Physical Examination for Allied Health Professionals Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
This course provides allied health professionals with the foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary to perform comprehensive physical examinations across various patient populations. Emphasizing a structured, systematic approach, the curriculum covers inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation of body systems, while integrating relevant anatomy, physiology, and communication techniques. Students will learn to identify normal and abnormal physical findings, interpret results within clinical contexts, and document assessments appropriately. Through interactive lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on practice, participants gain confidence and proficiency in conducting safe, effective, and patient-centered physical assessments essential for their roles in multidisciplinary healthcare teams.
Recommended Textbook
Health Assessment and Physical Examination 5th Edition by Mary Ellen Zator Estes
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27 Chapters
1242 Verified Questions
1242 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Critical Thinking And The Nursing Process
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______________________ are planned strategies based on scientific rationale and devised by the nurse to assist the patient in meeting the patient outcomes.
Answer: Interventions
Rationale: When appropriate,the patient,family,and significant others can assist in planning the interventions.Patients are more likely to be motivated and follow the interventions if they have been involved in the decision-making process.Every patient outcome has its own interventions.When appropriate,a frequency is included for each intervention,such as "turn every 2 hours."
Explanation:When appropriate, the patient, family, and significant others can assist in planning the interventions.Patients are more likely to be motivated and follow the interventions if they have been involved in the decision-making process.Every patient outcome has its own interventions.When appropriate, a frequency is included for each intervention, such as "turn every 2 hours."
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3
Chapter 2: Communication Techniques And The Patient
Interview
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The statement "Everything will be fine," made by a nurse to parents of an infant being prepared for surgery will most likely
A) decrease the parents' anxiety.
B) reassure the parents.
C) communicate the nurse's understanding and concern.
D) relieve the nurse's anxiety.
Answer: D
Q2) In an interview with a patient who is visually impaired,it is important for the nurse to A) speak loudly and distinctly.
B) touch the patient frequently to emphasize the nurse's presence.
C) use a tone of voice, volume, and inflection appropriate to the message.
D) use simple phrases and closed questions.
Answer: C
Q3) Patients often respond to questions that begin with the word why by
A) sharing important and useful information.
B) trying to explain or defend themselves.
C) establishing a closer relationship with the nurse.
D) becoming confused.
Answer: B
4
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Chapter 3: The Complete Health History Including Documentation
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genogram and a list of familial diseases would be documented in the ________________________ section of the health history.
Answer: family health history family health history
Rationale: The family health history records the health status of the patient as well as immediate blood relatives.At a minimum,the history needs to contain the age and health status of the patient,spouse,children,siblings,and the patient's parents.Documentation of this information is done in a genogram.The second component of the family health history is the report of familial or genetic diseases.
Explanation:The family health history records the health status of the patient as well as immediate blood relatives.At a minimum, the history needs to contain the age and health status of the patient, spouse, children, siblings, and the patient's parents.Documentation of this information is done in a genogram.The second component of the family health history is the report of familial or genetic diseases.
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Chapter 4: Developmental Assessment
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ages and stages developmental theories are based on which premise?
A) Development occurs in response to specific life events and transitions that require adaptive, coping behavior and involve changes in one's life patterns.
B) People experience much the same sequential physical, cognitive, socioemotional, and moral changes during the same age periods or developmental states.
C) Human behavior is motivated by internal psychodynamic forces and external factors such as cultural orientation, socioeconomic status, and the number and intensity of life events.
D) Development occurs as a result of stress associated with life events or transitions that serve as an impetus for growth.
Q2) Developmental tasks of the preschool child (3 to 6 years)include developing
A) a sense of initiative and purpose.
B) a sense of basic trust.
C) the ability to tolerate delayed gratification.
D) the ability to tolerate separation from parents.
Q3) One of the major tasks of infancy is ___________________,which requires children to give up the breast or bottle,a major source of gratification.
