Physical Science Concepts
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Physical Science Concepts provides a foundational overview of the principles governing the non-living natural world. The course explores topics from physics and chemistry, including matter and its states, energy forms and transformations, motion, forces, atomic structure, chemical reactions, and the laws that describe physical interactions. Emphasis is placed on developing critical thinking and scientific reasoning skills through observation, experimentation, and problem-solving. Designed for non-science majors and those seeking a broad understanding of physical sciences, the course integrates real-world examples to illustrate how physical science concepts apply in everyday life.
Recommended Textbook
Physical Science 9th Edition by Bill Tillery
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24 Chapters
724 Verified Questions
724 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: What Is Science
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Q1) A 100-g piece of iron has twice the volume as a 50-g piece of iron.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) An event with two situations with all the influencing factors identical except one is a (an)
A)hypothetical experiment.
B)experiment.
C)controlled experiment.
D)impossible experiment.
Answer: C
Q3) The most recently developed scientific theory is the A)plate tectonic theory.
B)atomic theory.
C)theory about the nature of light.
D)theory of evolution.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tendency of a moving object to remain in unchanging motion in the absence of an unbalanced force is called A)inertia.
B)free fall.
C)acceleration.
D)impulse.
Answer: A
Q2) The weight of a 50-kg box is closest to A)5 N.
B)50 N.
C)500 N.
D)5000 N.
Answer: C
Q3) If an unbalanced force applied to an object doubles, then A)its velocity doubles.
B)its acceleration doubles.
C)its acceleration is cut in half.
D)its acceleration increases by a factor of four.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Roughly, what fraction of our nation's current energy needs is supplied by coal?
A)10%
B)20%
C)40%
D)80%
Answer: B
Q2) Nearly all of the energy consumed today is provided by petroleum, coal, hydropower and nuclear sources.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Kinetic energy refers to
A)energy of motion.
B)energy of position.
C)energy stored in fossil fuels.
D)electrical energy.
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Heat and Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) When water vapor condenses to a liquid
A)it absorbs energy from the surroundings.
B)its temperature drops sharply.
C)it transfers heat to the surroundings.
D)its temperature rises slightly.
Q2) The heat needed to warm one gram of water one Celsius degree is called a
A)joule.
B)calorie.
C)Btu.
D)kilocalorie.
Q3) Which thermodynamic law says that you cannot convert 100 percent of a heat source into mechanical energy?
A)first law of thermodynamics
B)second law of thermodynamics
C)third law of thermodynamics
D)law of increasing entropy
Q4) Molecules are the smallest units of matter with the characteristic properties of a substance.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Wave Motions and Sound
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reflected sound waves that are heard within 0.1 s
A)undergo a gain in volume.
B)make an echo.
C)cause interference.
D)make a beat.
Q2) The characteristic of a sound wave that you interpret as loudness is related to A)frequency.
B)wavelength.
C)amplitude.
D)velocity.
Q3) The bending of a wave at the boundary between two media is called A)reflection.
B)resonance.
C)reverberation.
D)refraction.
Q4) In longitudinal waves, the medium
A)vibrates in a direction perpendicular to the direction of motion of the wave.
B)vibrates in the same direction the wave is moving.
C)moves in sort of a circular motion.
D)doesn't vibrate; the disturbance just moves through the medium.
7
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Chapter 6: Electricity
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Q1) A magnetic field
A)is produced by an excess of stationary electric charges.
B)is produced by a deficiency of stationary electric charges.
C)is produced by moving charges.
D)attracts or repels stationary electric charges.
Q2) When a switch is closed in a DC electrical circuit,
A)electrons flow through the conductor at a very slow speed.
B)the electric field moves through the conductor at nearly the speed of light.
C)the current flow is proportional to the potential difference.
D)All of the above.
Q3) Charge moving through a wire produces a magnetic field around the wire.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the current in the secondary if the current is the primary coil is 5.0 A?
A)2.5 A
B)5.0 A
C)10.0 A
D)20.0 A
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8
Chapter 7: Light
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Sample Questions
Q1) If angle A is 60º, what does angle C measure?
A)60º
B)90º
C)30º
D)roughly 25º
Q2) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of refraction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A rainbow always appears
A)in the part of the sky in the same direction as the Sun.
B)in the part of the sky opposite from the Sun.
C)at an angle of 50 to 54 degrees from the Sun.
D)only at sunset.
Q4) The colors of the visible spectrum can be measured in units of A)wavelength.
B)frequency.
C)energy.
D)All of the above.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Atoms and Periodic Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) Photons of which of the following colors of light possess the greatest amount of energy?
A)blue
B)green
C)yellow
D)red
Q2) The atomic number of an element is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the Bohr model of the atom, the energy state of an electron could be described with one number.The quantum mechanical model of the atom requires how many numbers to do the same?
A)4
B)2
C)1
D)It varies from atom to atom.
