Course Introduction
Physical Geology
Exam Questions
Physical Geology is an introductory course that explores the materials, processes, and structures that shape the Earth's surface and interior. The course covers key topics such as minerals and rocks, plate tectonics, earthquakes, volcanoes, weathering, erosion, and the formation of landscapes. Through a combination of theoretical concepts and practical observation, students gain a fundamental understanding of how dynamic Earth systems interact over geological timescales to create the planet's diverse features and resources.
Recommended Textbook
GEOL 2nd Edition by Reed Wicander
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2
Chapter 1: Understanding Earth: A Dynamic and Evolving Planet
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Q1) What are the three types of tectonic plate boundaries?
Answer: Divergent,convergent,and transform.
Q2) Planetesimals are ____________________.
Answer: Accreting masses of gases,liquids,and solids that may eventually become true planets
Q3) How are the rock cycle and plate tectonics related?
Answer: Interactions between plates determine,to some extent,which of the three rock groups will form.Plates may melt to form igneous rocks,be altered to form metamorphic,or sink to allow sediments to become sedimentary rocks.
Q4) In order for geologists to use the principle of uniformitarianism to interpret the geologic record,they do not need to study modern geologic processes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) What is one way in which geologic knowledge is used to help humans?
Answer: There are several possible answers to this,including finding mineral or energy resources,helping solve environmental problems,or predicting natural hazards.
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Chapter 2: Plate Tectonics: A Unifying Theory
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Q1) The subduction of cold,dense oceanic lithosphere into the mantle facilitates teh movement of plates by slab pull.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A rock will preserve its remnant magnetism as long as it is not heated above the Curie point.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What is the driving mechanism for plate tectonics?
Answer: Thermal convection cells.
Q4) Why were glacially deposited strata important in the development of the continental drift hypothesis?
Answer: The glacial deposits indicated that all of the southern continents were once closer to the south pole and were contiguous.
Q5) Deviations from the average strength of Earth's present-day magnetic field are called ____________________.
Answer: magnetic anomalies
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Chapter 3: Minerals: The Building Blocks of Rocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do a rock and a mineral differ?
Answer: A rock is a naturally occurring aggregate of minerals,while minerals are naturally occurring,inorganic crystalline solids.Rocks are made up of minerals,not vice versa.
Q2) The primary occurrence of the rock-forming minerals olivine,pyroxene,and amphibole is:
A)igneous rocks.
B)metamorphic rocks.
C)sedimentary rocks.
D)A and B
E)all rock types
Answer: D
Q3) ____________________ and ____________________ are mineral compounds that are commonly produced by animals and are known as calcium
Answer: Calcite,aragonite,carbonate
Aragonite,calcite,carbonate
Q4) The atomic mass of an atom is defined as the sum of the number of its ____________________ plus ____________________.
Answer: protons,neutrons
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Igneous Rocks and Intrusive Igneous Activity
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Q1) Partial melting of basalt,together with the processes of assimilation,____________________ settling,and ____________________ mixing,are believed to explain the generation of felsic intrusive magmas from ____________________ magmas.
Q2) What are dikes,sills,and laccoliths?
Q3) Natural glass,such as obsidian,forms when magma:
A)cools too rapidly for crystals to form.
B)cools rapidly and very tiny crystals form.
C)cools too slowly for crystals to form.
D)doesn't cool.
E)none of these.
Q4) The process of assimilation partly explains why felsic intrusive rocks are much more common than mafic intrusive rocks.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ____________________ is the first ferromagnesian mineral to crystallize from a mafic magma.
Q6) Tuff is made up of pyroclastic materials.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Volcanoes and Volcanism
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Q1) Lava flows are the greatest hazard of volcanoes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why does most volcanism at spreading ridges go undetected?
Q3) An example of a cinder cone volcano is:
A)Mount St.Helens,Washington.
B)Mayon,Philippines.
C)Paricutín,Mexico.
