
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Physical Science is a foundational course that explores the principles and concepts underlying the physical world, covering key topics from physics and chemistry. Students investigate the structure and properties of matter, the laws of motion and energy, the nature of forces, and the interactions between different forms of matter and energy. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, real-world applications, and problem-solving skills. Through laboratory experiments, demonstrations, and critical thinking activities, learners develop a deeper understanding of how physical science influences technology, the environment, and everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Physical Science 14th Edition by James Shipman(Numbers)
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Q1) Dry air has a density of 1.29 kg/m<sup>3</sup>.What would be the volume of a metric ton of air?
Answer: 775 m<sup>3</sup>
Q2) The meter is defined in terms of the speed of ______________.
Answer: light
Q3) A scientific law describes
A) the scientific method.
B) a fundamental relationship of nature.
C) the behavior of nature.
D) an experiment.
Answer: B
Q4) A quantitative observation that is the basis of scientific investigation is a(n) A) experiment.
B) measurement.
C) explanation.
D) number.
Answer: B
Q5) A(n)______________ is a comparison of an unknown physical quantity with the standard unit.
Answer: measurement

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Q1) ______________ acceleration is necessary for uniform circular motion.
Answer: Centripetal
Q2) Under ideal conditions,a projectile with a given initial speed at an angle of 15° has the same range as a projectile at an angle of ______________ with the same initial speed.
Answer: 75°
Q3) The following are data for an accelerating car:
t (s) 0 5 10 15 20
v (m/s)0 3 6 9 12
a. Is this car undergoing uniform acceleration?
b. If so, what is the acceleration?
Answer: a.Yes
b.0.6 m/s<sup>2</sup>
Q4) Which of the following is a possible unit of acceleration?
A) m/s<sup>2</sup>
B) m × s
C) m<sup>2</sup>/s
D) m/s
Answer: A
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Q1) An automobile travels due north with a speed of 68 km/h and an acceleration of 1.5 m/s<sup>2</sup>.All forces considered,the unbalanced force acting on the auto is A) zero.
B) southward.
C) northward. D) downward.
E) upward.
Answer: C
Q2) Two carts (A's mass = 4.5 kg and B's mass = 1.5 kg)are held against a strong,compressed spring.The carts are released simultaneously,and B moves off to the right with a speed of 2.0 m/s.What is A's initial velocity?
Answer: 0.67 m/s to the left
Q3) An indication of an object's inertia is given by its ______________. Answer: mass
Q4) To increase the force of gravity between two masses by a factor of 9,how would the objects have to be moved?
Answer: 3 times closer together
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Q1) A 1000-kg car traveling at 70 m/s takes 3 m to stop under full braking.The same car under similar road conditions,traveling at 140 m/s,takes ______________ m to stop under full braking.
A) 6
B) 1
C) 3
D) 12
E) 11
Q2) If you lift a 15-N weight vertically 30 m above the ground,you are
A) doing work against gravity.
B) doing work against friction.
C) doing work against inertia.
D) doing none of these.
Q3) The largest reserve of energy in the United States is in what form?
A) Oil
B) Natural gas
C) Coal
D) Nuclear
Q4) The kinetic energy of a pendulum is ______________ at the bottom of its swing.
Q5) The product of one ______________ and one meter is one joule.
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Q1) When heat is added to a closed system,it goes into A) work only.
B) entropy only.
C) internal energy only.
D) either (A) or (C) or both.
Q2) If 700 Joules of heat is added to a system,and the internal energy increases by 450 Joules,how much work is done by the system?
A) -1150 J
B) -250 J
C) 700 J
D) 250 J
E) 1150 J
Q3) The insulation in walls uses which of the following methods to prevent heat transfer?
A) Conduction
B) Convection
C) Radiation
D) Conduction and convection
E) All of these
Q4) Solids,liquids,and gases are called ______________ of matter.
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Q1) The region of the electromagnetic spectrum with wavelengths just greater than those in the infrared region is the ______________ region.
A) microwaves
B) x-rays
C) gamma rays
D) radio waves
E) ultraviolet
Q2) Approximately how many times faster is the speed of light in vacuum than the speed of sound in air?
Q3) The intensity of a 50-dB whistle is doubled.What is the new decibel level?
