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Physical Rehabilitation is a comprehensive course that explores the principles and practices involved in restoring optimal physical function in individuals affected by injury, illness, or disability. Students will learn about assessment techniques, therapeutic interventions, and evidence-based strategies to promote mobility, strength, and independence. Emphasis is placed on understanding the physiological basis of rehabilitation, developing individualized treatment plans, and collaborating within a multidisciplinary healthcare team to achieve the best patient outcomes. The course also covers patient education, goal setting, and evaluation of progress in various clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Michlovitzs Modalities for Therapeutic Intervention 6th Edition by James W. Bellew PT EdD
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17 Chapters
315 Verified Questions
315 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1022 Page 2
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15 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20246
Q1) In the patient care management model, therapeutic modalities include the use of physical agents to provide which of the following?
A) Palliative care alone
B) Therapeutic benefits
C) Discharge planning
D) Assessment of patient prognosis
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following outcomes is most recommended for determining the effectiveness of therapeutic modalities?
A) Pain reduction
B) Functional improvements
C) Changes in range of motion
D) Reduction of stiffness
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cold therapy modalities has the most research support for effectiveness in the treatment of myofascial pain syndrome?
A) Ice massage
B) Vapocoolant spray
C) Cold compression unit
D) Gel cold pack
Answer: A
Q2) What effect does cryotherapy have on patients with spasticity?
A) No effect
B) Increased
C) Decreased
D) Variable: may increase or decrease
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is an abnormal response to the application of cold?
A) Reddening of the skin
B) Raised, red, irregularly shaped areas on the skin
C) Numbness of the skin
D) Feelings of burning or aching of the skin
Answer: B
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20248
Sample Questions
Q1) On presentation to the clinic today, which of the following patients is the most appropriate choice for heat modalities?
A) A 13-year-old female with muscular neck pain from a motor vehicle accident last week
B) A 64-year-old male with referred back pain related to prostate cancer
C) A 78-year-old female with arthritic hand pain who applied a heat liniment just prior to today's visit
D) A 19-year-old male who is developing a hematoma following a thigh contusion sustained in basketball practice today
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding air-activated heat wraps?
A) They maintain a temperature of 40°C up to 8 hours.
B) Air activates small magnetic coils in the wraps, which produce heat.
C) They can be reused up to five times after activation.
D) They provide a comfortable prolonged low-level moist heat.
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is strong substantiated evidence for the use of continuous US to treat
A) Pain and dysfunction of carpal tunnel syndrome
B) Pain and dysfunction associated with lateral epicondylitis
C) Limited range of motion (ROM) associated with frozen shoulder
D) Dysfunction associated with nonspecific shoulder conditions
Q2) Added heat buildup at the periosteal junction of bone can occur most likely as a result of
A) Acoustic wave reflection producing standing waves
B) Acoustic wave absorption in the very dense periosteum
C) Acoustic wave refraction into bone
D) Acoustic wave absorption into bone
Q3) Noncontact low-frequency ultrasound (NCLFUS) involves all of the following except
A) It is the aerosolization of saline water to treat wounds.
B) It is commonly known by its commercial name of MIST Therapy.
C) Evidence suggests that the NCLFUS stimulates wound healing by atraumatic selective tissue debridement, wound stimulatory effects, and antibacterial activity.
D) The approach is done by applying ultrasound in the same say as conventional ultrasound using the same frequencies and intensities.
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Q1) Your patient is a 64-year-old female with chronic back pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate hydrotherapy intervention for this patient?
A) Floating on her stomach in a pool while performing arm and leg raises
B) Swimming laps in a pool using standard overhead freestyle stroke
C) Sitting in a low-boy whirlpool with warm water with the agitation directed at her back
D) Floating on her back in a pool while performing arm and leg exercises
Q2) Which of the following is true about the physiological effect of water on nerve conduction velocity?
A) Increased nerve conduction velocity is proportional to hydrostatic pressure.
B) The effect depends primarily on the temperature of the water.
C) There is a decrease in nerve conduction velocity for body parts immersed in water.
D) Nerve conduction velocity adjusts upon entering the water, resulting in a generalized relaxation response.
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Q1) What is the primary difference between lasers and light-emitting diodes (LEDs)?
A) Laser light is monochromatic and LED light is polychromatic.
