moisture than leeward valleys.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When condensation occurs above the elevation at which air stops rising, __________ clouds form.
A) cumulus
B) stratus
C) cirrus
D) no
Q4) __________ forms when rain falls on subfreezing surfaces.
A) Sleet
B) Glaze
C) Hail
D) Snow
Q5) __________ clouds are fluffy clouds with flat bottoms and billowy tops.
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Chapter 20: Climate
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Sample Questions
Q1) When warm air is heated by the Sun and rises at the equator, it:
A) is deflected by the Coriolis effect and sinks at the equator in the evening.
B) splits, travels poleward, is deflected by the Coriolis effect, and sinks at 30° north and south latitudes.
C) splits and travels poleward, moving due north and south.
D) travels at high elevation, is deflected by the Coriolis effect, and sinks at the poles.
Q2) Descending air at the horse latitudes:
A) flows toward the equator only.
B) flows toward the poles only.
C) splits and flows west and east.
D) splits and flows toward the equator and toward the poles.
Q3) The __________ __________ is characterized by dry summers, rainy winters, and moderate temperature. This climate zone occurs along the coast in southern California.
Q4) The __________ biome consists of conifers that can survive extremely cold winters.
Q5) The fact that the center of Washington, D.C., is more than 3° warmer than outlying areas demonstrates the __________ __________ __________ effect.
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Chapter 21: Climate Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Little Ice Age lasted from about __________.
A) 450 to 850
B) 1000 to 1400
C) 1450 to 1850
D) 1600 to 2000
Q2) When carbon dioxide gas dissolves in seawater, it reacts to form bicarbonate and __________ ions.
Q3) The Sun produces energy by __________ __________.
Q4) In Earth's history, the concentration of carbon dioxide and water in the atmosphere __________ gradually as the Sun __________.
A) increased, warmed
B) increased, cooled
C) declined, warmed
D) declined, cooled
Q5) The four industrial greenhouse gases are:
A) carbon dioxide, methane, chlorofluorocarbons, and oxygen.
B) carbon dioxide, methane, nitrogen, and oxygen.
C) methane, chlorofluorocarbons, oxygen, and nitrogen oxides.
D) carbon dioxide, methane, chlorofluorocarbons, and nitrogen oxides.
Q6) Snowfields and glaciers have high albedos and cool Earth by __________ sunlight.
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Chapter 22: Motions in the Heavens
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Q1) The apparent change in position of an object due to a change in the position of the observer is called:
A) retrograde motion.
B) resolution.
C) parallax.
D) red shift.
Q2) In the Northern Hemisphere, the Pole Star:
A) appears in the summer and is invisible during the winter months.
B) circles the sky relative to the other stars.
C) disappears completely every 29.5 days.
D) remains motionless in the sky and all other stars appear to revolve around it.
Q3) The geocentric Universe easily explains retrograde motion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A/an __________ __________ uses a curved mirror to collect light and focus an image.
Q5) The __________ of the Sun appears as a halo around the Moon during a solar eclipse.
Q6) Groups of stars that seem to form a pattern are called __________.
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Chapter 23: Planets and Their Moons
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Q1) Both Uranus and Neptune:
A) can be seen with the naked eye.
B) have interiors composed of liquid metallic hydrogen.
C) have atmospheres composed primarily of helium and hydrogen.
D) are less dense than Saturn.
Q2) The Moon's __________ are flat expanses of volcanic rock.
Q3) The Venusian atmosphere is __________.
A) hot and dense
B) cold and dense
C) cold and thin
D) hot and thin
Q4) The rings of Saturn may be the debris of a __________ that got too close to the planet.
Q5) The rings of Saturn are believed to be:
A) an auroral display of ionized gases.
B) small particles of dust, rock, and ice.
C) the remains of a hurricane-like storm that was first recorded by Galileo.
D) particles of pure ice.
Q6) Europa is a moon of __________.
Q7) __________ planets are mostly solid rock with metallic cores.
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Chapter 24: Stars, Space, and Galaxies
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Q1) The sunlight we see from Earth comes from the Sun's core.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One __________-__________ is the distance traveled by light in a year, 9.5 trillion kilometers.
Q3) The mass of the Sun is one __________ __________.
Q4) A small residual star that emits regular, closely spaced electromagnetic signals is a/an __________.
Q5) The diameter of the Milky Way galaxy is about __________.
A) 100,000,000 kilometers
B) 10 light-years
C) 200,000 light-years
D) 10 billion light-years
Q6) When we look at close objects, we see what is happening now, but when we look at distant objects, we see what happens in the future.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A graph that plots absolute magnitudes versus temperatures is called a/an __________ diagram.
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