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Chapter 5: Cultural Assessment
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dubin-Johnson syndrome is a genetic trait or disorder characteristic of which of the following cultural groups?
A) Iranians
B) Mexicans
C) Navajo Indians
D) French Canadians
Q2) The bidirectional translation process is one method of determining the cultural meaning that a patient attaches to his symptoms.It involves
A) asking health care team members to express their interpretation of the meaning of the patient's symptoms.
B) obtaining validation from the patient on the accuracy of your restatement of his description of symptoms and the inferred meaning.
C) obtaining interpretations of the meaning of the patient's symptoms from the patient's primary nurse.
D) using a culturally sensitive interpreter who is fluent in health care terminology when speaking with the patient about his symptoms.
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Chapter 6: Spiritual Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Muslim who believes in Allah and worships Allah in accordance with Islamic teachings and whose belief in Allah is manifested in thoughts and actions is considered to be
A) a religious person.
B) a spiritual person.
C) both spiritual and religious.
D) an Imam.
Q2) According to Islamic beliefs,as a person nears death,the phrase "There is no God but Allah,and Mohammed is His Prophet," is repeated by one or more relatives and friends who
A) quietly chant in unison at the patient's bedside.
B) pour holy water into the mouth of the dying person.
C) silently pray on their knees at the patient's bedside.
D) whisper the words into the patient's ear.
Q3) An individual who is unsure that God exists is called a(n)
A) agnostic.
B) atheist.
C) heretic.
D) pagan.
Q4) An individual who is unsure that God exists is called a(n)____________________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Nutritional Assessment
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55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is working with parents of a 6-month-old baby.Both are extremely neat and have talked about the difficult adjustment the baby has brought to their orderly and scheduled lives.In providing anticipatory guidance,the nurse will talk about what it will be like when the child wants to eat semisolid foods.The nurse's most important focus will be
A) how messy the child will be during feeding time.
B) ways to keep mealtime messes to a minimum.
C) the parents' psychological needs and support of each other during this time.
D) the child's need to increase autonomy and the importance of self-feeding.
Q2) The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that infants receive breast milk instead of formula feedings for the first ___________________ months of life.
Q3) Which snack is appropriate for a 2-year-old?
A) banana, crackers
B) celery, carrot sticks
C) half of a hot dog
D) peanuts, popcorn
Q4) The most common nutrient deficiency in the world is lack of ___________________.
Q5) Folic acid,when taken as a prenatal nutritional supplement,is given to reduce the risk of ___________________ defects.
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Chapter 8: Physical Examination Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important infection control practice for the health care provider to follow is
A) environmental control.
B) hand hygiene.
C) wearing gloves.
D) wearing a gown, mask, and eye protection.
Q2) You are using deep palpation to examine a patient's abdomen.At which depth would you palpate?
A) 1-2 cm
B) 2-3 cm
C) 4-5 cm
D) 6-8 cm
Q3) A percussion sound that is loud in intensity,moderate to long in duration,low in pitch,and hollow in quality is resonance.Which of the following is an example of where this is heard in the body?
A) gastric air bubble
B) healthy lung tissue
C) over organs (liver)
D) over muscle
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Chapter 9: General Survey, vital Signs, and Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are conducting a general assessment of a 6-years-old child.While the child is sitting on the examination table you assess his respiratory rate.You would begin by A) first informing him of what you are doing.
B) counting the number of respirations in 15 seconds and multiplying by 2.
C) counting the respirations while measuring his pulse.
D) placing the stethoscope on his chest so he does not know you are counting respirations.
Q2) To assess a patient's apical pulse,the nurse would locate the apical pulse site and A) gently palpate with the first three fingers for the pulsations.
B) press firmly with all five fingers, because the pulsations are difficult to locate at this site.
C) place the diaphragm of the stethoscope over the pulse site and listen for the heartbeat.
D) palpate the radial pulse while listening to the apical rate with the stethoscope.