A) 50 dB
B) 47 dB
C) 53 dB
D) 100 dB
Q4) Which of the following radiations has the longest wavelength?
A) Infrared
B) Visible
C) Ultraviolet
D) X-rays
Q5) The audible range of sound is from 20 Hz to ______________ kHz.
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Q1) If we restrict the vibrations of the electric field vector of a wave to one direction,the wave is said to be linearly ______________.
Q2) A particular material has an index of refraction of 2.75.What percent of the speed of light in vacuum is the speed of light in the material?
A) 36%
B) 10%
C) 8%
D) 89%
Q3) A liquid crystal display (LCD)using a "twisting" effect in the display involves A) polarization. B) interference. C) refraction.
D) diffraction.
Q4) Light traveling from a more dense to a less dense medium is refracted ______________ the normal.
Q5) When a wave is ______________,the angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence.
Q6) When light enters a denser medium,the speed of the light ______________.
Q7) A diamond is said to have "fire" because of ______________.
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Q1) The electrical power dissipated in an appliance depends on A) voltage.
B) current.
C) resistance.
D) all of these.
Q2) Three resistors,10 ,20 ,and 30 ,are wired in series and connected to a 120-V battery.How much current flows in the circuit?
Q3) The unit for current is the A) ampere.
B) ohm.
C) coulomb.
D) volt.
Q4) The unit of electric current is the ______________.
Q5) The law of poles states that like magnetic poles ______________ and unlike magnetic poles ______________.
Q6) A system of a proton and an electron has a net charge of
A) +1.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
B) -1.6 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
C) 3.2 × 10<sup>-19</sup> C.
D) zero.

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Q1) The energy of a photon equals ______________ multiplied by the frequency.
Q2) The nuclear model of the atom is associated with A) Thomson.
B) Dalton.
C) Bohr.
D) Rutherford.
Q3) When an electron goes from the ground state to an excited state,
A) energy is emitted.
B) a photon is absorbed.
C) a photon is emitted.
D) none of these occur.
Q4) If the energy of n = 6 is -0.378 eV and that of n = 5 is -0.544 eV in a hydrogen atom,a transition from n = 6 to n = 5 will _______________ a photon with an energy of approximately ______________.
A) absorb; 0.922 eV
B) emit; 0.166 eV
C) absorb; 0.166 eV
D) emit; 0.922 eV
Q5) Both line emission and line ______________ spectra are characteristic for a specific element.
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Q1) How many neutrons are there in an atom of \({ } _ { 92 } ^ { 235 } \mathrm { U }\) ?
A) 92
B) 143
C) 235
D) None of these
Q2) The average mass of the atoms of an element in naturally occurring samples is called the ______________ mass of the element.
A) atomic
B) average
C) relative
D) molecular
Q3) The diameter of an average nucleus is about
A) 10<sup>-5</sup> m.
B) 10<sup>-7</sup> m.
C) 10<sup>-10</sup> m.
D) 10<sup>-14</sup> m.
Q4) The scientist who developed the modern symbol notation for elements was named
Q5) The diameter of the average nucleus is about ______________ m.
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Q1) The ______________ for compounds are written by putting the composing elements' symbols adjacent to each other,with subscripts indicating the number of atoms of each.
A) equations
B) molecules
C) isotopes
D) formulas
Q2) An electrically neutral particle composed of two or more atoms chemically combined is called a(n)______________.
Q3) An example of a diatomic molecule of an element is
A) He
B) N<sub>2</sub>
C) P<sub>4</sub>
D) CO
Q4) Elements have similar chemical properties because they have the same number of electrons in their ______________.
Q5) ______________ are substances that cannot be decomposed by chemical processes.
Q6) The alkali metals have ______________ valence electron(s).
Q8) Earth's atmosphere is 78% ______________. Page 13
Q7) Homogeneous mixtures are also called ______________.
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Q1) Which of the following ions would never form in chemical reactions?
A) F<sup>2-</sup>
B) Al<sup>3+</sup>
C) O<sup>2-</sup>
D) N<sup>3-</sup>
Q2) A Group 7A element would be most likely to form a covalent bond with elements of Group
A) 2A.
B) 1A.
C) 8A.
D) 6A.
