
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Physical Science is an introductory course that explores the fundamental principles and concepts underlying the physical world, including topics from physics, chemistry, astronomy, and earth sciences. Students will examine the nature and properties of matter and energy, the laws of motion, the structure of atoms, chemical reactions, and the basics of the universe and our planet. Through experiments, observations, and problem-solving activities, learners will develop scientific reasoning skills and an appreciation for the role of physical science in everyday life and various technological advancements.
Recommended Textbook
Chemistry The Central Science 12th Edition by Theodore
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Page 2
E. Brown

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Q1) In the following list, only __________ is not an example of a chemical reaction.
A)burning a plastic water bottle
B)the production of hydrogen gas from water
C)the tarnishing of a copper penny
D)chopping a log into sawdust
E)charging a cellular phone
Answer: C
Q2) Which one of the following is an intensive property?
A)mass
B)temperature
C)heat content
D)volume
E)amount
Answer: B
Q3) 38.325 lbs = __________ grams. (1 lb = 454 g)
Answer: 17400
Q4) Temperature is a physical property that determines the direction of heat flow.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Aluminum reacts with a certain nonmetallic element to form a compound with the general formula Al<sub>2</sub>X<sub>3</sub>. Element X must be from Group __________ of the Periodic Table of Elements.
A)3A
B)4A
C)5A
D)6A
E)7A
Answer: D
Q2) Which element forms an ion with the same charge as the ammonium ion?
A)potassium
B)chlorine
C)calcium
D)oxygen
E)nitrogen
Answer: A
Q3) The correct name for Na<sub>3</sub>N is sodium azide.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Lead (II)carbonate decomposes to give lead (II)oxide and carbon dioxide: PbCO<sub>3</sub> (s) PbO (s)+ CO<sub>2</sub> (g)
If the reaction yield is 95.7%, how many grams of lead (II)oxide will be produced by the decomposition of 2.50 g of lead (II)carbonate?
A)1.04
B)1.55
C)2.09
D)4.00
E)5.55
Answer: C
Q2) Which one of the following substances is the product of this combination reaction? Al (s)+ I<sub>2</sub> (s) __________
A)AlI<sub>2</sub>
B)AlI
C)AlI<sub>3</sub>
D)Al<sub>2</sub>I<sub>3</sub>
E)Al<sub>3</sub>I<sub>2</sub>
Answer: C
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Q1) Of the reactions below, only __________ is not spontaneous.
A)Mg (s)+ 2HCl (aq) MgCl<sub>2</sub> (aq)+ H<sub>2</sub> (g)
B)2Ag (s)+ 2HNO<sub>3</sub> (aq) 2AgNO<sub>3</sub> (aq)+ H<sub>2</sub> (g)
C)2Ni (s)+ H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> (aq) Ni<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> (aq)+
H<sub>2</sub> (g)
D)2Al (s)+ 6HBr (aq) 2AlBr<sub>3</sub> (aq)+ 3 H<sub>2</sub> (g)
E)Zn (s)+ 2HI (aq) ZnI<sub>2</sub> (aq)+ H<sub>2</sub> (g)
Q2) Calculate the concentration (M)of arsenic acid (H<sub>3</sub>AsO<sub>4</sub>)in a solution if 25.00 mL of that solution required 35.21 mL of 0.1894 M KOH for neutralization.
Q3) What are the respective concentrations (M)of K<sup>+</sup> and PO<sub>4</sub><sup>3-</sup> afforded by dissolving 0.800 mol K<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4 </sub>in water and diluting to 1.63 L?
A)0.800 and 0.800
B)0.491 and 0.491
C)0.800 and 0.491
D)1.44 and 0.491
E)0.489 and 0.163
Q4) How many moles of Co<sup>2+</sup> are present in 0.150 L of a 0.200 M solution of CoI<sub>2</sub>?
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Q1) When a system __________, E is always negative.
A)absorbs heat and does work
B)gives off heat and does work
C)absorbs heat and has work done on it
D)gives off heat and has work done on it
E)none of the above is always negative.
Q2) The value of E for a system that performs 168 kJ of work on its surroundings and loses 79 kJ of heat is __________ kJ.
A)+247
B)-247
C)+55
D)-55
E)-168
Q3) The primary component of natural gas is propane.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The standard enthalpy change of a reaction is the enthalpy change when all reactants and products are at ________ pressure and a specific temperature.
Q5) __________ is defined as the energy used to move an object against a force.
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Q1) Elements in group __________ have a np<sup>5</sup> electron configuration in the outer shell.
Q2) An NMR spectrum results from photon irradiation in which the nuclear spin alignment is flipped.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A spectrum containing radiation of specific wavelengths is called a __________.
Q4) Calculate the energy (J)change associated with an electron transition from n = 2 to n = 5 in a Bohr hydrogen atom.