Q3) An apical pulse rate greater than the radial pulse rate is called ____________________.
Q4) A weak,thready pulse can be caused by ____________________ shock.
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11
Chapter 10: Skin, hair, and Nails
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nodule is an example of which type of lesion?
A) nonpalpable
B) palpable
C) secondary
D) tertiary
Q2) A nursing student informs you that the examination revealed ecchymoses on the face,breasts,and buttocks of a 14-year-old patient.Your best response is to inform the student that these findings are most likely related to which of the following?
A) liver dysfunction
B) heparin or Coumadin use
C) trauma from physical abuse
D) familial blood condition
Q3) When performing an examination of skin,hair,and nails,you should enhance your visual inspection by using a magnifying glass and the best source of light,which is A) daylight.
B) fluorescent light.
C) incandescent light.
D) a flashlight.
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12
Chapter 11: Head, neck, and Regional Lymph Nodes
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An enlargement of the head without enlargement of the facial structures is known as A) acromegaly.
B) craniosynostosis.
C) craniotabes.
D) hydrocephalus.
Q2) A(n)_____________________ headache is an example of a vascular headache.
Q3) The nurse is examining a patient and notes enlarged thyroid glands.What should the nurse do next?
A) Contact the physician immediately.
B) Auscultate for bruits over the thyroid.
C) Inform the charge nurse of the findings.
D) Encourage the patient to lay in a semi-Fowler's position.
Q4) Individuals most at risk for thyroid cancer are which of the following?
A) men age 20-30 years of age
B) women age 20-30 years of age
C) men age 40-50 years of age
D) women age 40-50 years of age
Q5) Palpation of the lymph nodes reveals firm,nontender,and fixed lymph nodes.This is suggestive of ____________________ lymphomas.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Eyes
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53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The opaque material covering the structures inside the eye is called the A) iris.
B) lens.
C) pupil.
D) sclera.
Q2) Edema of the optic disk and elevation of the disc surface without loss of vision is called
A) a choked disk, or papilledema.
B) glaucoma.
C) neovascularization.
D) Roth's spots.
Q3) A heavily pigmented,slightly elevated area visible in the iris is commonly caused by which of the following?
A) benign iris nevus
B) hyphema caused by bleeding in the iris
C) iridectomy
D) trauma to the iris during cataract surgery
Q4) A patient having difficulty reading from a book at a distance of 14 inches has ____________________.
Q5) Lacrimal glands produce ____________________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Ears, nose, mouth, and Throat
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Sample Questions
Q1) To evaluate transillumination of a patient's maxillary sinuses,you would place a strong light source under each eye and then observe the red glow
A) in her ear canal.
B) in her nose.
C) on the hard palate in her mouth.
D) over her sinuses.
Q2) The structures of the nose protect the lungs from noxious agents by doing all of the following,EXCEPT
A) filtering.
B) humidifying.
C) controlling temperature.
D) killing bacteria.
Q3) What are the three tiny bones of the ossicles? Select all that apply.
A) Incus
B) Stapes
C) Stapedius
D) Malleus
E) Tensor tympani
F) Tympanic membrane
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Breasts And Regional Nodes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normal findings upon examining the breasts of a patient who has undergone breast augmentation are
A) breast tenderness.
B) firm tissue remaining erect when the patient is supine.
C) decreased nipple and skin sensation.
D) incision sites on the anterior and lateral aspects of the breasts.
Q2) Which finding obtained from the health history of a 40-year-old female is most likely linked to an increased risk for breast cancer?
A) patient treated surgically for a pituitary tumor
B) brother diagnosed with gynecomastia
C) grandmother diagnosed with breast cancer
D) menarche at age 16
Q3) Findings upon palpation of lymph nodes that are indicative of a systemic infection include which of the following?
