Course Introduction
Physical Geology
Pre-Test Questions
Physical Geology is an introductory course that explores the fundamental processes and materials that shape the Earth. Topics covered include the structure and composition of the Earth's interior, the formation and classification of minerals and rocks, plate tectonics, earthquakes, volcanoes, weathering, erosion, and the development of landscapes. Students will gain an understanding of how geological forces operate over time and impact both the natural environment and human society, preparing them for further study in geology or related fields.
Recommended Textbook
The Changing Earth Exploring Geology and Evolution 6th Edition by James S. Monroe
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Understanding Earth: A Dynamic and Evolving Planet
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Q1) Earth's solid portion is divided into concentric layers of rock and other materials that may be solid,liquid,or partially molten.From the center to the surface,these are known as the inner ____________________,outer ____________________,lower ____________________,upper ____________________,and ____________________.
Answer: core,core,mantle,mantle,crust
Q2) A combination of related parts that interact in an organized fashion is a(n)____________________.
Answer: system
Q3) What are two examples of geology-related environmental concerns? Briefly explain why geology holds an important position in environmental science.
Answer: Water quality and distribution,finding and exploiting energy resources,soil formation and erosion,climate change--there are many to choose from.Geology is concerned with all aspects of the physical Earth and their interactions with the biosphere.
Q4) The portion of Earth that has the largest volume is the ____________________. Answer: mantle
Q5) What is the basic premise of the principle of uniformitarianism?
Answer: Present-day processes have operated throughout geologic time.
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Chapter 2: Plate Tectonics: A Unifying Theory
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Q1) To determine the rate of plate motion,geologists date the magnetic anomalies on the seafloor and determine the distance from the ridge axis to that magnetic anomaly.Then they divide the age by the distance to determine the rate of movement.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The San Andreas Fault that runs through California ____.
A) is a transform fault
B) is a plate boundary
C) is the location of large earthquakes
D) is a transform fault that is the location of large earthquakes
E) all of these
Answer: D
Q3) The names of the plates on either side of the plate boundary that passes through California are ____________________ and ____________________.
Answer: Pacific,North American
North American,Pacific
Q4) At a convergent plate boundary,oceanic crust is ____________________.
Answer: destroyed
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Chapter 3: Minerals The Building Blocks of Rocks
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Q1) The United States is totally dependent on imports of some resources.Some of these imports come from politically unstable parts of the world.What choices are there for resolving this problem?
Answer: Answers will vary.The U.S.could try to find the needed mineral resources within the country but some are not available in large enough quantities or would require mining in environmentally or culturally sensitive areas.The U.S.could try to find the resources in friendlier nations.Developing alternatives to these resources is another possibility.For example,we could try to become less dependent on petroleum by developing other types of energy resources.
Q2) How do a rock and a mineral differ?
Answer: A rock is a naturally occurring aggregate of minerals,while minerals are naturally occurring,inorganic crystalline solids.Rocks are made up of minerals,not vice versa.
Q3) How does a mineral reserve differ from a mineral resource?
Answer: A reserve is that part of a resource that can be extracted (mined)economically.
Q4) What are the eight chemical elements that make up over 99 percent of Earth's crust?
Answer: O,Si,Al,Fe,Mg,Ca,Na,K
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Igneous Rocks and Plutons
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Q1) Is the process of partial melting more likely to produce magmas which are more mafic or more felsic? Why?
Q2) Briefly explain how pegmatites form.
Q3) An igneous rock in which large mineral grains called ____________________ are suspended in a finely crystalline groundmass is called a(n)____________________.
Q4) Trapped gases in cooling lava form cavities called ____________________.Cinder cones may contain large amounts of ____________________ which contains more of these cavities than it does rock.
Q5) When looking at a hand sample of an igneous rock,how would you tell if it is plutonic or volcanic?
Q6) Rapid cooling of magma results in a(n)____________________ grained texture called ____________________.
Q7) Give one reason why rhyolite flows are less common than basalt flows.