A)6.5 × 10<sup>-19</sup>
B)5.5 × 10<sup>-19</sup>
C)8.7 × 10<sup>-20</sup>
D)4.6 × 10<sup>-1</sup><sup>9</sup>
E)5.8 × 10<sup>-53</sup>
Q5) Which one of the following configurations depicts an excited oxygen atom?
A)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>2</sup>
B)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>2</sup>3s<sup>2</sup>
C)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>1</sup>
D)1s<sup>2</sup>2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>4</sup>
E)[He]2s<sup>2</sup>2p<sup>4</sup>

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Q1) All of the group VIA elements are solids except __________.
Q2) Sodium is much more apt to exist as a cation than is chlorine. This is because
A)chlorine is a gas and sodium is a solid
B)chlorine has a greater electron affinity than sodium does C)chlorine is bigger than sodium
D)chlorine has a greater ionization energy than sodium does E)chlorine is more metallic than sodium
Q3) Transition metals within a period differ mainly in the number of ________ electrons.
A)s
B)p
C)d
D)f
E)all of the above
Q4) A group of ions all containing the same number of electrons constitute an isoelectronic series.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Complete the following : P<sub>4</sub>O<sub>10</sub> + 6 H<sub>2</sub>O
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Q1) Given the electronegativities below, which covalent single bond is most polar?
Element: H C N O
Electronegativity: 2.1 2.5 3.0 3.5
A)C-H
B)N-H
C)O-H
D)O-C
E)O-N
Q2) The central atom in __________ violates the octet rule.
A)NH<sub>3</sub>
B)SeF<sub>2</sub>
C)BF<sub>3</sub>
D)AsF<sub>3</sub>
E)CF<sub>4</sub>
Q3) Of the atoms below, __________ is the least electronegative. A)Ba B)Be C)Mg

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Q1) The hybridization of orbitals on the central atom in a molecule is sp. The electron-domain geometry around this central atom is __________.
A)octahedral
B)linear
C)trigonal planar
D)trigonal bipyramidal
E)tetrahedral
Q2) According to MO theory, overlap of two p atomic orbitals produces __________.
A)one MO and one <sup>*</sup> MO
B)one MO and one MO
C)one MO and one <sup>*</sup> MO or one MO and one <sup>*</sup> MO
D)one <sup>+</sup> MO and one <sup>*</sup> MO
E)two MOs, two <sup>+</sup> MOs, one MO, and one <sup>*</sup><sup> </sup>MO
Q3) Each molecular orbital can accommodate, at most, two electrons with their spins paired. This is called the __________.
Q4) XeF<sub>4</sub> is a polar molecule.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A sample of oxygen gas was found to effuse at a rate equal to two times that of an unknown gas. The molecular weight of the unknown gas is __________ g/mol.
A)64
B)128
C)8
D)16
E)8.0
Q2) SO<sub>2</sub> (5.00 g)and CO<sub>2</sub> (5.00 g)were placed in a 750.0 mL container at 50.0°C. The total pressure in the container was __________ atm.
A)0.192
B)4.02
C)2.76
D)6.78
E)1.60
Q3) What is the density (in g/L)of oxygen gas at 77.0°C and 700.0 torr?
Q4) The effusion rate of a gas is proportional to the square root of its molar mass.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Abnormally high blood pressure is called __________.
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Q1) The initial discovery of a liquid crystal resulted from studies on what compound?
Q2) Of the following substances, __________ has the highest boiling point.
A)H<sub>2</sub>O
B)CO<sub>2</sub>
C)CH<sub>4</sub>
D)Kr
E)NH<sub>3</sub>
Q3) Which type of liquid crystal is colored and changes color with temperature?
A)nematic
B)smectic A
C)cholesteric
D)smectic B
E)smectic C
Q4) Which of the following has dispersion forces as its only intermolecular force?
A)CH<sub>4</sub>
B)HCl
C)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>13</sub>NH<sub>2</sub>
D)NaCl
E)CH<sub>3</sub>Cl
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Q1) Which of the following is not an alloy?
A)brass
B)steel
C)sterling silver
D)dental amalgam
E)ceramic
Q2) Silicon technology is based on the fact that silicon oxide is a chemically stable conductor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Inorganic compounds that are semiconductors have an average of __________ valence electrons.
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q4) __________ are solid-state materials that can be made either semiconducting or metallic without any doping.
Q5) How many atoms are contained in a face-centered cubic unit cell?
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Q1) The ideal value of i (van't Hoff factor)for (NH<sub>4</sub>)<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>.
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q2) A solution is prepared by dissolving 23.7 g of CaCl<sub>2</sub> in 375 g of water. The density of the resulting solution is 1.05 g/mL. The concentration of Cl<sup>-</sup> in this solution is __________ M.
