Physical Rehabilitation Techniques
Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Physical Rehabilitation Techniques is a comprehensive course that explores the principles, methodologies, and applications of rehabilitative interventions aimed at restoring function, improving mobility, and enhancing the quality of life for individuals recovering from injury, surgery, or chronic conditions. Students will examine various physical therapy modalities, including therapeutic exercises, manual therapy, electrotherapy, hydrotherapy, and assistive devices, while also learning to assess patient needs, develop individualized treatment plans, and evaluate progress. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practices, interdisciplinary collaboration, and adapting techniques to diverse patient populations across different stages of recovery.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Exercise Foundations and Techniques 6th Edition by Carolyn Kisner
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25 Chapters
448 Verified Questions
448 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3856 Page 2
Chapter 1: Therapeutic Exercise: Foundational Concepts
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which of the following tasks will teaching components (parts)of the motor task be most effective?
A) Swinging a golf club
B) Riding a stationary bicycle
C) Grasping an object
D) Performing a standing-pivot transfer from bed to wheelchair
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is not a prerequisite for motor skill acquisition and retention?
A) Augmented feedback
B) Understanding the task or goal
C) Being able to activate the motor system
D) Being able to retrieve motor memories over time
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Prevention, health, and Wellness
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr.K has had chronic low back pain for several years.He lives a sedentary lifestyle that includes office work and being a self-reported "TV junkie." His physician suggests physical therapy for exercise and management of his pain.Even though Mr.K schedules physical therapy,initially he does not think that exercises will help his pain.He does not associate his lifestyle with his low back pain and therefore does not consider making changes.After his first session with the physical therapist,Mr.K realizes that changes in his lifestyle and regular exercise may help decrease his low back pain.So he decides to continue physical therapy two times a week for 1 month as suggested.Following the first physical therapy session,Mr.K shows he is in which of the following stages of change associated with the transtheoretical model of behavioral change?
A) Contemplation
B) Preparation
C) Action
D) Maintenance Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Range of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) To achieve full PROM of dorsiflexion at the ankle joint,you need to place the limb in which of the following positions?
A) Knee flexion and ankle dorsiflexion
B) Knee flexion and ankle plantarflexion
C) Knee extension and ankle dorsiflexion
D) Knee extension and ankle plantarflexion
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is not a benefit of using CPM?
A) Increased synovial fluid lubrication of the joint
B) Prevents development of adhesions
C) Long-term functional gains
D) Enhancing incisional healing
Answer: C
Q3) Interventions to improve impaired mobility include all of the following except:
A) Range of motion exercises.
B) Joint-mobilization exercises.
C) Proprioceptive exercises.
D) Stretching exercises.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Stretching for Impaired Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following in NOT a precaution for stretching interventions?
A) Patient with suspected osteoporosis
B) Soreness after previous session that lasted 4 hours
C) Edematous tissue
D) Patient who has been on prolonged bed rest
Q2) Your patient develops a contracture as the result of hypertonicity after a traumatic brain injury.This type of hip contracture is called a(n):
A) Arthrogenic contracture.
B) Pseudomyostatic contracture.
C) Fibrotic contracture.
D) Myostatic contracture.
Q3) Safe and effective stretching to increase ROM requires all of the following except:
A) Proper alignment and patient positioning.
B) Stabilization of the proximal attachment of the muscle.
C) Use of gained ROM in active function.
D) Strengthening of the agonist.
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Chapter 5: Peripheral Joint Mobilizationmanipulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A normal accessory joint movement that occurs with roll is:
A) Sliding.
B) Swing.
C) Distraction.
D) Compression.
Q2) The safest way to progress stretching the glenohumeral joint capsule to increase external rotation is:
A) Position the arm in 90S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 abduction with the humerus in neutral position and do an anterior glide.
B) Position the arm in 90S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0abduction with the humerus externally rotated as far as possible and do an anterior glide.
C) Position the arm in the resting position with the humerus externally rotated as far as possible and do a distraction.
D) Position the arm in the resting position with the humerus externally rotated as far as possible and do an anterior glide.
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Chapter 6: Resistance Exercise for Impaired Muscle
Performance
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is characteristic of delayed-onset muscle soreness except:
A) Tends to peak 48 to 72 hours after the conclusion of high-intensity exercise.
B) Increased soreness during passive lengthening of the involved muscle groups.
