Chapter 2: Motion
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Q1) Which one of the following is not an area of physics?
A) Mechanics
B) Optics
C) Algebra
D) Acoustics
Answer: C
Q2) Distance is a(n)______________ quantity. Answer: scalar
Q3) For there to be an acceleration,there must necessarily be a change in
Answer: velocity
Q4) The straight-line distance and direction between two points are,together,called
Answer: displacement
Q5) The SI unit of centripetal acceleration is ______________. Answer: meters per second squared (m/s<sup>2</sup>)
Q6) A rifle bullet shot horizontally at a velocity of 9.8 m/s has a horizontal acceleration of
Answer: zero
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Chapter 3: Force and Motion
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Q1) The gravitational pull of Earth acting on an object is zero when the object
A) has zero acceleration.
B) is in free fall.
C) is midway between Earth and the Moon.
D) is in orbit around Earth.
E) none of these
Answer: E
Q2) A stationary but movable 450-kg cannon is fired,and the 12-kg cannonball moves off to the right with a velocity of 20.0 m/s.What is the cannon's velocity (neglecting friction or any restraints)?
Answer: 0.53 m/s to the left
Q3) The linear momentum of an object is conserved if there are no ______________ forces acting on it.
Answer: unbalanced,or net
Q4) An automobile air bag
A) increases the contact time in stopping a person.
B) reduces the impact force in a collision.
C) increases the surface area of the impact force.
D) does all of the above.
Answer: D
Page 5
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Chapter 5: Temperature and Heat
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Q1) A common property used to measure temperature is the ______________ of materials.
Q2) A temperature of degrees 260 Celsius is equivalent to _____ Kelvin.
A) 8.6
B) 533.2
C) 126.7
D) -13.0
Q3) A quantity of ideal gas in a rigid container has a pressure of 1.00 × 10<sup>6</sup> Pa at 0°C.If the pressure is increased to 1.75 × 10<sup>6</sup> Pa,what is the temperature of the gas after this is done?
Q4) Below 4°C,water ______________ with decreasing temperature.
Q5) How much heat is required to melt 3.0 kg of ice at 0°C to water at 0°C?
A) 240 kcal
B) 0 kcal
C) 1620 kcal
D) 360 kcal
Q6) For a temperature of -40°F,what are the corresponding temperatures on the a. Celsius scale?
b. Kelvin scale?
Q7) In the gas laws,the ______________ temperature scale must be used.
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Chapter 6: Waves and Sound
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Q1) The relationship of wave speed,wavelength,and frequency is given by
Q2) A sound level of 96 dB is how many times as intense as one of 90 dB?
Q3) Wave frequency is inversely proportional to A) amplitude.
B) period.
C) wave velocity.
D) all of these.
Q4) All waves transfer ______________.
Q5) Which of the following radiations has the greatest frequency?
A) Infrared
B) Visible
C) Ultraviolet
D) X-rays
Q6) A series of ocean waves are moving past a surfer at a frequency of 40 waves per hour.Approximately how many waves would the surfer expect during 48 minutes?
A) 1920 waves
B) 32 waves
C) 40 waves
D) 50 waves
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Optics and Wave Effects
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Q1) A person who can clearly see nearby objects but not distant ones is ______________.
Q2) The change in the direction of a wave resulting from its encountering a small slit is known as
A) interference.
B) diffraction.
C) reflection.
D) polarization.
Q3) The photoreceptors responsible for color vision are called ______________.
Q4) An object is placed at the center of curvature of a concave mirror.The image is
A) inverted, real, and the same size as the object.
B) virtual and the same size as the object.
C) virtual and smaller than the object.
D) virtual and enlarged.
E) erect, real, and the same size as the object.
Q5) The angle of incidence of a light wave is
A) different depending on whether there is diffuse or specular reflection.
B) measured from a normal to the surface.
C) equal to the angle of refraction.
D) measured relative to the surface of the material.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Electricity and Magnetism
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Q1) An object that is positively charged will
A) attract a rubber rod stroked with fur.
B) attract a glass rod stroked with silk.
C) be polarized.
D) none of these
Q2) A 20- resistor and a 30- resistor are wired in parallel and connected to a 9.0-V battery.
a. How much current is drawn from the battery?
b. How much power is dissipated in the circuit?
Q3) The angle between true north and the direction in which a compass needle points is called the angle of A) attack.
