Course Introduction
Physical Geography
Final Exam Questions
Physical Geography explores the dynamic processes and natural features that shape the Earths surface, including landforms, climates, soils, vegetation, and water systems. This course examines the interactions between the atmosphere, hydrosphere, lithosphere, and biosphere, emphasizing the patterns and processes that influence weather, climate change, natural hazards, and ecosystems. Students will develop analytical skills through map interpretation, field observations, and case studies, gaining a deeper understanding of how physical environments impact human activity and vice versa.
Recommended Textbook
Meteorology Today 11th Edition by C. Donald Ahrens
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20 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Earth and Its Atmosphere
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Q1)
____________________,____________________,____________________
, and water vapor are the four most abundant gases in today's atmosphere.
Answer: Nitrogen;oxygen;argon
Nitrogen;argon;oxygen
Oxygen;argon;nitrogen
Oxygen,nitrogen,argon
Argon;nitrogen;oxygen
Argon;oxygen;nitrogen
Q2) Earth's second atmosphere was more dense than its first atmosphere (which formed some 4.6 billion years ago),and developed through the impact of a series of meteorites.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The ____________________ of air in a rigid container is the same everywhere in the universe.
Answer: mass
Q4) The ozone hole is located over ____________________.
Answer: Antarctica
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Energy - Warming the Earth and the Atmosphere
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Q1) Earth's magnetic field protects Earth from some of the A)pollutants found in the atmosphere.
B)dangerous ozone present in the atmosphere.
C)dangerous gamma rays emitted by the Sun.
D)ultraviolet radiation.
E)particles emitted by the Sun in the form of solar winds and storms. Answer: E
Q2) An increase in cloud cover surrounding Earth would ____________________ Earth's albedo,yet not necessarily lead to a lower Earth surface temperature. Answer: increase
Q3) Energy of motion is also known as A)dynamic energy.
B)kinetic energy.
C)sensible heat energy.
D)static energy.
E)latent heat energy.
Answer: B
Q4) Earth's albedo is ____________________ percent. Answer: 30 thirty
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Chapter 3: Seasonal and Daily Temperatures
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Q1) The first sign of hypothermia is ____.
A)stupor
B)dehydration
C)exhaustion
D)collapse
E)frostbite
Answer: C
Q2) During an equinox,the days and nights are of equal length except at the poles.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The greatest variation in daily temperature usually occurs
A)at the ground.
B)about 5 feet above the ground.
C)at the top of a high-rise apartment complex.
D)at the level where thermals stop rising.
E)on top of a mountain.
Answer: A
Q4) Orchard heaters that generate smoke are known as ____________________.
Answer: smudge pots
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Chapter 4: Atmospheric Humidity
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Q1) The temperature difference between the dry bulb and the wet bulb is known as the
A)dry-bulb depression
B)wet-bulb depression
C)dry-bulb inclination
D)wet-bulb inclination
E)bulb depression
Q2) Hot and humid summer days usually feel ____________________ than hot and dry summer days.
Q3) Nighttime temperatures rarely drop below the dew point temperature because at saturation,latent heat of condensation is released into the air.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____________________ represents the water vapor density (mass/ volume)in a parcel of air,and normally,is expressed as grams of water vapor in a cubic meter of air.
Q5) When the air temperature increases,the saturation vapor pressure decreases.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Condensation Dew Fog and Clouds
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Q1) A low,lumpy cloud layer that appears in rows,patches,or rounded masses would be classified as
A)nimbostratus.
B)stratus.
C)altocumulus.
D)stratocumulus.
E)cirrostratus.
Q2) The process of water vapor changing directly to ice without becoming a liquid first is called ____________________.
Q3) Outline the historic development of the cloud classification system used today.
Q4) These types of clouds make the Sun appear as a dimly visible round disk.
A)altocumulus
B)cirrostratus
C)altostratus
D)cirrocumulus
E)cirrus
Q5) Steam fog poses a threat to humans with respiratory problems.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Oils,gasoline,and paraffins are examples of ____________________ nuclei.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Stability and Cloud Development
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Q1) Cirrostratus,altostratus,nimbostratus,and stratus clouds are associated with stable atmospheric conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In an air parcel the average speed of the molecules is directly related to the air ____________________,and the molecules colliding against the parcel walls determine the air ____________________ inside.
Q3) An example of orographic clouds would be A)cumulus clouds produced by surface heating.
B)rotor clouds.
C)lee-wave clouds.
D)clouds that form on the upwind slope of a mountain.
E)pileus clouds.
Q4) When the environmental lapse rate exceeds the dry adiabatic rate,the lapse rate is called ____________________.
Q5) Explain why a rising parcel of air expands and cools,while a sinking parcel is compressed and warms.
Q6) Describe the conditions required to change a layer of altostratus into a layer of altocumulus.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Precipitation
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Q1) The main difference between a cloud drop and a raindrop is its A)color.
B)size.
C)shape.
D)nucleus type.
E)associated precipitation type.