C) Occurs more frequently after eccentric exercise than isometric exercise.
D) Is believed to be caused by postexercise muscle spasm.
Q2) Which of the following best defines muscle strength?
A) Ability of muscle to contract repeatedly against a load
B) Work produced by a muscle per unit of time
C) Produce or control forces imposed during functional activities
D) Force generated during a single maximum effort
Q3) Which of the following is a contraindication to implementing resistance exercise?
A) Risk of pathological fracture due to osteoporosis
B) Joint instability
C) Acute pain or inflammation
D) If muscle soreness occurs after a bout of exercise
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Chapter 7: Principles of Aerobic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true about phase I of a cardiac rehabilitation program for a patient who has had a myocardial infarction (MI)except:
A) Phase I begins after the patient's cardiovascular status has been stabilized and while the patient is hospitalized.
B) Phase I usually lasts at least 7-10 days.
C) A purpose of phase I is to initiate patient education about reducing risk factors.
D) Phase I often involves monitoring the heart rate and rhythm via electrocardiogram during standing activities and low-intensity ambulation.
Q2) Mary is 30 lb overweight and wants to start exercising for fitness and to lose weight before her high school class reunion next year.For motivation,she has set a specific goal to run a 10K race in 6 months.The best method of training for this event would be:
A) Bicycling 2 days a week and fast walking 4 days a week.
B) Fast walking,progressing to running 5 to 6 days a week.
C) Bicycling and running 3 days a week for each activity.
D) Swimming 1 day a week,bicycling 2 days a week,and running 3 days a week.
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9
Chapter 8: Exercise for Impaired Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mrs.S is a 65-year-old woman with a history of falling due to episodic loss of balance.The medical diagnosis is "balance disorder." Which of the following tests is the best choice to administer to determine if Mrs.S has a fear of falling?
A) Activities-Specific Balance Confidence Scale
B) Tinetti Mobility Test
C) Berg Balance Scale
D) Functional Reach Test
Q2) As part of the treatment program to improve a patient's balance,you decide to utilize a balance training program recommended by Nitz and Choy.The components of this program include:
A) Group exercises that consist of practicing standing postures and walking and perturbation training.
B) Individual and group exercises emphasizing dynamic and multisensory activities delivered in a circuit mode.
C) Group exercises consisting of stretching,strengthening,and coordination exercises;body mechanics;survival training;and walking.
D) Home program consisting of lower and upper extremity exercises in sitting and standing positions.
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Chapter 9: Aquatic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the most effective patient position and use of the buoyancy of water for self-stretching the hamstrings?
A) In a buoyancy-supported supine position (flotation devices around the neck and hips),perform a unilateral straight-leg raise,lifting the leg to be stretched out of the water.
B) With a buoyancy device secured around the distal thigh of the leg to be stretched,stand on the opposite leg and hold on to the side of the pool for balance.Keep the knee relaxed as the buoyancy device lifts the thigh and flexes the hip.
C) Sit on the steps of a pool in waist-deep water,hips flexed to 90S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0,with a buoyancy device secured around the ankle of the leg to be stretched.
D) With a buoyancy device secured around the ankle of the leg to be stretched,stand on the opposite leg and hold on to the side of the pool for balance.Allow the buoyancy device to lift the leg to the surface of the water with the knee extended.
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11
Chapter 10: Soft Tissue Injury,repair,and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Overuse syndromes occur:
A) As the result of repetitive,submaximal stress of a muscle or tendon.
B) As the result of a severe blow to a muscle.
C) As a result of prolonged immobilization.
D) Only if there is impaired circulation to soft tissue.
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to the degeneration of a tendon due to repetitive microtrauma?
A) Tendinitis
B) Tenosynovitis
C) Tenovaginitis
D) Tendinosis
Q3) To treat soft tissue lesions,such as supraspinatus tendonitis or lateral epicondylitis,effectively the long-term objective should be to:
A) Reduce the pain.
B) Have the patient stop doing the activity that causes the problem.
C) Maintain functional ROM.
D) Create a strong,mobile scar.
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Chapter 11: Joint,connective Tissue,and Bone Disorders and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The articular cartilage of a synovial joint is most susceptible to damage from stress:
A) During low-impact,low- to moderate-intensity resistance exercise performed on a regular basis.
B) During early weight-bearing exercises after soft tissue surgery.
C) During passive stretching procedures.
D) Immediately following a period of prolonged joint immobilization.