A)0.214
B)0.562
C)1.12
D)1.20
E)6.64 × 10<sup>-2</sup>
Q3) A solution with a solute concentration greater than the solubility is called a supercritical solution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The formula weight of FeCl<sub>3</sub><sup>.</sup>6H<sub>2</sub>O is
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Q1) The relationship of absorbed light to the concentration of the substance absorbing the light is governed by __________.
Q2) Of the following, all are valid units for a reaction rate except __________.
A)mol/L
B)M/s
C)mol/hr
D)g/s
E)mol/L-hr
Q3) The rate law for a reaction is rate = k [A][B]<sup>2</sup>
Which one of the following statements is false?
A)The reaction is first order in A.
B)The reaction is second order in B.
C)The reaction is second order overall.
D)k is the reaction rate constant
E)If [B] is doubled, the reaction rate will increase by a factor of 4.
Q4) Rates of reaction can be positive or negative.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A catalyst that is present in a different phase from the reacting molecules is called a __________ catalyst.
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Q1) The effect of a catalyst on an equilibrium is to __________.
A)increase the rate of the forward reaction only
B)increase the equilibrium constant so that products are favored
C)slow the reverse reaction only
D)increase the rate at which equilibrium is achieved without changing the composition of the equilibrium mixture
E)shift the equilibrium to the right
Q2) If the reaction quotient Q for a reaction is less than the value of the equilibrium constant K for that reaction at a given temperature, __________ must be converted to __________ for the system to reach equilibrium.
Q3) If a reaction is endothermic, __________ the reaction temperature results in an increase in K.
Q4) The number obtained by substituting starting reactant and product concentrations into an equilibrium-constant expression is known as the __________.
Q5) For an exothermic reaction, increasing the reaction temperature results in a(an)__________ in K.
Q6) Pure __________ and pure __________ are excluded from equilibrium-constant expressions.
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Q1) According to the Arrhenius concept, an acid is a substance that __________.
A)is capable of donating one or more H<sup>+</sup>
B)causes an increase in the concentration of H<sup>+</sup> in aqueous solutions
C)can accept a pair of electrons to form a coordinate covalent bond
D)reacts with the solvent to form the cation formed by autoionization of that solvent
E)tastes bitter
Q2) The pH of a 0.30 M solution of a weak acid is 2.67. What is the K<sub>a</sub> for this acid?
A)2.1 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup>
B)4.4 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup>
C)1.5 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup>
D)6.6 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup>
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following ions will act as a weak base in water?
A)OH<sup>-</sup>
B)Cl<sup>-</sup>
C)NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
D)ClO<sup>-</sup>
E)None of the above will act as a weak base in water.
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Q1) A solution containing which one of the following pairs of substances will be a buffer solution?
A)KI, HI
B)AgBr, HBr
C)CuCl, HCl
D)CsI, HI
E)none of the above
Q2) Human blood is __________.
A)neutral
B)very basic
C)slightly acidic
D)very acidic
E)slightly basic
Q3) Calculate the pH of a buffer solution that contains 0.820 grams of sodium acetate and 0.010 moles of acetic acid in 100 ml of water. The K<sub>a</sub> of acetic acid is 1.77 × 10<sup>-5</sup>.
Q4) Suppose you have just added 100.0 ml of a solution containing 0.5000 moles of acetic acid per liter to 400.0 ml of 0.5000 M NaOH. What is the final pH? The K<sub>a</sub> of acetic acid is 1.77 × 10<sup>-5</sup>.
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Q1) The C-Cl and C-F bond dissociation energies in CF<sub>3</sub>Cl are 339 kJ/mol and 482 kJ/mol, respectively. The maximum wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation required to rupture these bonds are __________ and __________, respectively.
A)45.0 nm, 307 nm
B)742 nm, 654 nm
C)482 nm, 248 nm
D)353 nm, 248 nm
E)979 nm, 953 nm
Q2) The fourth most abundant component of dry air is __________.
Q3) Nitrogen oxides catalytically destroy ozone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The pressure of the atmosphere __________.
A)increases with altitude
B)follows the same trend as temperature
C)decreases with altitude
D)follows the reverse trend as temperature
E)stays the same
Q5) The contribution of sulfur to acid rain is via the production of __________.
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Q6) Describe the process of reverse osmosis that is used to desalinate seawater.
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Q1) The more negative G° is for a given reaction, the larger the value of the corresponding equilibrium constant, K.
A)True
B)False
Q2) S is positive for the reaction __________.