D)Vesuvius,Italy.
E)Mazama,Oregon.
Q4) Besides monitoring,what other knowledge helps geologists determine what to expect for eruptions from a given volcano?
Q5) Columnar joints caused by the contraction of lava as it cools form typically in a(n)____________________ shape.
Q6) How did recent eruptions of Mount Pinatubo in the Philippines and Kilauea in Hawaii differ?
Q7) Cinder cones rarely reach heights greater than ____________________;they are composed of ____________________ material of ____________________ composition.
Page 7
Q8) How are cinder cones different from the other two major types of volcanoes?
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Chapter 6: Weathering, Soil, and Sedimentary Rocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) The properties used to describe detrital sediment are:
A)size.
B)sorting.
C)rounding.
D)size and rounding.
E)size,sorting and rounding.
Q2) Graded bedding forms when:
A)erosion planes off a portion of the sea bottom.
B)sediment is deposited on a steep slope or grade.
C)turbidity currents deposit first coarse sediment then fine sediment.
D)cross-bedding is truncated.
E)turbidity currents deposit first fine sediment followed by coarse sediment.
Q3) Under what conditions do carbonates form?
Q4) Briefly explain how dolostone is formed.
Q5) What is a marine transgression? What are the sedimentary facies associated with a marine transgression?
Q6) A rock may be subjected to either mechanical or chemical weathering,but never both at the same time.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Metamorphism and Metamorphic Rocks
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Q1) A rock with both igneous and high-grade metamorphic characteristics is a(n)____________________.
Q2) Which of the following lists of foliated rock types is arranged according to increasing coarseness of texture?
A)slate,phyllite,gneiss,schist
B)slate,amphibolite,schist,phyllite
C)schist,phyllite,gneiss,slate
D)slate,phyllite,schist,gneiss
E)schist,phyllite,amphibolite,gneiss
Q3) Metamorphism is most common along ____________________ plate boundaries.
Q4) Which three processes bring about metamorphism?
A)heat,pressure,weathering
B)melting,pressure,fluid activity
C)fluid activity,heat,melting
D)pressure,fluid activity,heat
E)crystallization,differential pressure,melting
Q5) Describe regional metamorphism.Where does it take place?
Q6) The various colors of slate result from differing intensities of deformation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Earthquakes and Earths Interior
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Q1) Explain the differences between the magnitude and the intensity of an earthquake,in terms of how each is measured or observed.
Q2) Why has it been suggested that large earthquakes might be prevented by injecting water along isolated portions of fault zones that have been inactive for an unusually long time? When was this technique discovered?
Q3) Why are there so few earthquakes within plate interiors?
Q4) Explain how geologists calculate the distance between the epicenter of an earthquake and a given seismograph.
Q5) Describe surface waves and their most important two types.
Q6) An instrument that detects,records,and measures vibrations produced by an earthquake is called a(n)____________________.
Q7) The structural layer that comprises the greatest volume of Earth is the
Q8) What are the differences between P-waves and S-waves?
Q9) What happens along an earthquake fault after rupturing begins? How is the length of time of ground shaking related to the length of the fault?
Q10) What causes earthquakes?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Deformation, Mountain Building, and the Continents
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Q1) Why is the study of deformation and deformed rock important?
Q2) Continental crust is always thicker than oceanic crust.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The type of fold that forms traps for most of the world's produced petroleum is a(n)____________________.
Q4) How can you tell if a strike-slip fault is right- or left-lateral?
Q5) A fold is the result of ____________________ deformation.
Q6) What does shear stress result from?
Q7) Uplifted blocks are called: A)tensional blocks. B)grabens. C)horsts.
D)fault blocks. E)graves.
Q8) Describe the plate tectonics processes and associated stresses that have led to the formation of the Himalayas,the world's largest mountain range?
Q9) What is the difference between stress and strain? Page 11
Q10) What is the difference between brittle and ductile rocks?