Q2) Which of the following are risk factors for secondary osteoporosis?
A) Low body weight
B) Family history of osteoporosis
C) Caucasian or Asian descent
D) Long-term use of corticosteroids
Q3) You are treating a patient with osteoarthritis of the left knee.The morning after performing the exercise program you prescribed for him,he reports experiencing stiffness of the involved knee and joint pain during weight bearing lasting about 30 minutes.What should you do?
A) Refer the patient to his physician
B) Reassure the patient that this is an expected and desired response
C) Decrease the intensity of the exercise program
D) Add early morning jogging to his exercise program
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Surgical Interventions and Postoperative Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following surgical procedures typically is performed with an arthroscope?
A) Minimally invasive joint replacement procedures
B) Reduction and internal fixation of a displaced fracture
C) Removal of a portion of a meniscus at the knee
D) Arthrodesis of the wrist
Q2) What is the term used to describe a postoperative rehabilitation program in which a patient is progressed from one phase of rehabilitation to the next based on the attainment of predetermined levels of performance?
A) Norm-based rehabilitation
B) Time-based rehabilitation
C) Phase-specific rehabilitation
D) Criterion-based rehabilitation
Q3) In general terms,which of the following surgical procedures is performed primarily to release a contracture and improve ROM?
A) Capsulorrhaphy
B) Debridement
C) Osteotomy
D) Tenotomy
14
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Chapter 13: Peripheral Nerve Disorders and Management
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pain associated with CRPS type I (reflex sympathetic dystrophy)characteristically is:
A) Entirely psychogenic and responsive to antidepressants.
B) Intermittent and related to body and head position.
C) Out of proportion to the report of history of injury or precipitating event.
D) Always responsive to modalities,primarily cold and electrical stimulation.
Q2) Your patient injured her ulnar nerve falling up some steps and catching herself on the medial side of her hand 2 days ago.She currently has constant tingling and decreased sensation to pressure and touch in the little finger and ulnar half of the ring finger.Your intervention during the first week of treatment will be all of the following except:
A) Protect the nerve by immobilizing the wrist in a splint.
B) Teach active ROM to wrist and fingers.
C) Emphasize the importance of resistive exercises to prevent muscle atrophy.
D) Inform the patient about ways to protect the hand from further injury.
Q3) Nonoperative management of carpal tunnel syndrome emphasizes:
A) Vigorous stretching to gain mobility of the structures in the carpal tunnel.
B) Activity modification and joint,nerve,and tendon mobilization.
C) Strengthening exercises,especially to the muscles of the thenar eminence.
D) Immobilization.
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Chapter 14: The Spine: Structure, function, and Posture
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15 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has a forward head posture.On testing (supine-lying),she cannot isolate capital flexion to lift her head when you ask her to flex her neck.Passively you can move the head about 5S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 into capital flexion and then feel tissue resistance.Based on these supine tests,what muscles are tight and what muscles are weak?
A) Tight suboccipital muscles and weak longus capitis and longus colli muscles
B) Tight erector spinae and weak sternocleidomastoid muscles
C) Tight splenius capitis and splenius cervicis muscles and weak multifidus muscles
D) Tight erector spinae and weak suprahyoid and infrahyoid muscles
Q2) Your patient describes increased pain in the back in the morning before getting out of bed.The patient should be:
A) Advised to never sleep prone.
B) Evaluated as to the sleeping posture and advised in mechanically safe adaptations.
C) Advised to sleep with a pillow under her knees if she tends to sleep supine.
D) Advised to place a board under a soft mattresses.
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Chapter 15: The Spine: Management Guidelines
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent adhesions from forming around a nerve root when an individual has an inflammation from a disk lesion,trauma,or surgery:
A) Passive press-ups should be taught.
B) Passive joint mobilizations should be done.
C) Passive straight-leg raises should be done.
D) Passive knee to chest should be done.
Q2) Your patient has complaints of increasing low back pain during the day.Her job requires repetitive lifting and reaching overhead (25 lb maximum).On examination,you note that on forward bending she has difficulty moving smoothly midrange and that on side bending to the left there is an acute angle in the midlumbar region.Additional tests lead you to hypothesize that she has clinical instability in the midlumbar region.This could be caused from all of the following except:
A) Degeneration of the intervertebral disk.
B) Poor neuromuscular control of the deep segmental stabilizing musculature.