A) fixed firm, immobile, irregular nodes
B) enlarged nodes less than 1 cm in diameter
C) enlarged, nontender, firm nodes
D) enlarged, tender, or painful nodes that are matted together
Q4) The pigmented area surrounding the nipple is called the
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Chapter 15: Thorax And Lungs
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Sample Questions
Q1) To properly examine the respiratory rate,you should
A) first explain to the patient what you are doing.
B) count the number of respiratory cycles for one full minute.
C) first ask the patient to take several deep breaths through the mouth.
D) place your stethoscope over the patient's right lung and count the number of respiratory cycles for one full minute.
Q2) Using the recommended approach,you should conduct your examination from the right anterior thorax at the apex of the lung for comparison with the
A) right anterior thorax at the base.
B) left anterior thorax at the apex.
C) right posterior thorax at the apex.
D) left lateral thorax at the apex.
Q3) To determine a patient's costal angle,you should visually estimate the angle formed by the
A) articulation of the manubrium and body of the sternum; it is continuous with the second rib.
B) costal ribs and the vertebrae.
C) right and left costal margins where they meet at the xiphoid process.
D) vertebrosternal ribs during inhalation.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) When taking a past health history on a 64-year-old male scheduled for a cardiac catheterization that afternoon,which of the following is a priority for the nurse to report?
A) currently taking an antilipemic for hypercholesterolemia
B) allergic to iodine-containing substances such as shellfish
C) had rheumatic fever as a child
D) had two broken ribs from a fall off a ladder 15 years ago
Q2) When palpating the cardiac landmarks,you should examine for the presence of a thrill,which is best examined using the
A) palmar surface of the hand at the base of the fingers.
B) finger pads of all five fingers.
C) ulnar aspect of a closed fist.
D) fingertips along with a stethoscope as a guide.
Q3) An S<sub>4</sub> is best described as
A) an early diastolic filling sound associated with rapid ventricular filling.
B) a rumbling or blowing sound heard throughout systole.
C) a high-pitched clicking sound occurring early in diastole.
D) a late diastolic filling sound associated with atrial contraction.
Q4) The visceral layer,a serous layer that lies against the heart,is also called the ____________________.
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Chapter 17: Peripheral Vasculature And Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to bone marrow,the other primary organ of the lymphatic system is which of the following?
A) spleen
B) appendix
C) lymph nodes
D) thymus gland
Q2) The central venous pressure (CVP)of a patient positioned supine at a 45° angle with a jugular venous pressure (JVP)of 3 is
A) 2 cm.
B) 5 cm.
C) 8 cm.
D) 15 cm.
Q3) You plan to inspect and palpate your patient's epitrochlear lymph nodes.You would ask the patient to assume which of the following positions?
A) supine
B) prone
C) sitting
D) standing
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19
Chapter 18: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) A scaphoid abdomen is characterized as a(n)
A) convex symmetrical profile, with maximum height of the abdomen at the umbilicus.
B) convex contour with taut stretching of skin over the abdominal wall.
C) concave symmetrical profile possibly due to flaccid muscles.
D) asymmetrical profile, possibly indicating the presence of a tumor or a bowel obstruction.
Q2) The nurse is evaluating the pain complaints of four clients.Which client does the nurse report to the primary care provider as indicative of peptic ulcer disease?
A) right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain radiating to the right shoulder
B) low, colicky abdominal pain
C) a gnawing epigastric pain relieved by food
D) left upper quadrant (LUQ) pain that radiates to the back
Q3) Which of the following is cause for concern when palpating the inguinal lymph nodes?
A) small, movable nodes
B) a 0.75 cm palpable node
C) nonmovable nodes
D) nontender nodes
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Chapter 19: Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elementary school nurse is performing an annual screening on a child.The child is asked to bend forward from the waist and touch her toes.What disorder is characterized by lateral curvature of the spine in this position?