B) Light emitted by LEDs has limited coherence and directionality.
C) Laser light can produce heat in biological tissues and LEDs cannot produce heat.
D) LED light is produced by radio waves emitted by supra-luminous diodes.
Q2) Thermal effects of diathermy are believed to be caused by which of the following?
A) Accelerated motion of ions, dipoles, and/or electron clouds
B) Depolarization of peripheral neurons, resulting in vasodilation
C) Magnetic optimization of resonance frequencies
D) Attenuation of energy beam as it travels through tissue interfaces
Q3) Which is true regarding the physical properties of laser light?
A) Laser light is generated by spontaneous emission.
B) Light from a laser scatters like an overhead lamp.
C) The color of laser light depends on the medium through which it travels.
D) Laser light is monochromatic and coherent.
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Q1) Which of the following is correct with regard to cervical traction?
A) Approximately 30 to 45 pounds of traction force is required to achieve vertebral separation in the cervical spine.
B) Patients always have better outcomes when the traction force is as high as they can tolerate.
C) Cervical traction applied with the patient sitting requires more force to achieve the desired effect than when applied with the patient supine.
D) A person with a history of temporomandibular joint problems should not have any form of cervical traction.
Q2) Mechanical traction is unlikely to be effective in achieving which of the following?
A) Separation of vertebral bodies
B) Distraction of vertebral facet joints
C) Stretching of soft tissues of the spine
D) Permanent reduction of herniated nucleus pulposus
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should you do if your patient complains of numbness or tingling of her distal extremity during IPC?
A) Instruct the patient to contract her muscles in the garment to decrease this sensation.
B) Stop treatment and check for possible deep vein thrombosis or nerve compression.
C) Decrease elevation of the limb and adjust parameters until the sensation subsides.
D) This is a normal response to IPC and there is no cause for concern.
Q2) Use of IPC for treatment of post-traumatic edema should not be performed during which of the following stages of healing?
A) Acute
B) Subacute
C) Chronic D) Maturation
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Q1) What can be done clinically to decrease impedance between the electrode and the skin?
A) Use smaller electrodes to disperse the current over a smaller area.
B) Use electrodes with gel or adhesive conductive agents.
C) Apply a thin layer of dry gauze between the electrode and the skin.
D) Strap electrodes tightly to the skin or place a sandbag on top of the electrode.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about charge?
A) There are three types of charge: positive, negative, and neutral.
B) Like charges attract, whereas opposite charges repel.
C) Charge is neither created nor destroyed.
D) Charge cannot be transferred between objects.
Q3) According to Ohm's law, an 80 volt (V) circuit passing through 4 ohms of tissue impedance (resistance) will have how many amps (A) of current?
A) 240 A
B) 160 A
C) 0.05 A
D) 20 A
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing electrical stimulation for tissue healing, galvanotaxis may help promote healing of the wound because
A) Galvanotaxis has a bacteriocidal effect.
B) Histamine and prostaglandins are released into the wound.
C) Calcium fluxes facilitate depolarization of excitable cell membranes.
D) Cells associated with healing migrate toward the opposite-charge pole in the electric field.
Q2) Which of the following electrode placements is best for achieving a contraction of the wrist extensors?
A) One electrode proximal near the elbow and the other distal near the wrist
B) Cross-section arrangement on the forearm, one anterior and one posterior
C) Close together over the wrist extensor muscles in the forearm
D) One large electrode over the muscle belly and a smaller electrode distally near the wrist
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Q1) Modulation of the temporal characteristics of interferential current is best known as what?
A) Swing
B) Sweep
C) Scan
D) Swift
Q2) Which of the following best describes the recommended increase in current amplitude when using TENS?
A) 10% per day
B) 10% per week
C) 25% each treatment
D) 50% each day
Q3) Which of the following modes of TENS is administered with a pulse frequency of 100 Hz and a pulse duration of 100 µsec?
A) Acupuncture TENS
B) Brief-intense TENS
C) Burst-train TENS
D) Conventional TENS
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the current amplitude necessary when neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES) is used to increase ROM through muscle activation?