Q8) What is a pluton?
Q9) How did Shiprock,New Mexico form?
Q10) What does a phaneritic texture tell us about the history of an igneous rock?
Q11) Concordant tabular sheetlike plutons are called ____________________,whereas discordant tabular plutons are called ____________________. Page 6
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Chapter 5: Volcanoes and Volcanism
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Q1) Crater Lake in Oregon is an example of a caldera.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss what volcanologists look for in trying to determine if a volcano is about to erupt.
Q3) Most of the approximately 3,300 historic eruptions lasted how long?
A) less than one month
B) one to six months
C) one to two years
D) more than two years
E) none of these
Q4) Shield volcanoes are composed largely of lavas of ____________________ composition; they commonly have slopes that are ____________________,and their eruptions tend to be ____________________ in explosivity.
Q5) What are the three main types of volcanoes?
A) cinder cones, clastic cones, and stratocones
B) cinder cones, composite cones, and shield volcanoes
C) shield volcanoes, composite volcanoes, and Hawaiian-style volcanoes
D) clastic cones, stratocones, and Hawaiian-style volcanoes
E) none of these
Page 8
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Chapter 6: Weathering, Erosion, and Soil
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Q1) What does pressure release weathering result in?
A) sheet jointing
B) rock bursts
C) exfoliation
D) exfoliation domes
E) all of these
Q2) What is caliche?
A) a layer of silica cement within a pedalfer
B) a layer of precipitated calcium carbonate in horizon B
C) a layer of rock between soil layers C and D
D) a deposit formed in alkali soils
E) a light colored layer of unstable minerals
Q3) Pressure release is a mechanical weathering process that occurs often in intrusive rocks such as those formed in batholiths.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly explain why water is such an important agent in chemical weathering.
Q5) How does regolith differ from soil?
Q6) What factors and sequence of events commonly lead to soil erosion in rainforests?
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Chapter 7: Sediment and Sedimentary Rocks
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Q1) In a marine environment,the largest sediments are found ____.
A) just offshore because the largest sediments come from the continents
B) in the deep sea because the largest sediments fall down from the sea surface
C) in the deep sea because the largest sediments come out from continents
D) in the deep sea because the largest sediments are brought out by glaciers
E) nowhere; there are no large sediments in the ocean basins
Q2) Fossil "shoe prints" are evidence that humans and dinosaurs coexisted.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Briefly explain why the study of sedimentary environments is important in the study of historical geology.
Q4) Wind blown deposits tend to be very well sorted. A)True
B)False
Q5) Under what conditions does coal form?
Q6) What are the requirements for a rock body to serve as a reservoir rock for hydrocarbons?
Q7) All detrital sedimentary rocks have a _______ texture.
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Q8) The steam channel,floodplain,lake,beach or deep seafloor where a sediment is laid down is known as its _______ _______.
Chapter 8: Metamorphism and Metamorphic Rocks
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Q1) Why is heat an important agent of metamorphism?
Q2) What is the reaction of country rock with solutions from a cooling magma known as?
A) hydrothermal solution
B) hydroxide alteration
C) geothermal alteration
D) hydrothermal alteration
E) hydrostatic alteration
Q3) What are some uses of metamorphic rocks such as marble,slate,sulfide ore,talc,graphite,and clay?
Q4) A rock that has both igneous and metamorphic characteristics is called _______.These rocks form as the result of _______ temperatures.
Q5) The three types of metamorphism are ____________________,____________________,and
Q6) Metamorphism can be caused by increased temperatures.How can temperatures be raised,geologically,to bring about metamorphism?
Q7) Metamorphic rocks are very common in the crystalline basement rocks of shields. A)True B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 9: Earthquakes and Earth's Interior
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Q1) The structural layer of earth that is liquid is the ____________________.
Q2) Explain why the portions of the San Andreas fault that are "locked" are or are not safer than the parts where the two plates slide more or less continually.What is the name of the theory that deals with this issue?