A) list
B) kyphosis
C) lordosis
D) scoliosis
Q2) A patient experiences a spasm of her facial muscles in response to a light tap over the facial nerve below the temple.This finding most likely indicates
A) temporomandibular joint dysfunction.
B) neuroexcitability associated with hypocalcemia.
C) increased risk for developing epilepsy.
D) compression of the facial nerve.
Q3) In addition to pain and decreased perfusion,manifestations of neurovascular deterioration include
A) pallor, paresthesia, and paralysis.
B) paresis, pulselessness, and polyneuralgia.
C) paralysis, polyneuralgia, and pruritus.
D) paresthesia, paresis, and pallor.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Mental Status And Neurological Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which neurological condition develops most frequently in females 20 to 40 years of age?
A) cluster headaches
B) Parkinson's disease
C) multiple sclerosis
D) Huntington's chorea
Q2) An abnormal emotional state characterized by feelings of sadness,despair,and discouragement describes
A) dementia.
B) depression.
C) delirium.
D) acute confusion.
Q3) After completing the assessment of a patient for light touch and pain,you record your findings of bilateral lower-extremity hypesthesia and hypalgesia,which indicate A) absence of touch sensation and absence of sensation to pain.
B) diminished sense of touch and pain sensitivity.
C) increased sensitivity to touch and pain.
D) tingling and burning sensations.
Q4) The subdural space is located below the ____________________.
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Chapter 21: Female Genitalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is admitting a patient with vaginal cancer.Which of the following questions should the nurse ask to elicit the most likely causative factor?
A) "Have you been treated for infertility?"
B) "Did you experience your first menses before the age of 11 years?"
C) "Have you ever taken tamoxifen?"
D) "Did your mother take diethylstilbestrol (DES) during pregnancy?"
Q2) To assess a patient for the risk factors of cervical cancer,you would ask if she has a history of
A) breast cancer.
B) human papillomavirus.
C) infertility.
D) her mother taking diethylstilbestrol during pregnancy.
Q3) Your patient's cervicovaginal culture report indicated a large number of Gram-negative diplococci organisms,which is consistent with A) Candida albicans.
B) Chlamydia trachomatis.
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
D) Trichomonas vaginalis.
Q4) Menstrual blood does not clot,because it lacks ____________________.
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Chapter 22: Male Genitalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The FDA licensed the HPV vaccine,HPV4,for use in males aged 9 through 26 years for prevention of which of the following?
A) herpes
B) genital warts
C) testicular cancer
D) condyloma acuminatum
Q2) Which patient would be at the highest risk for developing penile cancer?
A) 30-year-old sexually active circumcised male with a history of HPV type 15
B) 75-year-old sexually active circumcised male
C) 40-year-old uncircumcised male who is not sexually active
D) 55-year-old sexually active uncircumcised male
Q3) Your patient complains of burning on urination and a white-mucoid urethral discharge.Which information is needed to further assess his apparent infection?
A) Have you had a new sexual partner in the past 6 months?
B) Have you recently or have you ever had the mumps?
C) Has anyone in your family had testicular cancer?
D) Have you recently had an accident inducing trauma to your genitalia?
Q4) Sperm production occurs at approximately age ____________________.
Q5) The testicles are suspended by the ____________________.
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Chapter 23: Anus, rectum, and Prostate
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Q1) Which condition typically causes a mucoid or creamy rectal exudate occasionally accompanied by blood?
A) Crohn's disease
B) condyloma acuminatum
C) gonococcal proctitis
D) herpes simplex virus
Q2) Which of the following are true of the prostate? Select all that apply.
A) Drains into the urethra
B) Consists of glandular tissue and muscle
C) Is controlled by parasympathetic reflex signals
D) Is formed by skeletal muscle
E) Encircles the urethra like a doughnut
F) Produces semen
Q3) Which lobes of the prostate gland are most accessible to examination?
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) lateral
D) median
Q4) The function of the Houston's valves are to retain ____________________.