Q4) The word halogen comes from the Greek, meaning salt-former.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Chemical Bonds
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Sample Questions
Q1) The formation of a positive ion
A)occurs when an atom gains a proton.
B)involves a release of energy.
C)occurs when an electron is removed from an atom.
D)occurs in covalent bonding.
Q2) The formation of an ionic bond
A)involves a transfer of one or more electrons.
B)results in a release of energy.
C)helps atoms achieve a noble gas electron arrangement.
D)All of the above.
Q3) The smallest unit of a covalent compound that still retains the properties of the compound is called a (an)
A)electron.
B)atom.
C)molecule.
D)dipole.
Q4) Atoms gain or lose electrons in chemical reactions in order to increase their energy state.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Chemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When compounds containing carbon and hydrogen are burned in air, the products are usually carbon dioxide and water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the mass percent of sodium in washing soda, Na<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>?
A)43.4%
B)32.5%
C)21.7%
D)62.1%
Q3) What is the empirical formula of C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>8</sub>?
A)CH
B)CH<sub>2</sub>
C)C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>8</sub>
D)C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>
Q4) In combination reactions, elements react to form compounds.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Water and Solutions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are properties of basic solutions?
A)They turn the dye litmus red.
B)They taste sour.
C)They feel slippery.
D)They react with active metals to produce hydrogen gas.
Q2) A solution is saturated when no more of a solute will dissolve in a solvent.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Aqueous solutions with one mole of each solid in equal volumes of water are prepared.Which solution would have the lowest freezing point?
A)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>
B)NaNO<sub>3</sub>
C)CaCl<sub>2</sub>
D)All would have the same freezing point.
Q4) Highway departments spread salt on icy roads because the solution process generates heat, which melts the ice.
A)True
B)False
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13
Chapter 12: Organic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organic compounds with two OH groups per molecule are called A)alcohol.
B)ethanol.
C)glycerin.
D)glycol.
Q2) The R in R-COOH or R-C=O stands for A)a reactive atom.
B)a separate functional group.
C)any hydrocarbon group.
D)a rigid part of the molecule.
Q3) What is ethanol converted into when wine "goes bad"?
A)CH<sub>3</sub>COOH
B)CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>
C)CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OH
D)CH<sub>3</sub>OH
Q4) The site of a chemical reaction on an organic molecule is usually A)a functional group.
B)a multiple bond.
C)a lone pair of electrons.
D)All of the above.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Nuclear Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Besides U-235, another isotope that can undergo nuclear fission is A)U-238.
B)Pu-239.
C)Th-230.
D)Pb-210.
Q2) The mass of a nucleus is slightly greater than the sum of the masses of the individual protons and neutrons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An alpha particle is really a high-energy electron ejected from the nucleus. A)True
B)False
Q4) Reactor control rods are made of a substance that A)absorbs neutrons.
B)emits neutrons.
C)reflect neutrons.
D)slow down neutrons so they produce more fission.
Q5) A radioactive decay reaction produces a simpler, more stable nucleus. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: The Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) More massive stars tend to use up their supply of hydrogen more rapidly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The eventual fate of our Sun is to become
A)a neutron star.
B)a supernova.
C)a white dwarf.
D)a black hole.
Q3) About how old is the universe?
A)6.0 billion years
B)10.5 billion years
C)13.7 billion years
D)20 billion years
Q4) Which of the following depends on your location on Earth?
A)celestial pole
B)celestial meridian
C)celestial equator
D)All of these depend on your location.
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Chapter 15: The Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the mass of the solar system is found in A)the terrestrial planets.
B)the gas giants.
C)the comets and asteroids.
D)the Sun.
Q2) Our model of the surface features of Venus was obtained by A)powerful Earth-based telescopes.
B)cameras on the fly-by Voyager probes.
C)radar mapping from the Magellan probe.
D)the Venera probes which roamed the surface of the planet.
Q3) A comet's tail always trails behind it throughout its journey through the solar system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements about the length of a planet's day is true?
A)The closer the planet is to the Sun, the shorter is its day.
B)The more massive the planet, the longer its day.
C)The four gas giants barely rotate at all.
D)None of the above.
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Chapter 16: Earth in Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the time 9:00 AM, the "AM" means
A)after morning.
B)after the meridian.
C)astronomical motion.
D)before the meridian.
Q2) During which month of the year does Earth receive the greatest average energy from the Sun?
A)January
B)March
C)June
D)September
Q3) The fact that there are seasons on Earth is largely due to
A)the tilt of Earth's axis.
B)the changing distance of Earth from the Sun during its orbit.
C)the precession of Earth's axis of rotation.
D)the Coriolis effect.
Q4) The findings from the Apollo space missions to the Moon support the idea that the Moon formed from the impact of Earth with a very large object.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Rocks and Minerals
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Q1) Which igneous rock has the same chemical composition as basalt, but a different grain size?