Q3) According to the elastic rebound theory,____.
A) rocks will bend before they break
B) rocks will snap back into their original shape after faulting
C) rocks will break when their capacity to store energy of deformation has been exceeded
D) rocks will bend before they break AND snap back into their original shape after faulting
E) all of these
Q4) What causes tsunami,and why are they so destructive?
Q5) We know that the mantle is not molten because P-waves can travel through it.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Approximately 90% of all earthquake foci are at depths of greater than 100 km.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The energy used in seismic tomography is ____________________.
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Chapter 10: Deformation,Mountain Building,and Earth's
Crust
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Q1) In an anticline,the beds in its axial region are ____________________ in age than the beds of its limbs,and all strata dip ____________________ the axis.
Q2) The Andes formed as result of oceanic-continental convergence.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the difference between a thrust fault and a reverse fault?
Q4) The most active orogenic belts today are the Alpine-Himalayan belt and the circum-Pacific belt.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What type of information is found on geologic maps,and what are some of the possible uses for geologic maps?
Q6) What is the dip of an inclined layer of rock?
Q7) Dip-slip faults include ____.
A) normal faults
B) reverse faults
C) thrust faults
D) normal and reverse faults
E) All of these
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Mass Wasting
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Q1) How can vegetation affect the likelihood of mass wasting?
Q2) If you were surveying hillside property on which you planned to build a home,what are some of the evidences of former mass wasting you would look for?
Q3) Geologists call the down slope movement of material under the direct influence of gravity ____________________.
Q4) The removal of vegetation is a significant cause of slope failure and mass wasting. A)True B)False
Q5) The material accumulated at the base of cliffs where rocks fall is known as ____________________.
Q6) What are the most common triggering mechanisms for mass wasting?
Q7) In the cut-and-fill method, A) benches are cut into a hillside.
B) material is removed from the up a slope and placed at the base. C) retaining walls are constructed and anchored into bedrock.
D) rock bolts are fastened to stable bedrock.
Q8) Briefly explain why saturated clay is a very unstable slope material.
Page 14
Q9) What human activities contribute to or cause mass wasting?
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Chapter 12: Running Water Streams and Rivers
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Q1) The two types of flow are ____________________ flow and ____________________ flow.
Q2) Lateral erosion creates conditions along a stream valley that promotes movement of material by another geologic process known as ____________________.
Q3) In each state in the U.S.,hydroelectric power accounts for 6.4% of the electricity generated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In meandering streams,the water velocity tends to be greatest in the ____________________ portion of the meander.
Q5) Water that returns to the oceans as surface flow from streams is ____________________.
Q6) An uplifted erosional remnant of a floodplain that formed when a stream was flowing at a higher level is called a(n)____________________.
Q7) Briefly explain how a stream might adjust toward an equilibrium state following a heavy rain.
Q8) The lower limit to which the stream can erode is its ____________________.
Page 15
Q9) ____________________ flow is characteristic of almost all streams.
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Chapter 13: Groundwater
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Q1) The zone of saturation extends to an indefinite depth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A place where groundwater flows/seeps out of the ground is a(n)____________________.
Q3) Briefly explain how some limestone and other carbonate rocks can have high porosity and permeability.
Q4) Briefly explain the role of streams in the formation of caverns,and the process by which several levels of vertically connected caves may form.
Q5) The boundary between the zone of aeration and the zone of saturation is known as the ____________________.
Q6) What is hard water? How is it found,and what are its negative effects?
Q7) Contrast porosity and permeability.
Q8) A very large cave or system of interconnected caves is called a(n)____________________.
Q9) One common,widespread sedimentary rock that is readily dissolved by groundwater is ____________________.
Q11) What are the three major uses for groundwater? Page 16
Q10) In what ways are geysers and undersea hydrothermal vent sites similar?
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Page 17
Chapter 14: Glaciers and Glaciation
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Q1) Is ice a mineral? Explain.