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Chapter 10: Mass Wasting
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Q1) Among the types of slides are:
A)slumps.
B)block slides.
C)mudflows.
D)slumps and block slides.
E)slumps,block slides,and mudflows.
Q2) Creep is most effective and significant in a(n)____________________ climate.
Q3) A rapid downslope mass movement of snow and ice is called a(n)____________________.
Q4) What human activities contribute to or cause mass wasting?
Q5) How would reducing the slope of a hillside help to stabilize it? What two methods can be used to reduce a slope's angle?
Q6) How does vegetation affect slope stability? What happens if vegetation is removed from the slope?
Q7) Mass movements in which material flows as a viscous fluid or displays plastic movement are termed ____________________.
Q8) What climatic conditions are most conducive to solifluction?
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Q9) What geologic conditions are usually present in the areas where most block slides occur?
Chapter 11: Running Water
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Q1) Describe the hydrologic cycle.
Q2) Lateral erosion creates conditions along a stream valley that promote movement of material by another geologic process known as ____________________.
Q3) The percentage of Earth's water that is in the oceans is:
A)100%.
B)97%.
C)93%.
D)55%.
E)50%.
Q4) What happens when a stream overflows its banks?
Q5) What are some of the reasons why running water is important to humans?
Q6) What is a 20-year flood?
Q7) Braided streams have an intricate network of dividing and rejoining channels. A)True B)False
Q8) The renewal of erosion that results in creation of stream terraces is generally attributed to a change in ____________________ level,or a change in climate resulting in greater ____________________,and thus,discharge.
Q9) How is the gradient of a stream calculated?
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Chapter 12: Groundwater
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Q1) Why are porosity and permeability important to groundwater?
Q2) A very large cave or system of interconnected caves is called a(n)____________________.
Q3) What happens to the water table in an aquifer if the amount of groundwater discharged naturally or withdrawn at wells is greater than the amount added from natural or artificial sources?
Q4) How can granite and many other dense igneous and metamorphic rocks be groundwater reservoirs?
Q5) Groundwater is one reservoir of the ____________________ cycle.
Q6) How are stalactites different from stalagmites? Why do they typically form in pairs and often merge to form a column?
Q7) How are minor impurities filtered out of groundwater?
Q8) What is one of the beneficial results of movement of water within the ground?
Q9) The zone of saturation extends to an indefinite depth.
A)True
B)False
Q10) What are disappearing streams?
Q12) How do caves and caverns form? Page 15
Q11) What effect do water wells have on an aquifer?
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Page 16
Chapter 13: Glaciers and Glaciation
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Q1) Describe differences in flow rates within a valley glacier.
Q2) What are glaciers? How are they as agents of erosion and deposition?
Q3) Briefly explain the origin of drumlins.
Q4) What is the difference between ice caps and continental glaciers?
Q5) A lake formed within a cirque is called a(n): A)arête. B)esker.
C)tarn. D)fjord. E)drumlin.
Q6) How does the water bound in glaciers eventually reenter the hydrologic cycle?
Q7) A glacier begins to flow when the ice reaches a critical thickness of about: A)100 meters. B)40 meters. C)20 meters. D)10 meters. E)5 meters.
Q8) What is a fiord,and how does one form?
Q10) Glaciers move primarily by ____________________ flow. Page 17
Q9) Describe the conditions that would make a valley glacier flow faster.
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Page 18
Chapter 14: The Work of Wind and Deserts
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Q1) Describe sediment transport as bed load,including saltation.
Q2) Briefly explain why most deserts develop in the mid-latitude dry climate zone.
Q3) As in more humid regions,streams in deserts draw upon groundwater to replace water lost to evaporation and absorption into the ground.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sandblasting in nature is caused by the process of saltation. A)True
B)False
Q5) Since most deserts have internal drainage,why are there through-flowing streams,such as the Nile,Niger,Indus,and Colorado Rivers in some deserts?