A) An amplitude that is greater than 80% of the maximal voluntary isometric contraction
B) An amplitude that elicits fasciculations, but below the level of tetany
C) An amplitude that elicits muscle contractions capable of moving the joint through the desired ROM
D) An amplitude that is just below the motor threshold
Q2) When heating muscle tissues prior to stretching, what is the minimum increase in temperature for eliciting plastic deformation in the tissues?
A) 39°F
B) 15°F
C) 60°F
D) 100°F
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Q1) Increases in strength of the quadriceps following the first 2 weeks of neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES) treatments are most likely secondary to which of the following?
A) Changes in motor unit recruitment
B) Increases in nerve conduction velocity
C) Hypertrophy of muscle size
D) Decreases in tissue resistance to current
Q2) The recommended amplitude for NMES to achieve a given level of muscle force is termed which of the following?
A) Dosage
B) Quantum
C) Threshold
D) Frequency
Q3) Which of the following is the key factor in the efficacy of NMES strengthening protocols?
A) Size of electrodes placed over the muscle to be stimulated
B) Selection of electrical stimulation (ES) waveform
C) Age and sex of the patient
D) Intensity of training
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Q1) When using NMES to increase range of motion (ROM) and tissue extensibility
A) The intensity should be high enough to generate a 5/5 muscle contraction in order to overcome the soft-tissue resistance to movement.
B) The sooner the muscles fatigue, the more efficient the remaining treatment will be.
C) It is critical to choose a high frequency that will maximize force generation.
D) It is important to maximize the treatment duration at the expense of muscle overloading.
Q2) Studies have shown that FES for upper extremity function has been effective in facilitating functional use of the extremity in which of the following patient populations?
A) Those who have had a stroke
B) Those with traumatic brain injury
C) Those having a spinal cord injury
D) All of the above
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Q1) The role of the inflammatory process that occurs following soft tissue injury can best be described as
A) Excessive and counterproductive to healing
B) Critical for successful tissue healing
C) Inadequate to promote scar formation
D) Required so the central nervous system (CNS) can produce mucopolysaccharides
Q2) Which of the following is thought to be the primary mechanism of action of negative-pressure wound therapy (NPWT) for wound healing?
A) Decreased blood flow
B) Microdeformation of cells
C) Facilitation of fibrinolysis
D) Bacteriocidal effects
Q3) Which of the following is a proposed chemical effect of IPC that promotes wound healing?
A) Decreased production of substance P
B) Increased release of endogenous opioids
C) Decreased release of sensory neuropeptides
D) Increased production of nitrous oxide
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Q1) Which of the following is considered a contraindication for use of therapeutic magnets?
A) Placement near internally implanted electronic devices
B) Implanted metal plates and screws for fracture fixation
C) Decreased sensation of the skin caused by peripheral neuropathy
D) Patients with a history of cardiovascular or pulmonary disease
Q2) Which of the following describes the type of electromagnetic waves produced by monochromatic infrared energy (MIRE) devices?
A) Invisible short radio waves at 690 nm
B) Visible long-infrared waves at 6,823 nm
C) Invisible microwaves below 1,000 nm
D) Visible near-infrared waves at 890 nm
Q3) Which of the following is the proposed physiological effect of HBOT?
A) Increased release of nitrous oxide from red blood cells
B) Release of histamine and bradykinins into the circulatory system
C) Softening of tropocollagen bonds in connective tissues
D) Increased amount of physically dissolved oxygen in plasma
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an electromyography (EMG) exam of a patient there is a brief burst of electrical activity when the needle electrode is inserted into the muscle. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this finding?
A) Neuromuscular junction disease
B) Myopathic disorder
C) Demyelination of the motor neuron
D) Normal response caused by movement of the needle electrode
Q2) Why must an ENMG examination be delayed until about 21 days after an axonopathy?
A) Three weeks is the approximate amount of time needed for Wallerian degeneration of the nerve to proceed.
B) It takes about 3 weeks for axons to begin regeneration.
C) Anterior horn cells will restore axoplasmic flow after 21 days.
D) It takes about 3 weeks for post-injury inflammation to subside.
Q3) Which of the following is a benefit of saltatory conduction of myelinated nerves?
A) Speed of conduction is significantly lower.
B) More space is needed for myelinated nerves to conduct impulses.
C) Conduction amplitudes are much greater and last longer.
D) Amount of energy needed to propagate a nerve impulse is considerably less.
Page 19
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