
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Physical Science is an introductory course that explores the fundamental principles governing the natural world, focusing on topics from both physics and chemistry. Students will examine key concepts such as motion, forces, energy, matter, atomic structure, chemical reactions, and the properties of waves. The course emphasizes scientific methods, problem-solving, and critical thinking skills through hands-on experiments and interactive activities. By understanding the basic laws and theories that describe physical phenomena, students develop a solid foundation for further study in scientific and technological fields.
Recommended Textbook
Conceptual Physics 12th Edition by Paul G. Hewitt
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37 Chapters
2874 Verified Questions
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Q1) Science and technology are
A)responsible for all the good in the world.
B)responsible for all the bad in the world.
C)actually one and the same.
D)fundamentally different from each other.
Answer: D
Q2) When a dishonest scientist reports false information, he or she
A)as in many other professions, will be excused by the scientific community.
B)gets no second chance in the scientific community.
C)is elevated in the scientific community.
Answer: B
Q3) A truly educated person is knowledgeable about
A)science.
B)the arts.
C)religion.
D)all of the above
Answer: D
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Q1) When Nellie Newton hangs at rest in the middle of a clothesline, tensions will be the same in each side of the rope when
A)the lengths of each rope are the same.
B)the angles for both sides of the rope are equal.
C)she is in equilibrium.
Answer: B
Q2) A roller-coaster ride with 6 passengers takes 3 minutes. Neglecting friction, a similar ride with 12 passengers aboard would take
A)1)5 minutes.
B)3 minutes.
C)6 minutes.
D)18 minutes.
Answer: B
Q3) The amount of force needed to sustain motion of a rock in outer space is A)a force equal to its weight.
B)a force less than its weight if friction is absent.
C)none of these
Answer: C
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Q1) A freely-falling watermelon falls with constant A)velocity.
B)speed.
C)acceleration.
D)distances each successive second.
Answer: C
Q2) An 80-km/h airplane flying against a 10-km/h head wind has a groundspeed of A)10 km/h.
B)70 km/h.
C)80 km/h.
D)90 km/h.
Answer: B
Q3) If you throw a ball straight downward (in the absence of air resistance), after leaving your hand its acceleration is A)less than 10 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
B)10 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
C)greater than 10 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
Answer: B
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Q1) Two objects of the same size, but unequal weights are dropped from a tall tower. Taking air resistance into consideration, the object to hit the ground first will be the A)lighter object.
B)heavier object.
C)Both hit at the same time.
D)not enough information
Q2) What horizontally-applied force will accelerate a 400-kg crate at 1 m/s<sup>2</sup> across a factory floor against a friction force half its weight?
A)600 N
B)1600 N
C)2000 N
D)2400 N
E)none of the above
Q3) Phil stands at rest with both feet on a scale that reads 500 N. When he gently lifts one foot, the scale reads
A)less than 500 N.
B)500 N.
C)more than 500 N.
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Q1) If vertically falling rain makes slanted 45° streaks on the side windows of a moving car, the speed of the car
A)is less than the speed of the falling drops.
B)equals the speed of the falling drops.
C)exceeds the speed of the falling drops.
D)need more information
Q2) You stand on your skateboard and exert a 50-N push on the wall next to you. If your mass is 60 kg you'll momentarily accelerate from the wall at about
A)0.08 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
B)0.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
C)8.0 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
D)none of the above
Q3) A fast-moving missile soaring overhead possesses A)speed. B)force.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
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Q1) When Freddy Frog drops vertically from a tree onto a horizontally-moving skateboard, the speed of the skateboard
A)decreases.
B)increases.
C)neither decreases nor increases.
Q2) An astronaut floating alone in outer space throws a baseball. If the ball moves away at 20 m/s, the astronaut will
A)move in the opposite direction at 20 m/s.
B)move in the opposite direction at a lower speed.
C)move in the opposite direction at a higher speed.
D)none of the above
Q3) A karate chop is more effective if one's hand
A)follows through upon impact.
B)bounces upon impact.
C)extends the time upon impact.
Q4) When Peter tosses an egg against a sagging sheet, the egg doesn't break due to A)reduced impulse.
B)reduced momentum.
C)both of these
D)neither of these

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Q1) Strictly speaking, more fuel is consumed by your car if the air conditioner, headlights, or even a radio is turned on. This statement is
A)false.
B)true only if the car's engine is running.