Q6) What type of weathering is dominant in deserts and why? What about other types of weathering?
Q7) The drainage characteristic of most deserts in which streams dry up and do not have enough water to become integrated and reach outside their drainage areas is called ____________________ drainage.
Q8) What are the three main sources from which loess is derived?
Page 19
Q9) Why do most desert streams never reach the sea?
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Chapter 15: Oceans, Shorelines, and Shoreline Processes
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Q1) Outline the factors that create global surface circulation patterns and describe the patterns created.Where are the cold water currents and where are the warm water currents? How does this moderate Earth's temperature?
Q2) The two important types of nearshore currents are ____________________ currents and ____________________ currents.
Q3) A structure built perpendicular to shore to enlarge a beach or prevent erosion is a(n)____________________.
Q4) Why do wave sizes in ponds and lakes have less magnitude than those in oceans?
Q5) The most effective means of sea cliff erosion is hydraulic action. A)True B)False
Q6) During the past century,sea level has risen 12 centimeters. A)True B)False
Q7) What options do geologists and engineers have in combating the effects of rising sea level?
Q8) Energy is transferred from wind to water to create waves by ____________________.
Q9) What is a wave-cut platform,and how does one develop?
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Chapter 16: Geologic Time: Concepts and Principles
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Q1) What is the principle of cross-cutting relationships?
Q2) Sources of uncertainty in radioactive dating do not include:
A)loss of daughter isotope.
B)uncertainty in decay constants.
C)experimental and sample error.
D)addition of parent isotope.
E)questions about metamorphism.
Q3) Explain why correlation by fossils is necessary to demonstrate time equivalence of strata.
Q4) The half-life of a radioactive element is variable,but only within a small range.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ____________________ dating is used to obtain absolute age dates.
Q6) What is the principle of original horizontality?
Q7) How do geologists do correlation using rocks and fossils?
Q8) What do unconformities represent?
Q9) What is the principle of fossil succession,and what is its importance? Who is credited with discovering it?
21
Q10) How were absolute ages added to the geologic time scale in the 20 century?
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Chapter 17: Earth History
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Q1) Name the two periods into which the Cenozoic is divided.
Q2) By the (Early/Middle/Late)____________________ Cambrian most of North America was covered by epeiric seas with the exception of a highland known as the
Q3) What is the basic difference between the Archean and the Proterozoic?
Q4) Archean and Proterozoic greenstone belts formed in similar tectonic settings.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The orogens along the west coasts of the Americas,the eastern margin of Asia and the islands north of Australia and New Zealand are part of the
Q6) Describe the four stages of the breakup of Pangaea.
Q7) In what two major zones or belts has Cenozoic orogenic activity been mainly concentrated?
Q8) Outline the history of the Alpine-Himalayan belt.
Q9) In the Tippecanoe sequence,widespread carbonate deposition was related to the Taconic orogeny.
A)True
B)False
Q10) The Gulf of Mexico began to form in the ____________________ Period. Page 22
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Page 23
Chapter 18: Life History
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Q1) What is the Cambrian explosion? Is their appearance sudden? Why is it sudden,or why does it seem so?
Q2) Lung-fish are important in the fossil record because amphibians evolved from them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe bird evolution as known from the fossil record.
Q4) Mammals that produce an unprotected embryo that undergoes further development in a pouch are called ____________________ mammals.
Q5) What was the importance of the therapsids?
Q6) What is important to know about the evolution of invertebrate phyla?
Q7) What is the best alternative to the meteorite impact hypothesis for the Cretaceous mass extinction?
Q8) Briefly state why the development of the amniote egg was so significant in the evolution of the reptiles.
Q9) How did eukaryotic cells evolve,and why was this advance so important in life history?
Q10) Describe the evolution of amphibians in the Paleozoic.
Page 24
Q11) What are stromatolites,and why are they important in Earth history?
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