A)granite
B)rhyolite
C)gabbro
D)diorite
Q2) The formation of which of the following rocks helps remove CO<sub>2</sub> from the atmosphere?
A)granite
B)limestone
C)sandstone
D)schist
Q3) Weathered sediments are pressed and cemented to form
A)sedimentary rocks.
B)metamorphic rocks.
C)igneous rocks.
D)ferromagnesians.
Q4) Basalt and granite are examples of metamorphic rocks.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Plate Tectonics
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Q1) The Hawaiian Islands were formed as
A)new crust was created at an oceanic ridge.
B)the Pacific plate moved over a hot spot.
C)the Pacific Plate was subducted beneath part of the North American plate.
D)two oceanic plates in the Pacific converged.
Q2) Evidence shows that Earth's magnetic field is diminishing with time and may reverse orientations by the end of the next
A)200 years.
B)2,000 years.
C)25 million years.
D)4.5 million years.
Q3) The Himalayan Mountains were formed as a result of
A)ocean-continent plate divergence.
B)ocean-continent plate convergence.
C)continent-continent plate convergence.
D)the deformation that occurred along a transform boundary.
Q4) The mantle is largely composed of ferromagnesian minerals such as olivine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Building Earths Surface
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Q1) In general, an arch-shaped fold in sedimentary rock layers is called an anticline.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a "normal" fault, the hanging wall moves downward relative to the foot wall.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Seismic waves are produced when rocks
A)undergo plastic deformation.
B)are exposed to compressional stress.
C)rupture or break under stress.
D)fold to form synclines or anticlines.
Q4) The chief difference between a joint and a fault is that
A)a joint results from shear stress.
B)jointing takes place at much greater depths than faulting.
C)jointing involves breaking without relative displacement.
D)faults are vertical cracks, whereas joints are horizontal.
Q5) Stress is the adjustment a rock makes when it is subjected to a strain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Shaping Earths Surface
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Q1) Weathering is the process that must occur before erosion can take place.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One would expect to find deep rich soil layer where the climate is A)wet and warm.
B)dry and cold.
C)tropical.
D)arctic.
Q3) In the deserts, the wind plays a greater role in shaping features than does water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Acid-rain is strictly a man-made phenomenon resulting from the heavy industrialization of the eastern United States.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Soil creep is a very slow landslide.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Geologic Time
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Q1) The oldest fossils are about how many years old?
A)4.5 billion years
B)3.5 billion years
C)250 million years
D)10,000 years
Q2) Lack of fossils in Pre-Cambrian rocks means that very little life existed in this era.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Index fossils are fossils of distinctive plant or animal species that lived in a specific location for a long time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The dominant life forms in the Cambrian period were A)dinosaurs.
B)amphibians.
C)trilobites and brachiopods.
D)algae and bacteria.
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Chapter 22: The Atmosphere of Earth
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Q1) Hot air rising from the equatorial regions cools and descends to form
A)a belt of moist, low-pressure air.
B)a belt of dry, high-pressure air.
C)the jet stream.
D)a Chinook.
Q2) Your ears "pop" when your plane descends because
A)air is moving from the outside into behind your eardrum.
B)air is moving from your eardrum to the outside.
C)the air pressure in the plane decreases.
D)the fluid in your Eustachian tubes exerts pressure on your eardrums.
Q3) Normal atmospheric pressure is enough to support a column of mercury approximately
A)29.9 cm high.
B)76.0 cm high.
C)101 cm high.
D)760 cm high.
Q4) The capacity of the air to hold water vapor depends on the temperature.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Weather and Climate
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Q1) The phenomenon known as El Ni-o
A)describes the high pressure system over the ocean west of South America.
B)is the upwelling of cooler water with dissolved nutrients.
C)is responsible for the large fishing industry off the coast of Peru.
D)is believed to be related to worldwide changes in weather.
Q2) Which of the following is not considered to be a form of precipitation?
A)rain
B)dew
C)snow
D)hail
Q3) Which cloud type is usually associated with the arrival of a cold front?
A)high, thin cirrus
B)towering cumulus
C)low stratus
D)Any of these.
Q4) A parcel of air that rises undergoes
A)turbulent heating.
B)cooling by expansion.
C)compressional cooling.
D)isothermal expansion.
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Chapter 24: Earths Waters
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Q1) In the Gulf of Mexico, the Gulf Stream moves water to the southwest.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Of the total water supply, what is the amount that is available for human consumption and agriculture?
A)less than 1%
B)about 3%
C)about 50%
D)over 97%
Q3) The characteristics of ocean waves are influenced by A)wind speed.
B)length of time the wind blows.
C)the fetch.
D)All of the above.
Q4) Dense, high salinity water from the Atlantic Ocean flows into the Mediterranean Sea, making it one of the saltier seas.
A)True
B)False
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