Q2) In the beginning of a rain storm you might experience large,heavy raindrops.Explain why these occur first,and where they originated.
Q3) Would you expect the heaviest snowfall to occur on an unusually cold night or a night when the temperature was just a little below freezing?
Q4) A supercooled cloud droplet is
A)an ice crystal surrounded by air warmer than 0°C (32°F).
B)a liquid droplet that is cooler than the air around it.
C)a liquid droplets observed at temperatures below 0°C (32°F).
D)a water droplet that has had all its latent heat removed.
E)another term for ice crystal.
Q5) After a rainstorm,visibility typically deteriorates.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Air Pressure and Winds
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Q1) On a sunny day,an aneroid barometer would indicate "____" weather when carried to the top of a hill or mountain.
A)fair
B)sunny
C)cold
D)wet
E)stormy
Q2) Lines connecting points of equal pressure are called A)isobars.
B)millibars.
C)contours.
D)isotherms.
E)a coordinate grid.
Q3) On an isobaric weather chart,the spacing of the height contours indicates the magnitude of the pressure gradient force.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If Earth did not rotate,the wind would blow directly from regions of ____________________ pressure toward regions of ____________________ pressure.
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Chapter 9: Wind Small Scale and Local Systems
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Q1) What is a serious hazard to aircraft?
A)molecular viscosity
B)laminar flow
C)clear-air turbulence
D)longwaves in the westerlies
E)thermal lows
Q2) Surface winds are generally strongest and most gusty
A)in the afternoon.
B)in the early morning.
C)around midnight.
D)just after sunset.
E)just before sunrise.
Q3) An ideal setting for a katabatic wind is
A)a valley that is near a large river.
B)a canyon that flows into the sea.
C)a large elevated lake with a forest nearby.
D)an area where the land and the shore meet.
E)an elevated plateau surrounded by mountains with a nearby downhill slope.
Q4) A simple way to obtain wind data above the surface is with a(n)____________________.
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Chapter 10: Wind Global Systems
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Q1) During the negative cold phase of the Arctic Oscillation,when Greenland is experiencing mild winters,northern Europe usually experiences ____ winters.
A)mild
B)warm
C)wet
D)snowy
E)cold
Q2) Over the North Pacific Ocean,periodic changes in surface water temperature can influence weather along the west coast of North America for much longer periods of time than El Nino and La Nina.These changes are called the
Q3) During the warm (or positive)phase of the Pacific Decadal Oscillation,unusually cold surface water exists along the west coast of North America,whereas over the central North Pacific,warmer-than-normal surface water prevails.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How does El Niño change the weather where you live?
Q5) The Southern Hemisphere has ____________________ semipermanent lows than the Northern Hemisphere.
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Chapter 11: Air Masses and Fronts
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Q1) Maritime Tropical (mT)air masses are responsible for daily afternoon thunderstorms along the Gulf Coast.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lake-effect snows are snowstorms that form on the ____ side of a large lake.
A)north
B)east
C)upwind
D)west
E)downwind
Q3) What type of air mass would be responsible for refreshing cool,dry breezes after a long summer hot spell in the Central Plains?
A)mP
B)mT
C)cP
D)cT
E)mA
Q4) At the surface,occluded fronts are always followed by colder air.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Middle Latitude Cyclones
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Q1) Jet streaks often occur away from jet streams.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the polar front theory of a developing wave cyclone,energy for the storm is usually derived from an increase in surface winds,rising of warm air and sinking of cold air,and latent heat of condensation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Northeasters (or nor'easters)are midlatitude storms commonly found along
A)the Pacific coast of North America.
B)the Atlantic coast of North America.
C)the Gulf coast of North America.
D)both the Pacific and Atlantic coasts of North America.
E)the Pacific coast of both North and South America.
Q4) What type of clouds indicate that a storm is still developing and intensifying?
A)cumulus
B)stratus
C)period
D)semicolon
E)comma
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Weather Forecasting
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Q1) Suppose a computer model uses more closely spaced grid points and a greater number of data points,and thus has better resolution.What would this model be particularly useful in forecasting?
A)large scale winds
B)a vorticity maximum
C)longwave directions
D)temperatures at the surface
E)the relative position of highs and lows
Q2) Predicting the weather by weather types employs which forecasting method?
A)probability
B)steady-state
C)analog
D)persistence
E)guess
Q3) Given a map with isallobars,high pressure systems tend to move where the isallobars indicate ____________________ values,and low pressure systems move where the isallobars are ____________________.
Q4) The analog method is often referred to as ____________________.
Q5) Describe the difference between persistence and steady-state forecasts.
Q6) Predicting the weather by weather types employs the ____________________.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Thunderstorms
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Q1) A thunderstorm is a storm containing ____________________ and ____________________.
Q2) ____ lightning looks like a luminous sphere,often about the size of a football,that appears to float in the air or slowly dart about for several seconds
A)Ball
B)Bead
C)Ribbon
D)Forked
E)St.Elmo's
Q3) Thunder will not occur
A)without lightning.
B)in wintertime thunderstorms.