B) inclination.
C) declination.
D) dip.
Q4) A circuit breaker is connected in ______________ in a circuit.
Q5) Another name for electric potential difference is ______________.
Q6) The resistances are added in a(n)______________ circuit.
Q7) A moving electric charge or a current in a magnetic field may experience a(n)______________.
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Chapter 9: Atomic Physics
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Q1) Einstein's special theory of relativity deals with objects that are
A) being hit by X-rays.
B) entering intense gravitational fields.
C) moving close to the speed of light.
D) being hit by energetic photons.
Q2) Dispersing light from a hot wire gives what type of spectrum?
A) Line absorption
B) Continuous
C) Line emission
D) Ultraviolet
Q3) The smaller the frequency of light,the smaller the ______________ of its photons.
A) wavelength
B) speed
C) mass
D) energy
Q4) Calculate the radius in nanometers of the orbit of a hydrogen atom's electron with n = 5.
Q5) The energy levels of electrons in atoms are ______________,which means that only certain values of energy are allowed.
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Chapter 10: Nuclear Physics
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Q1) The half-life of \({ } _ { 59 } ^ { 145 } \mathrm { Pr }\) is 6.0 h.What fraction of an original sample of this radionuclide would remain after 30.0 h have elapsed?
Q2) Write the equation for the reaction of a deuteron with a triton to form a neutron and another particle.
Q3) What is the symbol for the element whose atoms have 3 protons each?
A) Mn
B) Li
C) Sr
D) Li.
E) Cm
Q4) The symbol notation now used for elements was developed by A) Dalton.
B) Berzelius.
C) Rutherford.
D) Bohr.
Q5) The United States' effort to build an atomic bomb was named the ______________ Project.
Q6) The number of electrons in an atom of is \({ } _ { 9 } ^ { 19 } \mathrm {~F}\)
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Chemical Elements
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Q1) O<sub>3</sub> and O<sub>2</sub> are the two ______________ of the element oxygen.
Q2) If all samples of a material have identical properties and composition,it is A) a compound.
B) an element.
C) a homogeneous mixture.
D) an element or compound.
Q3) Homogeneous mixtures are those mixtures that have variable but ______________ composition.
Q4) Elements that display some properties of both metals and nonmetals are called ______________.
Q5) A cola drink is a good example of A) a compound.
B) a heterogeneous mixture.
C) a homogeneous mixture.
D) an element.
Q6) A(n)______________ is a substance composed of two or more elements chemically combined in a definite,fixed proportion by mass.
Q7) The formula for sulfuric acid is _________________.
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Q8) The three allotropes of carbon are graphite,the fullerenes,and ______________.
Chapter 12: Chemical Bonding
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Q1) The symbol for the element with the highest electronegativity is ______________.
Q2) A pair of electrons shared by two atoms forms
A) a metallic bond.
B) a double covalent bond.
C) a single covalent bond.
D) an ionic bond.
Q3) The ratio by mass of carbon to hydrogen in 100 g of a certain compound is 6 to 1.The ratio in 200 g of the same compound will be
A) 24 to 1.
B) 6 to 1.
C) 12 to 1.
D) none of these.
Q4) The percentage by mass of carbon
A) would be the same in CO as in CO<sub>2</sub>.
B) would be greater in CO than in CO<sub>2</sub>.
C) would be less in CO than in CO<sub>2</sub>.
D) cannot be determined without additional information.
Q5) The dipole arrow in an S-Se bond would point toward the ______________ atom.
Q6) When forming ionic compounds,atoms ______________ electrons.
Q7) In the ______________ phase,ionic compounds conduct electricity.
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Chapter 13: Chemical Reactions
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Q1) In order,from top to bottom,in the activity series come Li,K,Ba,Na,Al,Zn,Sn,and Pb.Therefore,
A) tin is more active than lead.
B) zinc is more active than aluminum.
C) potassium is more active than lithium.
D) sodium is more active than barium.
Q2) Which of the following is a weak acid?
A) Hydrochloric acid
B) Nitric acid
C) Sulfuric acid
D) Acetic acid
Q3) When the equation Ga + Br<sub>2</sub> GaBr<sub>3</sub> is balanced,the total of all the coefficients (both written and "understood")is
A) 4.
B) 3.
C) 6.
D) 7.
Q4) When an acid reacts with a base,the products are ______________ and a salt.