C)true.
Q2) A bicycle that travels four as fast as another when braking to a stop will skid
A)twice as far.
B)four times as far.
C)eight times as far
D)sixteen times as far.
E)depends on the mass of the bike
Q3) A ball rolling down an incline has its maximum potential energy at
A)the top.
B)a quarter of the way down.
C)halfway down.
D)the bottom.
Q4) Which requires the most amount of work by the brakes of a car?
A)slowing down from 100 km/h to 70 km/h
B)slowing down from 70 km/h to a stop
C)equal amounts for both

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Q1) To kick a football so it won't topple end over end, kick it so the force of impact extends
A)above its center of gravity.
B)through its center of gravity.
C)below its center of gravity.
Q2) Your pet hamster sits on a record player that has constant angular speed. If the hamster moves to a point twice as far from the center, then its linear speed
A)doubles.
B)halves.
C)remains the same.
Q3) When you do somersaults, you'll more easily rotate when your body is
A)straight with both arms above your head.
B)straight with both arms at your sides.
C)curled into a ball shape.
D)no difference
Q4) The rotational inertia of a pencil is greatest about an axis
A)along its length, where the lead is.
B)about its midpoint, like a propeller.
C)about its end, like a pendulum.
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Q1) The concept of force is fundamental to
A)Newton's theory of gravitation.
B)Einstein's theory of gravitation.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q2) Planets wobble in their orbits due to A)the gravitational attraction to other planets.
B)uncertainties in the inverse-square law.
C)elliptical-orbit quirks.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) On each given day and location, tides rise and fall at A)about the same time.
B)exactly the same time.
C)different times.
D)ever increasing rates daily.
Q4) When a star collapses to form a black hole, its mass A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)remains the same.

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Q1) A projectile is launched from ground level at 15° above the horizontal and lands downrange. What other projection angle for the same speed would produce the same down-range distance?
A)30°
B)45°
C)50°
D)75°
E)90°
Q2) Rockets that launch satellites into orbit need less thrust when fired from A)Cape Canaveral in Florida.
B)Edwards Air Force Base in California.
C)Hawaii.
D)location does not affect the required rocket thrust.
Q3) An astronaut at Earth's surface has a mass of 50 kg and a weight of 500 N. If she were floating freely inside a space habitat in remote space, she would have
A)no weight and less mass.
B)no weight and the same mass.
C)more weight and no mass.
D)none of the above
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Q1) To change mercury into gold, a pair of protons must be A)removed from the mercury nucleus.
B)added to the mercury nucleus.
C)either of these
D)neither of these
Q2) An atomic model of the atom is
A)a symbolic representation of the atom.
B)a stepping stone to further understanding.
C)an abstraction enabling predictions.
D)all of the above
Q3) In our part of the universe, antimatter is A)non-existent.
B)plentiful.
C)short-lived.
D)long-lived.
Q4) Which of the following is an inert gas?
A)Hydrogen
B)Helium.
C)Carbon
D)Oxygen
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Q1) An iron block in a furnace is heated and consequently expands, which means that its density is
A)less.
B)the same.
C)more.
Q2) Which potatoes when peeled produce the most peelings?
A)10 kg of large potatoes
B)10 kg of small potatoes
C)both the same
Q3) Which ball will bounce higher off a hard surface?
A)a common rubber ball
B)a steel ball
C)both the same
Q4) Which has the greater density?
A)a cup-full of fresh water
B)a lake-full of fresh water
C)both the same
D)need more information
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Q1) Compared to the density of water, the density of a fish is A)more.
B)less.
C)the same.
Q2) When a boat sails from fresh water to salt water, the boat will float
A)lower in the water.
B)higher in the water.
C)at the same water level.
Q3) When you observe the applications of pistons in lifting operations you're seeing A)Pascal's principle in action.
B)how energy can be increased.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q4) The density of a submerged submarine at rest is about the same as the density of A)a crab.
B)iron.
C)a floating submarine.
D)water.
E)none of the above
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Q1) The air in your classroom has A)mass.
B)weight.
C)energy.
D)all of the above E)none of the above
Q2) A common 5-liter metal can will float in air if it is A)evacuated of air.
B)filled with a very large amount of helium.
C)thrown high enough.
D)no way, unless the displaced air weighs more than the can and its contents!
Q3) What approximate weight of air is in a column 1-cm<sup>2</sup> in cross section that extends from sea level to the top of the atmosphere?