C)in thunderstorms over the ocean.
D)when a thunderstorm is producing precipitation.
E)in thunderstorms without precipitation.
Q4) What is a squall line? Where would you expect squall lines to form?
Q5) Sinking air warms,yet the downdrafts in a thunderstorm are usually cold.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A sound occasionally mistaken for thunder is the ____________________.
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Chapter 15:Tornadoes
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Q1) The final stage of a tornado's life cycle is called the shrinking stage,when usually the tornado stretches into the shape of a rope.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How is a forward-flank downdraft produced?
Q3) In which of the following states has a tornado never occurred?
A)Alaska
B)Hawaii
C)Maine
D)North Dakota
E)tornadoes have occurred in every state
Q4) When the rear-flank downdraft strikes the ground,it may interact with the forward-flank downdraft beneath the mesocyclone to initiate _______________.
Q5) A tornado ____________________ is issued once a tornado is spotted,either visually or on a radar screen.
Q6) The final stage of a tornado life cycle is called the ____________________ stage,when usually the tornado is stretched into the shape of a rope.
Q7) Give a basic description of a tornado outbreak.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Hurricanes
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Q1) Because of the conservation of angular momentum,air spiraling inward toward the center of a hurricane ____________________ in speed.
Q2) The ____________________ is an abnormal rise of several meters in the ocean level-which inundates low-lying areas and turns beachfront homes into piles of splinters.It is particularly damaging when it coincides with normal high tides.
Q3) As surface air rushes in toward the eye of a hurricane,the air expands and should cool.The main reason the surface air is not cooler around the eye is because
A)the sinking air near the eye warms the air.
B)friction with the water adds heat to the air.
C)the warm water heats the air.
D)sunlight heats the air.
E)the spinning motion prevents air from rising or sinking.
Q4) From 1953 to 1977,only ____________________ names were used when naming hurricanes.
Q5) The ocean surface water temperature is usually cooler after the passage of a hurricane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Earths Changing Climate
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Q1) Which climate type normally has the largest annual range in temperature?
A)tropical climates
B)humid-subtropical climates
C)polar ice cap climates
D)subpolar climates
E)dry climates
Q2) The term monsoon refers to
A)the short summer rainy season observed in some locations
B)a short dry season
C)a period of heavy rainfall produced by thunderstorms
D)a seasonal reversal of winds
E)a massive storm that starts in the ocean and sometimes hits land
Q3) Discuss annual precipitation amounts and distribution in humid subtropical climates.
Q4) Explain how the American climatologist,C.Warren Thornthwaite,devised a classification system to correct some of the deficiencies in the Köppen classification system.
Q5) The annual ____________________ that each latitude receives decreases from low to high latitude.
Page 19
Q6) Why might you hear the remark that winter comes to the tropics at night?
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Chapter 18: Global Climate
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Q1) A theory ascribing climatic changes to variations in Earth's orbit is the Theory of Plate Tectonics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The water vapor-greenhouse feedback represents a ____ feedback mechanism.
A)neutral
B)positive
C)directional
D)negative
E)balanced
Q3) If Earth were in a warming trend,which of the processes below would most likely act as a negative feedback mechanism?
A)increasing the water vapor content of the air
B)increasing the snow cover around the Earth
C)decreasing the amount of low stratified cloud cover around the globe
D)increasing the carbon dioxide content of the air
E)decreasing the snow cover in middle and high latitudes
Q4) The ____________________ ratios of calcium carbonate shells have provided information about the sequence of glacier advances.
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Chapter 19: Air Pollution
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Q1) Describe why cities are generally warmer than surrounding rural areas.
Q2) Explain what is meant by the term "Waldsterben".
Q3) Atmospheric stagnation is a condition normally brought on by ____.
A)gusty winds behind a cold front
B)light winds and poor vertical mixing
C)overcast skies
D)tall buildings in a city
E)movement of an upper level trough overhead
Q4) The stability of the atmosphere is determined by the way the air temperature changes with height,which is known as the ____.
A)inversion rate
B)mixing layer
C)mixing depth
D)lapse rate
E)stabilizing rate
Q5) When particles and gases are removed from the air during the formation of cloud particles and then carried to the ground in rain and snow,it is called____________________deposition.
Q6) 98What is atmospheric stagnation and when might it occur?
Page 21
Q7) The main component of photochemical smog is the gas____________________.
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Chapter 20: Light Color and Atmospheric Optics
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Q1) Light that travels from a less-dense to a more-dense medium ____ speed and bends ____ the normal.
A)gains;toward B)loses;toward C)gains;away D)loses;away E)gains;either toward or away
Q2) If a person sees a rainbow in the morning,they are facing west,toward the rain shower,and it is likely that the clouds and showers will move away from them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A whitish halo around the Sun,or a bright sheen visible in a nearby layer of thin clouds,is often the result of Mie scattering.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe how,when,and where Sun pillars are formed.
Q5) When a star appears to twinkle or flicker,it is a condition called
Q6) Selective scattering is also known as ____________________.
Page 22
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