Q5) When an atom or ion gives up electrons,it is said to be ______________.
Page 15
Q6) ?Balance the chemical equation: Bi2S3+ O2 ? Bi2O3 + SO2
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Chapter 14: Organic Chemistry
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Q1) The general formula R-NH<sub>2</sub> is that of A) an amine.
B) an alkyl halide.
C) an alcohol.
D) none of these
Q2) 2-Bromobutane and 4-bromobutane are A) the same compound.
B) neither isomers nor the same compound. C) isomers.
Q3) Complete the equation: CH<sub>3</sub>C CCH<sub>3</sub> + 2 H<sub>2</sub>
Q4) A saturated hydrocarbon contains only ______________ bonds,and its hydrogen content is at a maximum.
Q5) When a fat is treated with NaOH,the ester bonds break to form glycerol and the sodium salts of fatty acids,which are known as ______________.
Q6) 1-Bromobutane and 4-bromobutane are A) the same compound.
B) neither isomers nor the same compound. C) isomers.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Place and Time
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Q1) An observer measures the North Star (Polaris)at an altitude of 30°.The observer's latitude is
A) 40°N.
B) none of these.
C) 60°N.
D) 30°N.
Q2) The actual amount of time it takes for Earth to rotate 360° on its axis is called a A) meridian day.
B) 24-hour day.
C) sidereal day.
D) mean solar day.
E) solar day.
Q3) The elapsed time between two successive crossings of the same meridian by a star other than the Sun is known as the ______________ day.
Q4) All meridians are one-half of a(n)______________.
Q5) The ______________ of a surface position on Earth can be defined as the angular measurement,in degrees,north or south of the equator.
Q6) A time zone is theoretically ______________° wide.
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Chapter 16: The Solar System
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Q1) The fourth planet from the Sun is ______________.
Q2) The ______________ effect provides evidence of motions within other planetary systems.
Q3) Planets in a planetary system other than the solar system
A) have never been detected.
B) have been detected.
C) are an impossibility.
D) are universally present.
Q4) The planet with the polar "ice caps" of frozen carbon dioxide is ______________.
Q5) Which of the following planets can be in opposition?
A) Mercury
B) Venus
C) Earth
D) Mars
Q6) The largest volcano on Earth is in ______________.
Q7) The rings of Saturn were discovered by ______________.
Q8) The Earth-centered model of the solar system is called the ______________ model.
Q10) The Great Dark Spot is a feature of ______________. Page 18
Q9) The planets with known rings are Saturn,Neptune,______________,and Jupiter.
Q11) Determine the sidereal period of a planet that is located 5.2 AU from the Sun.
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Chapter 17: Moons and Small Solar System Bodies
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Q1) When a meteor strikes Earth's surface,it is called a(n)______________.
Q2) ______________ is the major moon of Neptune.
Q3) Tides are caused by
A) the gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun.
B) Earth's rotation.
C) the Moon keeping the same face toward Earth.
D) none of these.
Q4) The particles of interplanetary dust are called ______________.
Q5) Short-period comets,such as Halley's Comet,are believed to come from the ______________.
Q6) A waning crescent moon can appear on an observer's meridian between ______________ and ______________.(Answers in times of day.)
Q7) When the Moon appears on an observer's meridian at 4 A.M.,the Moon is in the ______________ phase.
Q8) Spring tides occur close to the time of ______________ moon.
A) the new
B) the first-quarter
C) both the new and the full
D) the last-quarter
Page 20
Q9) When a meteoroid enters Earth's atmosphere,it is called a(n)______________.
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Chapter 18: The Universe
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Q1) On the H-R diagram,the Sun lies on the ______________.
Q2) The most distant known objects in space are called ______________.
Q3) The three fusion reactions used by the Sun to generate energy are together known as the ______________.
Q4) The Greek astronomer who assigned the stars to six magnitudes was named
______________.
Q5) Polaris,the pole star,is 208 parsecs away.Calculate the distance to Polaris in kilometers.
Q6) Eighty-eight prominent groups of stars in the sky are called the _______________.
A) constellations
B) local groups
C) clusters
D) galaxies
Q7) The brightest star (apparent magnitude -1)in the night sky in the Northern Hemisphere is named
A) Polaris.
B) Sirius.
C) Deneb.
D) Alpha Centauri.
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Chapter 19: The Atmosphere
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Q1) The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is
A) oxygen.