C) Ligamentous laxity.
D) Advanced spondylitis.
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Chapter 16: The Spine: Exercise and Manipulation
Interventions
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Q1) Fundamental techniques that every patient with spinal impairments should learn before progressing to basic and advanced training exercises include:
A) Strengthening exercises for the cervical and trunk stabilizers,including the abdominals,longus colli,quadratus lumborum,and cervical and lumbar multifidus muscles.
B) Safe use of weights and elastic resistance while maintaining the spine in a neutral posture.
C) Safe stretching techniques prior to any stabilization,strengthening,or power training.
D) Kinesthetic awareness of safe spinal positions and movement,activation of deep segmental muscles,and global muscle control of spinal posture when moving the extremities or moving from one position to another.
Q2) To effectively stretch the scalene muscles on the left,the patient:
A) Axially extends the neck,side bends to the right,and rotates to the left.
B) Places the left hand behind the head,rotates head to the left,and looks down.
C) Rotates head to the right,looks down,and places left hand behind the head.
D) Tucks in chin and nods the head through 15S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 of motion.
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Chapter 17: The Shoulder and Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Neer's classification of rotator cuff disease,which of the following stages is seen most often in patients 25 to 39 years of age and characterized by tendonitis or bursitis but not a rotator cuff tendon rupture?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q2) Which of the following is an inappropriate component of an exercise program 1 to 3 weeks postoperatively for a patient without preoperative rotator cuff deficiency who underwent total shoulder replacement?
A) Wand exercises for active-assistive external rotation to neutral with the arm positioned near the side of the chest
B) Wand exercises for active-assistive shoulder extension (combined with internal rotation)by placing the wand behind the back and sliding it up the back
C) Pendulum exercises
D) Wand exercises for active-assistive elevation of the arm in the plane of the scapula to approximately 90S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 while in a supine or sitting position
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Elbow and Forearm Complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is a precaution that should be taken after total elbow arthroplasty involving a triceps-reflecting or triceps-splitting approach except:
A) Limit assisted elbow flexion to about 90S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 to 100S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 for the first 3 to 4 weeks postoperatively.
B) For about the first 3 to 4 weeks,perform active elbow flexion/extension only while lying in the supine position.
C) Postpone elbow extension against manual resistance or light weights for 6 weeks or longer.
D) Avoid pushing motions with the operated upper extremity during functional activities,such as pushing up from a chair,for at least 6 weeks.
Q2) Your goal is to increase end-range elbow flexion using joint-mobilization techniques.Which of the following techniques is appropriate?
A) Stabilize the distal humerus and apply a proximal glide of the ulna
B) Apply a valgus stress at the elbow
C) Stabilize the humerus and apply a dorsal glide to the head of the radius
D) Stabilize the distal humerus and apply an ulnar (lateral)glide of the ulna
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Chapter 19: The Wrist and Hand
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has an "extensor lag" of the MCP joints.What does this suggest?
A) It is possible to extend the MCP joint passively through the full range of extension,but full active MCP extension is not possible,owing to weakness of the extensor digitorum.
B) Posterior (dorsal)sliding of the proximal phalanx on the head of the metacarpal is restricted.
C) Full passive MCP extension is not possible.
D) It is possible to extend the MCP joint passively through the full range of extension,but full active MCP extension is not possible,owing to weakness of the lumbricales.
Q2) During the subacute stage of soft tissue healing after injury and repair of the flexor tendons of the hand or forearm,each of the following is an important intervention except: A) Scar management with pressure on the scar.
B) Tendon gliding exercises.
C) Gentle prolonged stretch.
D) Progressive resistance exercise.
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21
Chapter 20: The Hip
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "hybrid" total hip arthroplasty refers to a(n):
A) Hip replacement with a cemented femoral component and a noncemented acetabular component.
B) Total hip replacement that is all metal.
C) Alternate term for bipolar hemiarthroplasty of the hip.
D) Alternate term for minimally invasive arthroplasty.
Q2) Recent advances in arthroscopy of the hip now allow all of the following procedures to be performed using this less invasive technique except for:
A) Microfracture to stimulate fibrocartilage growth.
B) Acetabular labral repair.
C) Resurfacing arthroplasty.
D) Capsulorrhaphy for capsular laxity.
Q3) In an elderly patient,which of the following types of hip fracture is managed most often with hemireplacement of the hip (hemiarthroplasty)?