A)0.01 N
B)10 N
C)100 N
D)1000 N
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Q1) Room temperature on the Kelvin scale is about
A)100 K.
B)200 K.
C)300 K.
D)400 K.
E)more than 400 K.
Q2) Compared to a giant iceberg, a hot cup of coffee has
A)more internal energy and higher temperature.
B)higher temperature, but less internal energy.
C)a greater specific heat and more internal energy.
D)none of the above
Q3) Heat energy is measured in units of A)joules.
B)calories.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q4) If the temperature of a sample of water at 4°C is slightly lowered, its volume A)increases.
B)decreases.
C)remains the same.
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Q1) If no molecular collisions occurred in a sample of gas, temperature of the gas would A)increase.
B)decrease.
C)be unaffected.
Q2) Heat normally flows from objects of high
A)internal energy to objects of low internal energy.
B)temperature to objects of low temperature.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) A blueberry pie will be a net absorber of energy when its temperature is A)higher than its surroundings.
B)lower than its surroundings.
C)none of these
Q4) A bridge is more likely to be ice covered than the roadway on a cold day because A)a bridge is more conducting than ground.
B)a bridge is more commonly wet than ground.
C)heat upwelling from the ground below is absent on a bridge.
D)none of the above
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Q1) An inventor discovers a harmless and tasteless salt, which when added to water changes its boiling point. The market value for this salt will be better if the salt
A)lowers the boiling point of water.
B)raises the boiling point of water.
C)either raises or lowers the boiling point, as the food would be cooked either way.
D)none of the above
Q2) During snow fall, the surrounding air is A)cooled.
B)warmed.
C)both of these D)neither of these
Q3) Steam burns are more damaging than burns caused by boiling water because steam
A)has more energy per gram than boiling water.
B)releases additional energy when it condenses.
C)both of these D)neither of these
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Q1) Entropy is a measure of A)messiness.
B)disorder.
C)both of the above
D)none of the above
Q2) Two identical blocks of iron are placed in contact, one at 10°C and the other at 20°C. If the cooler block cools to 5°C and the warmer block warms to 25°C, this would violate the
A)first law of thermodynamics.
B)second law of thermodynamics.
C)third law of thermodynamics.
D)none of the above
Q3) The amount of energy converted to light by an incandescent light bulb is about A)10% and the amount converted to heat about 90%
B)90% and the amount converted to heat about 10%.
C)either of these depending on the brand.
Q4) A quantity of water has more entropy when it is A)frozen ice.
B)boiling.
C)at room temperature.

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Q1) A wiggle in both space and time is a A)vibration.
B)wave.
C)both of these D)neither of these
Q2) A blue shift for light indicates that the light source is moving A)toward you.
B)away from you.
C)both of these D)neither of these
Q3) A wiggle in time is a A)vibration.
B)wave.
C)both of these D)neither of these
Q4) If you quickly run toward the orchestra at a concert, the frequency of the sound you hear will be A)decreased.
B)increased.
C)neither of these
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Q1) A 340-hertz sound wave travels at 340 m/s in air with a wavelength of A)1 m.
B)10 m.
C)100 m.
D)1000 m.
E)none of the above
Q2) Compressions and rarefactions are characteristics of A)longitudinal waves.
B)transverse waves.
C)both of these D)need more information
Q3) Sound waves cannot travel in A)air.
B)water.
C)steel.
D)a vacuum.
Q4) Sound waves can interfere with one another so that no sound results.
A)True
B)False
C)Either, depending on the air temperature.
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Q1) Analog sound signals are produced by A)phonograph records.
B)CDs.
C)DVDs.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) How many octaves exist between 100 hertz and 1600 hertz?
A)4
B)5
C)6
D)7
E)8
Q3) Vibrating membranes relate to which instrument?
A)violin
B)drum
C)oboe
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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Q1) Rub electrons from your hair with a comb and the comb becomes
A)negatively charged.
B)positively charged.
C)discharged.
Q2) A common naturally-polarized bit of matter is
A)an electron.
B)a hydrogen atom
C)a water molecule.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) The pair of protons in the nucleus of a helium atom
A)attract a pair of orbiting electrons.
B)repel orbiting electrons.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q4) An electron and a proton
A)attract each other.
B)repel each other.
C)neither attract nor repel each other.