Q2) A strong correlation has been established between periods of intense volcanism and short-term glacial cooling.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A glacial landform that forms at the head of glacial valleys or troughs is called a(n)____.
A) roche moutonnée
B) esker
C) kame
D) arête
E) cirque
Q4) If glacial ice were a rock it would be a(n)_______ rock.
A) igneous
B) sedimentary
C) metamorphic
D) glacial ice cannot be a rock
Q5) The Matterhorn in Switzerland is a glacial ____________________ landform known as a(n)____________________.
Q6) How does a fiord form?
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Chapter 15: The Work of Wind and Deserts
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Q1) How is rock/desert varnish produced?
Q2) Briefly explain how a pediment is formed.
Q3) Deserts are the one environment where wind erosion is more important than water erosion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What type of weathering is dominant in deserts,and why?
Q5) The same geological agents work in all deserts,so landforms of various deserts are similar.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The deflection of a moving mass from a straight line is known as ____________________.
Q7) Loess
A) must be stabilized by moisture and vegetation.
B) is most common in desert regions.
C) is very fine-grained and bad for crops.
D) all of these.
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Q8) Stones whose polished,pitted,faceted surfaces have been produced by wind erosion are called ____________________.
Chapter 16: Oceans, Shorelines, and Shoreline Processes
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Q1) Winter beach profiles can actually develop during any season.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a spit that connects an island to the mainland called?
A) hook
B) tombolo
C) barrier island
D) beach
E) baymouth bar
Q3) What are some depositional features of shorelines?
Q4) Why are waves in ponds and lakes smaller than those in oceans?
Q5) The bending of waves toward shore as they approach from an oblique angle is called wave ____________________.
Q6) How are most waves generated?
Q7) Spits,baymouth bars,and tombolos form only along ocean shores because lakes have insufficient supplies of sand.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
Q8) Under what conditions do barrier islands form?
Q9) In what direction do longshore currents flow?
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Page 21
Chapter 17: Geologic Time: Concepts and Principles
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Q1) The placement of events into a sequential order based upon their position in the rock record is referred to as ____________________ dating.
Q2) What are seismic profiles?
Q3) The time necessary for half of the atoms of the unstable parent element to decay to the new,more stable daughter element is the isotope's ____________________.
Q4) What is the goal of subsurface correlation techniques that is used in the search for oil and gas?
Q5) Long-lived radioactive isotope pairs used in radiometric dating have half-lives of the magnitude of ____________________ or ____________________ of years.
Q6) What are the six fundamental geologic principles which are used in relative dating?
Q7) Stalagmites can be radiometrically dated because
A) like tree rings, the calcium carbonate layers vary in thickness by year.
B) carbon-14 decays to nitrogen 14 in the carbonate.
C) uranium-234 substitutes for calcium and decays to thorium-230.
D) fission tracks in apatite in the structures can be dated.
Q8) ____________________ dating is used to obtain absolute age dates.
Q9) What fact makes radiocarbon dating possible?
Page 22
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Chapter 18: Organic Evolution The Theory and Its Supporting Evidence
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Q1) Lysenko and his colleagues increased food production significantly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Vestigial structures are those that have only small pieces remaining on an organism.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Homologous structures probably indicate descent with modifications from a common ancestor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The type of cell division in which resulting cells contain one chromosome from each pair is called ____________________.
Q5) What is cladistics? How does cladistics group organisms?
Q6) According to the concept of ____________________,an ancestral species changes gradually and continuously and grades imperceptibly into a descent species.
Q7) Genes controlling the same trait are called ____________________.
Page 23
Q8) Briefly explain how the concept of punctuated equilibrium is compatible with the fossil record.
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Chapter 19: Precambrian Earth and Life History
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Q1) Briefly explain the difference between the tectonic setting of shield areas during the Precambrian and since the onset of the Phanerozoic.
Q2) Continental growth during the Early Proterozoic development of Laurentia was related to ____________________ of ____________________ age cratons.