A) Noncomminuted intertrochanteric fracture
B) Displaced subcapital (intracapsular)fracture
C) Unstable subtrochanteric fracture
D) Hemiarthroplasty is equally indicated for intracapsular and extracapsular fractures
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Chapter 21: The Knee
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Q1) Although interventions used to manage patellofemoral pain syndrome are based on an examination of each patient on an individual basis,each of the following interventions is commonly employed except:
A) Strengthening the knee and hip extensors in weight-bearing and non-weight-bearing positions.
B) Lateral gliding of the patella.
C) Stretching the tensor fasciae latae (TFL)and iliotibial (IT)band.
D) Using an insert (orthotic device)in a patient's shoe to correct excessive foot pronation.
Q2) The primary value of a patient performing quadriceps setting exercises when the knee is immobilized in a long leg cast for an extended period of time is to:
A) Strengthen the quadriceps muscle.
B) Maintain mobility of the patella.
C) Stretch the anterior portion of the knee capsule.
D) Prevent a knee extension contracture.
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Chapter 22: The Ankle and Foot
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Q1) Each of the following is an expected improvement after total ankle arthroplasty for advanced arthritis except:
A) Increased mediolateral stability of the ankle.
B) Alleviation of pain.
C) Sufficient range of motion of the ankle for functional activities.
D) Decreased joint deformity.
Q2) A patient underwent a triple arthrodesis of the hindfoot 12 weeks ago and is now allowed to ambulate without the rigid boot.The patient has been referred to you for exercises to improve range of motion and strength of the operated lower extremity and to reestablish a normal gait pattern.Which of the following interventions is inappropriate to include in your treatment plan to restore this patient's function?
A) Passive stretching of the plantar flexors
B) Grade III medial and lateral sustained glides to increase inversion and eversion
C) Grade III sustained posterior glides of the talus on the tibia to increase dorsiflexion
D) Closed-chain training to improve lower extremity control
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24
Chapter 23: Advanced Functional Training
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Q1) Which of the following describes a proper progression of positions to increase balance and postural stability?
A) Standing to tall kneeling
B) Unilateral stance to tandem stance
C) Half-kneeling to sitting without foot support
D) Reaching activities in bilateral stance to unilateral stance
Q2) Healing of tissues and readiness to tolerate increased intensity of exercises with more resistance requires adjusting other parameters for safety and effectiveness.Which of the following describes a proper adjustment for a treatment session in which the resistance of the activity was increased for the first time?
A) Decrease repetitions
B) Increase speed
C) Position the resistance more distally
D) Reduce the rest time between repetitions
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25
Chapter 24: Womens Health: Obstetrics and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) Which of the following is true of nerve supply (innervation)of the pelvic floor complex?
A) Damage to the nerve supply of the pelvic floor complex during labor and delivery is one of the main contributors to organ prolapse.
B) There are multiple and varied innervations from inconsistent sacral levels that innervate this area.
C) The pudendal nerve is the sole innervation for the pelvic floor.
D) The nerve supply is at risk with a 4° episiotomy,often resulting in permanent paralysis of the anal sphincter.
Q2) Each of the following is true about diastasis recti except:
A) A diastasis of the rectus abdominis is more prevalent in women with multiple pregnancies.
B) Manual support of the abdominals during abdominal exercises over the course of pregnancy corrects a diastasis.
C) The highest incidence of diastasis recti is during the third trimester.
D) A separation of the rectus muscle along the linea alba that is more than two finger widths is clinically significant.
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Chapter 25: Management of Lymphatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Axillary web syndrome is a relatively common condition that develops after treatment for breast cancer and is recognized by which of the following signs and symptoms?
A) A feeling of heaviness in the upper extremity during active flexion and adduction,indicating the initial sign of lymphedema.
B) Muscle guarding and tenderness of the cervical muscles with fibrosis of the sternocleidomastoid muscle limiting range of motion of the neck.
C) Cording of the lymphatic vessels from the axilla to the antecubital space and/or forearm restricting shoulder mobility.
D) Weakness of the serratus anterior after lymph node dissection resulting from surgical damage to the long thoracic nerve.
Q2) Which of the following describes severity of lymphedema from least to most severe?
A) Pitting,brawny,weeping
B) Brawny,pitting,weeping
C) Weeping,brawny,pitting
D) Pitting,weeping,brawny
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