Q5) Rectal polyps are most often diagnosed by ____________________.
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Chapter 24: The Pregnant Patient
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Q1) According to the recommendations of the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists,prenatal visits should be scheduled every 2 weeks from
A) 6 to 28 weeks' gestation.
B) 28 to 36 weeks' gestation.
C) 32 to 38 weeks' gestation.
D) 36 weeks' until delivery.
Q2) At 16 weeks in a pregnancy,the fundus of the uterus is palpated approximately
A) at the umbilicus.
B) just above the symphysis pubis.
C) midway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus.
D) midway between the umbilicus and xiphoid process.
Q3) Which of the following could indicate a compromised fetus?
A) decrease in fetal movement during the ninth month
B) fluttering movements at 20 weeks
C) no fetal movement by 12 weeks
D) a fetal heart rate of 155
Q4) Melasma,or chloasma,is better known as the _____________________.
Q5) Braxton Hicks contractions can begin in the ____________________ trimester.
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Chapter 25: The Pediatric Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) The recommended technique for palpating the liver in a toddler is to use the
A) ulnar surface of the hand to press down and then upward at the right upper quadrant.
B) tips of two fingers to press inward along the right costal margin.
C) outer edge of the right thumb to press down and scoop up at the right upper quadrant.
D) palmar surface of your right hand placed parallel to the right costal margin.
Q2) An infant weighing 6 pounds at birth should weigh at least
A) 12 pounds at 6 months.
B) 15 pounds at 12 months.
C) 18 pounds at 18 months.
D) 30 pounds at 2.5 years.
Q3) Strategies for increasing patient cooperation include all of the following,EXCEPT
A) demonstrating procedures on a doll, stuffed toy, or the caregiver.
B) humming, whistling, or using small toys to distract the child.
C) playing games to decrease anxiety and establish trust.
D) insisting on the patient's obedience.
Q4) A cleft palate that involves the uvula,soft palate,hard palate,or a combination,is classified as a(n)____________________ malformation.
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Chapter 26: The Older Adult Patient
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Q1) A 73-year-old patient has just undergone a colostomy for cancer of the colon.The patient tells the nurse the pain is "8" on a scale of 1 to 10.Which of the following is the expected outcome of the nursing care for this patient?
A) The patient states the pain is "4" on a scale of 0 to 10.
B) The patient verbalizes satisfaction with the level of pain and pain control.
C) The patient does not ask for pain medication.
D) The patient self-medicates with an over-the-counter medication.
Q2) An ethnic older adult may experience a loss of self-worth when the nurse
A) informs the patient about ethnic support services.
B) allows a patient to rely on ethnic health beliefs and practices.
C) has to use an interpreter to provide explanations and teaching.
D) emphasizes that a therapeutic diet does not allow ethnic foods.
Q3) A 93-year-old patient has been functioning independently in the home but has suddenly become confused.A family member asks the nurse,"Does this mean Dad has Alzheimer's disease?" Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
A) "Your father will have to be monitored over time."
B) "It is very likely your father has Alzheimer's disease."
C) "Why do you think your father has dementia?"
D) "Confusion can be a sign of an infection in an older adult."
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Chapter 27: The Complete Health History And Physical Examination
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11888
Sample Questions
Q1) A provider-generated list of health problems that assists in documenting your health history is called a(n)____________________.
Q2) At the completion of the physical assessment,you should discuss future plans and answer any questions the patient may have after
A) assisting the patient to a sitting position.
B) documenting your findings.
C) formulating a nursing care plan.
D) providing adequate time for the patient to redress.
Q3) The breast examination occurs when the patient is in the _____ position(s).
A) Sims'
B) standing
C) knee-elbow
D) sitting and supine
Q4) Patients now commonly use computers for all of the following,EXCEPT
A) scheduling appointments.
B) receiving confidential test results.
C) submitting questions to health care providers.
D) forwarding physical examination data to health care providers.
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