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Q1) When you turn on a lamp, the initial current in its filament is greater at first, rather than a moment later, which indicates
A)something is faulty.
B)a time delay for current attaining its average speed.
C)increased temperature means increased resistance.
D)nothing of interest
Q2) The equivalent (combined)resistance of 1-ohm, 2-ohm, and 3-ohm in parallel is about
A)0.06 ohm.
B)1 ohm.
C)1.8 ohms.
D)6 ohms.
E)9 ohms.
Q3) Compared to a single lamp connected to a battery, two identical lamps connected in series to the same battery will carry
A)more current.
B)less current.
C)the same current.
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Q1) The force on an electron moving in a magnetic field will be least when its direction is A)the same as the magnetic field direction.
B)perpendicular to the magnetic field direction.
C)either of these
D)neither of these
Q2) A galvanometer can be calibrated to measure A)electric current.
B)electric voltage.
C)both of these
D)none of these
Q3) A current-carrying loop of wire experiences no tendency to rotate in a magnetic field when
A)field lines pass directly through the loop.
B)no field lines pass through the loop.
C)none of these
Q4) The direction of the force exerted on a moving charge in a magnetic field is A)in the direction of the motion.
B)opposite its motion.
C)at right angles to the direction of the motion.
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Q1) The spacing between the parallel power lines is affected by A)current-carrying capacities of wires.
B)electrical insulation.
C)the wing span of birds in the vicinity.
D)none of the above
Q2) When voltage is induced in a coil of wire, current is A)also induced.
B)not induced.
C)cancelled.
Q3) Compared to the primary voltage, the secondary voltage can be A)higher.
B)lower.
C)the same.
D)any of the above
E)none of the above
Q4) Electromagnetic induction occurs in a coil when there is a change in A)electric field intensity in the coil.
B)magnetic field intensity in the coil.
C)electromagnetic polarity.
D)none of the above
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Q1) While Earth is experiencing a total solar eclipse, an observer on the side of the Moon facing Earth would see
A)Earth disappear from the sky.
B)Earth dim and turn reddish.
C)nothing unusual.
D)a dark area moving across the face of Earth.
Q2) Compared to its average speed in air, the average speed of a beam of light in glass is
A)more.
B)less.
C)the same.
Q3) Consider light energy that is momentarily absorbed in glass and then re-emitted. Compared to the absorbed light, the frequency of the re-emitted light is
A)considerably less.
B)slightly less.
C)the same.
D)slightly more.
E)considerably more.
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Q1) The whiteness of clouds, unlike the blueness of the sky, primarily involves
A)medium sized particles.
B)reflection and refraction of sunlight.
C)seeds upon which condensation of cloud material forms.
D)water prisms.
Q2) Which interacts more with high-frequency sounds?
A)large bells
B)small bells
C)both the same
Q3) If Earth's atmosphere were appreciably thicker, snow would appear
A)still white.
B)yellow.
C)blue.
D)ultraviolet.
Q4) The LEDs that make up the color on some TV screens are
A)red, blue, yellow.
B)red, blue, green.
C)yellow, blue, green.
D)magenta, cyan, yellow.
E)red, green, yellow.
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Q1) Object and image for a plane mirror occur
A)along the same plane.
B)equal distances from the mirror.
C)at right angles to each other.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) When you are beneath the surface of water and looking upward, light from above is seen
A)within a cone of 96°.
B)at angles beyond a cone of 96°.
C)at any angle if the surface is smooth.
Q3) Stars twinkle when seen from Earth. When seen by an astronaut on the Moon, stars
A)twinkle more.
B)twinkle less.
C)don't twinkle.
Q4) Light travels slower in a lens having a
A)high index of refraction.
B)low index of refraction.
C)same in each
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Q1) Because of absorption, a Polaroid will actually transmit 40% of incident unpolarized light. Two such Polaroids with their axes aligned will transmit A)0%.
B)40%.
C)100%.
D)between 0% and 40%.
E)between 40% and 100%.
Q2) For viewing tiny objects in a microscope, diffraction is A)helpful.
B)a hindrance.
C)not a factor.
Q3) Polaroid sunglasses reduce much glare by polarization axes that are A)vertical.
B)horizontal.
C)at right angles to each other.
Q4) Huygens' principle applies mainly to A)refraction of waves in a medium.
B)reflection of waves.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
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Q1) Which of these lamps employs semi-conductor technology?