A)2NO (g)+ O<sub>2</sub> (g) 2NO<sub>2</sub> (g)
B)2N<sub>2</sub> (g)+ 3H<sub>2</sub> (g) 2 NH<sub>3</sub> (g)
C)C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub> (g)+ 5 O<sub>2</sub> (g) 3CO<sub>2</sub> (g)+ 4 H<sub>2</sub>O (g)
D)Mg (s)+ Cl<sub>2</sub> (g) MgCl<sub>2</sub> (s) E)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub> (g)+ H<sub>2</sub> (g) C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub> (g)
Q3) Calculate G°<sup> </sup>(in kJ/mol)for the following reaction at 1 atm and 25°C: C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub> (g)+ O<sub>2</sub> (g) CO<sub>2</sub> (g)+ H<sub>2</sub>O (l)(unbalanced)
G<sub>f</sub>° C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub> (g)= -32.89 kJ/mol; G<sub>f</sub>°<sup> </sup>CO<sub>2</sub> (g)= -394.4 kJ/mol; G<sub>f</sub>° H<sub>2</sub>O (l)= -237.13 kJ/mol
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Q1) Which substance is the reducing agent in the reaction below? Pb + PbO<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> 2PbSO<sub>4</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O
A)Pb
B)H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
C)PbO<sub>2</sub>
D)PbSO<sub>4</sub>
E)H<sub>2</sub>O
Q2) Which of the following reactions will occur spontaneously as written?
A)Sn<sup>4+</sup> (aq)+
Fe<sup>2+</sup> (aq)

Fe<sup>3+</sup> (aq)
Sn<sup>2+</sup> (aq)+
B)3Fe (s)+ 2Cr<sup>3+</sup> (aq) 2Cr (s)+ 3Fe<sup>2+</sup> (aq)
C)Sn<sup>4+</sup> (aq)+ Fe<sup>2+</sup> (aq) Sn<sup>2+</sup> (aq)+ Fe (s)
D)3Sn<sup>4+</sup> (aq)+ 2Cr (s) 2Cr<sup>3+</sup> (aq)+ 3Sn<sup>2+</sup> (aq)
E)3Fe<sup>2+</sup> (aq) Fe (s)+ 2Fe<sup>3+</sup> (aq)
Q3) What is the oxidation number of potassium in KMnO<sub>4</sub>?
A)0
B)+1
C)+2
D)-1
E)+3
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Q1) The half-life of cobalt-60 is 5.20 yr. How many milligrams of a 2.000-mg sample remains after 6.55 years?
A)0.837
B)3.23 × 10<sup>-15</sup>
C)4.779
D)1.588
E)1.163
Q2) The relative biological effectiveness (RBE)values of beta rays, gamma rays, and alpha rays are, respectively
Q3) On average, __________ neutrons are produced by every fission of a uranium-235 nucleus.
A)4
B)3.5
C)1
D)2.4
E)2
Q4) Carbon-11, fluorine-18, oxygen-15 and nitrogen-13 are all used in the clinical diagnostic technique known as __________.
Q5) What isotope of what element is produced if krypton-81 undergoes beta decay?
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Q1) In the following chemical equation Na<sub>3</sub>P + 3H<sub>2</sub>O
The products (when the equation is balanced)are
A)H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>3</sub> + 3NaH
B)NaOH + 3PH
C)3NaH + POH<sub>3</sub>
D)3NaO + PH<sub>6</sub>
E)3NaOH + PH<sub>3</sub>
Q2) Which pair of formula/name is incorrect?
A)NO / nitric oxide
B)N<sub>2</sub>O / nitrous oxide
C)NO<sub>2</sub> / nitrogen dioxide
D)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>4</sub> / dinitrogen trioxide
E)N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>5</sub> / dinitrogen pentoxide
Q3) The least electronegative of the elements below is __________.
A)I
B)Cl
C)H
D)F
E)Br
Q4) Compounds containing only boron and hydrogen are called __________.
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Q1) What is the most common geometry found in four-coordinate complexes?
A)square planar
B)octahedral
C)tetrahedral
D)icosahedral
E)trigonal bipyramidal
Q2) What is the oxidation number of chromium in [Cr(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>4</sub>Cl<sub>2</sub>]Cl?
A)-3
B)+3
C)+2
D)-2
E)0
Q3) How can high-spin and low-spin transition metal complexes be distinguished from each other?
Q4) In the leaves of plants, visible light is absorbed by a compound known as __________, and is aided by a __________ ion bonded to a porphyrin ring.
Q5) Define the chelate effect.
Q6) A compound that can occupy two coordination sites is a (an)__________.
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Q1) The compound below is an __________. H-C=CH-CH<sub>3</sub>
A)alkyne
B)alkene
C)alkane
D)aromatic compound
E)olefin
Q2) What forces hold the strands of DNA together?
A)covalent bonds
B)hydrogen bonding
C)ion-dipole attraction
D)coordinate covalent bonds
Q3) __________ is a monosaccharide.
A)Sucrose
B)Maltose
C)Glucose
D)Lactose
Q4) The anaerobic conversion of carbohydrates to ethanol is driven by the presence of
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Q5) In the reaction of nitric acid with benzene, which isomer is formed when a second nitro group is substituted?