Q3) In the liquid phase,covalent compounds generally conduct electricity
A) not at all.
B) very well.
C) better than metals.
D) better than ionic compounds in the liquid phase.
Q4) In a covalent molecule,each atom (except hydrogen)generally has ______________ electrons in its outer shell.
Q5) When forming covalent compounds,atoms ______________ electrons.
Q6) The formula for ammonia is ______________.
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Q1) How many atoms of oxygen are contained in 44 g of carbon dioxide,CO<sub>2</sub>?
A) 3.01 × 10<sup>23</sup>
B) 12.0 × 10<sup>23</sup>
C) 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup>
D) None of these
Q2) The compound Mg(OH)<sub>2</sub> is commonly known as A) Epsom salt.
B) Alka-Seltzer.
C) smelling salts.
D) milk of magnesia.
Q3) The loss of oxygen or gain of electrons by an atom or ion is called
Q4) Which type of reaction is 2Cu(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> 2CuO + 4NO<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub>?
A) Single-replacement
B) Double-replacement
C) Combination
D) Decomposition
Q5) ______________ properties are those that do not describe the chemical reactivity of the substance.
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Q1) CH<sub>3</sub>OH is the structural formula for the compound named
Q2) Which alcohol is used in rubbing alcohol?
A) 2-Hydroxypropane
B) Ethylene glycol
C) Ethanol
D) Methanol
Q3) The main component of the cell walls of plants is the carbohydrate called ______________.
Q4) The general formula RNH<sub>2</sub> is that of
A) an ester.
B) an amine.
C) an amide.
D) none of these
Q5) Chemically combining glucose and fructose produces the compound named ______________.
Q6) Hydrocarbons with a carbon-carbon triple bond are called ______________.
Q7) Draw the structural formula for 2-pentene.
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Q8) Draw the three structural formulas for the molecular formula C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O.

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Q1) Latitude is the angular measurement in degrees
A) east or west of the prime meridian.
B) north or south of the prime meridian.
C) north or south of the equator.
D) north or south of the celestial equator.
Q2) When the noonday Sun is overhead in London,England,on April 15,what are the standard time and date in San Francisco?
Q3) At different times of the year,the Sun appears to be in different parts of the sky among different groups of stars.This is so because
A) Earth revolves about the Sun.
B) the Sun rotates on its axis.
C) the Sun moves through space.
D) stars move.
E) Earth rotates on its axis.
Q4) On December 21,the noonday Sun is overhead at what latitude?
A) 0°
B) 23.5°N
C) 23.5°S
D) That of the Tropic of Cancer
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Q1) Which of the following planets can be in opposition?
A) Mercury
B) Venus
C) Earth
D) Neptune
Q2) The name given to the point of a planet's orbit that is farthest from the Sun is A) aphelion.
B) focus.
C) perihelion.
D) solstice.
Q3) The closest planet to Earth is A) Mars.
B) Venus.
C) Mercury.
D) Saturn.
Q4) Kepler's first law states that Earth's orbit around the Sun takes the shape of a(n)______________.
Q5) ______________ is the apparent motion that occurs between two fixed objects when the observer changes position.
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Q6) The solar system model of Copernicus is known as the ______________ model.
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Q1) As comets approach and move around the Sun,the coma and the tail
______________ in size.
A) decrease
B) increase
C) remain the same
D) none of the above
Q2) When a meteoroid enters Earth's atmosphere,it is called a(n)______________.
Q3) ______________ is the major moon of Neptune.
A) Triton
B) Titan
C) Ganymede
D) Europa
E) Callisto
Q4) Which planet has a large moon with retrograde motion?
A) Jupiter
B) Saturn
C) Uranus
D) Neptune
Q5) The seriousness of an asteroid collision is gauged by the ______________ scale.
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Q6) Long-period comets are believed to come from the ______________.
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Q1) The Sun's high-speed charged nuclei and electrons form a fourth phase of matter known as a
A) neutrino.
B) sunspot.
C) plasma.
D) fusion pool.
Q2) The Sun remains stable because the inward pull of ______________ balances the outward push from nuclear fusion.
Q3) The name of which astronomer is most closely linked with that of Henry Russell?