A)incandescent lamp
B)fluorescent lamp
C)CFL
D)LED
Q2) The dark lines in the Sun's spectrum are due to light that is A)absorbed by the Sun's atmosphere.
B)emitted by the Sun.
C)reflected by the Sun.
D)none of the above
Q3) Discrete spectral lines are observed when excitation occurs in a A)solid.
B)liquid.
C)gas.
D)superconductor.
E)all of the above
Q4) The radiation curve for a red hot fire-place poker peaks in the A)infrared region.
B)green region.
C)ultraviolet region.
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Q1) Which can undergo diffraction?
A)photons.
B)electrons.
C)positrons.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following has the longer wavelength?
A)a low-energy electron
B)a high-energy electron
C)both the same
D)none of the above
Q3) Very low-intensity light passing through a double slit produces a pattern that
A)is built up one photon at a time.
B)reveals which slit each photon passed through.
C)changes only in intensity as time passes, not in detailed structure.
Q4) Which experiment best illustrates the particle-like nature of light?
A)photoelectric effect
B)double-slit experiment
C)both of these
D)neither of these

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Q1) When an electron de-excites from the third quantum level to the second, and then to the ground state, two photons are emitted. The sum of the emitted frequencies equals the frequency of the single photon that would be emitted if de-excitation were from the third to
A)the second level.
B)the ground state.
C)any other level.
D)none of the above
Q2) By scattering alpha particles from gold, Rutherford showed the atomic nucleus to be very
A)small relative to the atom.
B)massive relative to the mass of an electron.
C)both of these
D)neither of these
Q3) Both electrons and protons have equal-magnitude
A)mass.
B)charge.
C)energy.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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Q1) When thorium (A = 90)emits a beta particle, the resulting nucleus has atomic number
A)88.
B)89.
C)90.
D)92.
E)none of the above
Q2) Carbon dating requires that the object being tested contain
A)organic material.
B)inorganic material.
C)charcoal.
D)none of the above
Q3) Which will NOT bend when moving in a magnetic field?
A)alpha particle
B)beta particle
C)gamma ray
D)all bend the same
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Q1) The percentage of electricity from nuclear power generated in recent decades in the United States has been about
A)10%.
B)20%.
C)30%.
D)40%.
E)more than 40%
Q2) To pluck a nucleon from a nucleus requires A)work.
B)kinetic energy.
C)potential energy.
D)none of the above
Q3) Fusing two iron nuclei would occur with A)absorption of energy.
B)release of energy.
C)neither of these
Q4) Iron is a poor choice of nuclear fuel because it releases
A)energy only when fused.
B)energy only when fissioned.
C)no energy when fused or fissioned.
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Q1) A spaceship traveling very fast relative to you fires a stream of photons at speed c away from you. You measure the photons' speed to be
A)less than c.
B)more than c.
C)equal to c.
Q2) When an object of mass m is pushed to relativistic speed v, its momentum is A)greater than mv.
B)smaller than mv.
C)equal to mv.
Q3) As you approach a steady light source, the wavelength of the emitted light appears A)longer.
B)shorter.
C)the same.
Q4) As you recede from a steady light source, the wavelength of the emitted light appears A)longer.
B)shorter.
C)the same.
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Q1) Einstein's theory of gravitation
A)agrees with established results of Newton's theory.
B)has been supported by repeated experiments.
C)incorporates Newton's theory as a special case.
D)is superior to Newton's where spacetime is more curved.
E)all of the above
Q2) Strictly speaking, the sum of the angles on a triangle equals 180 degrees
A)in flat space.
B)on a spherical surface.
C)on a saddle-shaped surface.
D)all or any of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) Inside an accelerating spaceship far from gravitational influences, a flashlight beam will
A)not bend.
B)curve as it would in a gravitational field equal to the acceleration of the spaceship.
C)follow a semi-circular path.
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Q1) Compared to a soft sound, the speed of a loud sound is A)less, B)greater, C)the same, And compared to low-frequency sound, higher-frequency sound travels D)more slowly. E)faster.
F)the same speed.
Q2) A radioactive isotope has a half-life of one month. At the end of one month, the amount of the original isotope still remaining is A)none, B)one-quarter, C)one-half, D)three-fourths, And at the end of two months, the amount of original isotope remaining is E)none.
F)one-fourth.
G)one-half.
H)three-fourths.
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