B) nitrogen.
C) water vapor.
D) carbon dioxide.
Q2) The transition between the troposphere and the stratosphere is called the A) stratopause.
B) tropopause.
C) mesopause.
D) thermopause.
Q3) A phenomenon that occurs in the ionosphere is A) the greenhouse effect.
B) photosynthesis.
C) Rayleigh scattering.
D) auroras.
Q4) The fraction of incident light that a body reflects is called its ______________.
Q5) The blueness of the sky results from ______________.
Q6) The ozone layer absorbs ______________ radiation.
Q7) A wind vane points in the direction ______________ the wind is blowing.
Page 23
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Chapter 20: Atmospheric Effects
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Q1) Conditions opposite to those of El Niño conditions are called
A) La Niña.
B) La Niño.
C) El Niña.
D) Anti-Niño.
Q2) Air pollution results from ______________ combustion of impure fuels.
A) incomplete
B) complete
C) overheated
D) none of the above
Q3) An \(\text { El Niño }\) usually results in
A) more rainfall for South America.
B) warmer water in the western Pacific.
C) less rainfall for Australia.
D) all of the above.
E) none of the above.
Q4) A common fuel impurity in fossil fuels is ______________.
Q5) Albedo changes may result from ______________ pollution.
Q6) When at home during a tornado warning,you should seek shelter in the ______________ of the building.
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Chapter 21: Structural G Eology and P Late Tectonics
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Q1) Geologic evidence that supports the theory of continental drift does not include A) glaciation in the Southern Hemisphere.
B) drag marks on the ocean floor.
C) continuity of geologic structures.
D) the discovery of the same fossils on different continents.
Q2) Remanent magnetism refers to the magnetism of rocks that contain the mineral named ______________.
Q3) The part of the mantle located directly below the lithosphere is called the ______________.
Q4) The basic mechanism for plate movement is thought to be A) earthquake surface waves.
B) the tidal force of the Moon.
C) convection cells in the asthenosphere.
D) earthquake body waves.
Q5) Remanent magnetism is present in rocks that contain the mineral named A) magnetite.
B) quartz.
C) hematite.
D) calcite.
Q6) In 1960,______________ proposed the concept of seafloor spreading.
Page 25
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Chapter 22: Minerals, rocks, and Volcanoes
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Q1) Dripstone formations that form on cavern floors are called _____________.
A) stalactites
B) pool stones
C) stalagmites
D) sedimentary
Q2) When a mineral's surface reflects light in a manner similar to a smooth metal,the mineral is said to have a(n)______________ luster.
Q3) Which of the following is not a metamorphic rock?
A) Sandstone
B) Schist
C) Slate
D) Marble
Q4) The hardest mineral on the Mohs hardness scale is named ______________.
Q5) Gabbro and rhyolite are classified as ______________rocks.
Q6) What is the hardness of diamond on the Mohs scale?
A) 1
B) 4
C) 7
D) 10
Q7) Conglomerate and breccia are classified as ______________ rocks.
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Chapter 23: Surface Processes
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Q1) A stream's load is divided into three components: ______________ load,suspended load,and bed load.
Q2) The fast,downslope movement of large blocks of weathered materials is known as a A) solifluction.
B) slump.
C) rock flow.
D) landslide.
Q3) A river's suspended load and bed load may accumulate at its mouth and form a A) sea arch.
B) guyot.
C) delta.
D) sea mount.
Q4) The most important acid involved in chemical weathering is A) carbonic acid.
B) sulfuric acid.
C) hydrochloric acid.
D) none of these.
Q5) The physical disintegration and chemical decomposition of rock at or near Earth's surface is called ______________.
Page 27
Q6) The physical disintegration or fracturing of rock is called ______________.
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Chapter 24: Geologic Time
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Q1) The process of matching up rock layers in different localities by such means as index fossils is called
A) conformational analysis.
B) correlation.
C) indexation.
D) cross-cutting.
Q2) The study of fossils is called ______________.
Q3) Geologic evidence places Earth's age at ______________ million years.
Q4) A(n)______________ is any indication of prehistoric life preserved in rock.
Q5) The Pleistocene is a(n) A) epoch.
B) era.
C) eon.
D) period.
Q6) The Devonian is a(n) A) epoch.
B) era.
C) eon.
D) period.
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Q7) Carbon dating was used to establish the age of the Shroud of ______________.