Q3) Sandstone-carbonate-shale assemblages comprise ______ percent of the Proterozoic rock record and indicate ____________________ tectonics.
Q4) The Grenville orogeny was the culminating event of the amalgamation of Laurentia.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most of the volcanism associated with greenstone belts was ____.
A) subaqueous
B) basalt pillow lavas
C) ultramafic lava
D) subaqueous and ultramafic lava
E) all of these
Q6) What are banded iron formations composed mainly of?
Q7) The Grenville orogeny occurred between ______ to ______ billion years ago
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Chapter 20: Paleozoic Earth History
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Q1) Describe a clastic wedge.How can a clastic wedge be used as evidence for an orogeny?
Q2) The shield portion of the craton is underlain by ____ age rocks and was tectonically
A) Archean, active
B) Precambrian, active
C) Precambrian, inactive
D) Phanerozoic, inactive
E) Phanerozoic, active
Q3) What are believed to be the causes of global transgressive and regressive cycles?
Q4) What were the six major Paleozoic continents?
Q5) The presumed causes for transgressions and regressions of shallow seas during the Paleozoic were ____________________ and ____________________.
Q6) When and where did the Acadian orogeny occur?
Q7) Describe how the first geologic map was created.
Q8) During the Cambrian,where were the major continents located?
Q9) In what two areas are there major exposures of the rocks formed in the Ouachita mobile belt?
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Chapter 21: Paleozoic Life History
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Q1) What were the earliest fish?
A) ray-finned
B) boney-finned
C) cartilaginous
D) jawless
E) jawed
Q2) Non-vascular plants differ from vascular plants in that they ____.
A) reproduce by seeds only
B) live in dry arid climates
C) are small and live in moist climates
D) do not have specialized tissue to transport water and nutrients
E) are small, live in moist climates and do not have specialized tissue for transporting water and nutrients
Q3) The most critical barriers for animals in making the transition from sea to land were the development of ways to deal with what?
A) desiccation
B) reproduction
C) the effects of gravity
D) the extraction of oxygen from the atmosphere
E) all of these
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Chapter 22: Mesozoic Earth and Life History
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Q1) Rudists bivalves were an important component of the Mesozoic reef community.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The three time periods of the Mesozoic,from oldest to youngest are ____________________,____________________,and
Q3) The Palisades sill is a Cretaceous age basalt intrusion associated with compressional mountain building.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What were the two groups of marine reptiles?
A) plesiosaurs and pterosaurs
B) pterosaurs and ichthyosaurs
C) captorhinomorphs and plesiosaurs
D) plesiosaurs and ichthyosaurs
E) plesiosaurs and crocodiles
Q5) Scientists know that birds began to evolve prior to the Cretaceous due to the fossil ____________________.
Q6) How distinct were Mesozoic mammals from their reptile neighbors?
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Q7) Cretaceous reefs of the Gulf Coastal region make excellent __________
Chapter 23: Cenozoic Earth and Life History
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Q1) Ungulates that eat leaves,shoots,and twigs are called browsers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The present day Appalachian Mountains are the product of Cenozoic subduction and orogeny.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The oldest known fossil of the genus Homo is from rocks about 3.5 million years old.
A)True
B)False
Q4) New seafloor is being created in the East African rift.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Late Cretaceous to early Tertiary age,coal deposits were higher grade coal than the Pennsylvanian age deposits found in the eastern United States.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the geologic setting of the western margin of North America.
Q7) What is the North American Cordillera?
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Chapter 24: Geology in Perspective
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Q1) Ask the students: Has learning the scientific basis of many issues caused you to change your mind or formulate an opinion on a topic? For example,do you now have a better sense about issues such as evolution,global warming,ozone depletion,etc.?
Q2) What activities do humans engage in that make them geologic agents,and how effective are human activities at being geologic agents?
Q3) What will the effects of an additional 3 billion people by the end of the 21st century be on environmental issues? How will these people secure the things that they need?
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