A) Henrietta Leavitt
B) Johannes Kepler
C) Ejnar Hertzsprung
D) Edwin Hubble
Q4) The number of _______________ on the Sun varies over an 11-year cycle.
A) sunspots
B) rays
C) canals
D) valleys
Q5) The creation of elements inside a star is called ______________.
Q6) The ______________ is the name given to all matter,energy,and space.
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Q1) Clouds described as "artist's brushes" or "mare's tails" belong to what cloud family?
A) Middle
B) Low
C) High
D) None of these
Q2) If the ground-level air temperature is 20°C,what is the air temperature at the top of the troposphere (16 km),assuming a normal lapse rate?
Q3) Radio waves are reflected by which of the following ion layers?
A) C
B) D
C) F
D) A
Q4) Which of the following is not a member of the low-cloud family?
A) Nimbostratus cloud
B) Fog
C) Stratus cloud
D) Cirrus cloud
Q5) The relative humidity is 100% at the ______________ temperature.
Q6) The study of all aspects of the atmosphere is called ______________.
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Q1) The northern Atlantic Ocean is the source region for the ______________ type of air mass.
A) cA
B) cP
C) mP
D) mT
Q2) Hawaii's weather is chiefly affected by what type of air mass?
A) mA
B) mP
C) cP
D) mT
Q3) A high-pressure air mass that moves over a region and then becomes stationary may give rise to a(n)______________ inversion.
Q4) A compound resulting from a major fuel impurity is
A) CO<sub>2</sub>.
B) CO.
C) SO<sub>2</sub>.
D) HC.
Q5) The component in CFCs that is responsible for destroying ozone is ______________.
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Q1) Seismic waves that propagate through Earth are known as A) focus waves.
B) surface waves.
C) gravity waves.
D) body waves.
Q2) Seafloor spreading occurs along ______________.
Q3) Earth's continental crust ranges in thickness from about
A) 98 to 140 km.
B) 19 to 40 km.
C) 5 to 26 km.
D) 8 to 16 km.
Q4) Evidence for the existence for Pangaea includes
A) biological evidence only.
B) continuity of geologic features only.
C) glacial evidence only.
D) all of the above.
Q5) A(n)______________ is manifested by the vibrating and sometimes violent movement of Earth's surface.
Q6) Between the crust and the outer core lies the region called the ______________.
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Q7) The mountains of the Alps in Europe are examples of ______________ mountains.
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Q1) Rocks are classified into three types on the basis of their A) process of formation.
B) age.
C) geographic origin.
D) color.
Q2) Which of the following is not a metamorphic rock?
A) Sandstone
B) Schist
C) Slate
D) Marble
Q3) The element that is the second most abundant in Earth's crust is A) oxygen.
B) iron.
C) nitrogen.
D) silicon.
Q4) Which of the following rocks is a sedimentary rock?
A) Slate
B) Granite
C) Marble
D) Conglomerate

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Q1) A stream's load is divided into three components: dissolved load,______________ load,and bed load.
Q2) Water that soaks into the soil and collects in the subsurface is called ______________.
Q3) At the end and along the sides of a glacier,the sediment deposits may form ridges known as ______________.
Q4) The continuous circulation of Earth's water is known as the A) hydrologic cycle.
B) aqua cycle.
C) redistribution cycle.
D) hydrogeologic cycle.
Q5) The downslope movement of surface materials as a result of gravity and of the agents that cause such movement is called A) erosion.
B) gradation.
C) landslides.
D) none of these.
Q6) ______________ is the downslope movement of surface materials as a result of gravity and of the agents that cause such movement.
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Q1) The Phanerozoic is a(n)
A) epoch.
B) era.
C) eon.
D) period.
Q2) The Jurassic period is part of the ______________ era.
Q3) A dike that intrudes a bed of sedimentary rock is ______________ than the sedimentary rock.
Q4) Relative and absolute geologic times are combined to give the ______________ scale.
Q5) Starting with a sample of pure parent radionuclide,what would be the ratio of the parent radionuclide to its daughter after two half-lives have elapsed?
A) 1 to 1
B) 1 to 2
C) 1 to 3
D) 1 to 4
Q6) The Great Dying occurred at the end of the ______________ era.
Q7) The span of time required for the radioactive decay of half the parent nuclei in a sample is known as the ______________.
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