Physical Education Methods Midterm Exam - 359 Verified Questions

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Physical Education Methods

Midterm Exam

Course Introduction

This course explores effective strategies and pedagogical approaches for teaching physical education in various educational settings. Students will examine curriculum development, lesson planning, and assessment methods tailored for diverse student populations. Emphasis is placed on implementing age-appropriate activities, fostering inclusive environments, promoting lifelong fitness, and understanding the role of physical activity in overall well-being. Through both theoretical study and practical experience, learners will gain the skills necessary to design and deliver engaging physical education programs that support motor development, teamwork, and healthy lifestyles.

Recommended Textbook

Clinical Kinesiology and Anatomy 6th Edition by Lynn S. Lippert PT MS

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22 Chapters

359 Verified Questions

359 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Basic Information

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Sample Questions

Q1) In moving from anatomical position into fundamental position,the forearm moves into

A) pronation.

B) supination.

C) inversion.

D) eversion.

Answer: A

Q2) Sliding your foot under your chair to prepare to stand involves knee

A) flexion.

B) extension.

C) inversion.

D) abduction.

Answer: A

Q3) When a condition involves both of the legs,which of the following terms best describes this situation?

A) Unilateral

B) Ipsilateral

C) Bilateral

D) Contralateral

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Skeletal System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The structure of the bone where growth occurs is the A) diaphysis.

B) medullary canal.

C) endosteum.

D) epiphyseal plate.

Answer: D

Q2) How many bones make up the human skeleton?

A) 80

B) 126

C) 206

D) 217

Answer: C

Q3) Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?

A) Gives shape and support

B) Protects vital organs

C) Manufactures blood cells

D) All of the above

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Articular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The hip is an example of which type of joint?

A) Nonaxial

B) Uniaxial

C) Biaxial

D) Triaxial

Answer: D

Q2) Which of the following statements is true of a ligament?

A) They provide support to a joint.

B) They can serve as an attachment for cartilage.

C) They can serve as an attachment for fascia.

D) All of the above are true of a ligament.

Answer: D

Q3) Joints serve which of the following functions?

A) Bear weight and provide stability

B) Allow motion

C) Contain fluid that lubricates and nourishes the cartilage

D) All of the above

Answer: D

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5

Chapter 4: Arthrokinematics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The type of arthrokinematic motion characterized by rotation of one surface on a fixed adjacent surface is called

A) roll.

B) spin.

C) glide.

D) Any of the above

Q2) Motions occurring within the joint that are necessary for joint motion but are not under voluntary control are called

A) osteokinematic movement.

B) accessory movement.

C) springy block.

D) manipulation.

Q3) The type of arthrokinematic motion characterized by linear movement of a joint surface parallel to the plane of the adjoining joint surface is which of the following?

A) Roll

B) Spin

C) Glide

D) Shear

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Chapter 5: Muscular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ability of a muscle to respond to a stimulus is referred to as which of the following?

A) Irritability

B) Contractility

C) Extensibility

D) Elasticity

Q2) Which of the following is a true statement regarding oblique muscle fibers?

A) Oblique muscle fibers tend to be longer than parallel fibers,thus having more strength potential than parallel fibers.

B) Oblique muscle fibers tend to be longer than parallel fibers,thus having less strength potential than parallel fibers.

C) Oblique muscle fibers tend to be shorter than parallel fibers,thus having more strength potential than parallel fibers.

D) Oblique muscle fibers tend to be shorter than parallel fibers,thus having less strength potential than parallel fibers.

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7

Chapter 6: Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nerve plexus formed by the rami of C5 through T1 is called the

A) cervical plexus.

B) brachial plexus.

C) thoracic plexus.

D) lumbosacral plexus.

Q2) A person experiencing "foot drop" has damage to which of the following nerves?

A) Radial nerve

B) Median nerve

C) Femoral nerve

D) Common peroneal nerve

Q3) A person with weakness of knee extension has damage to which of the following nerves?

A) Radial nerve

B) Median nerve

C) Femoral nerve

D) Common peroneal nerve

Q4) The "stress-response" and stimulation part of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)is the sympathetic nervous system.

A)True

B)False

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Circulatory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A circulatory pathology characterized by inflammation of a vein is which of the following?

A) Aneurysm

B) Phlebitis

C) Embolism

D) Occlusion

Q2) The lymphatic system functions to do all of the following EXCEPT

A) collect extracellular fluid.

B) filter bacteria and waste products.

C) exchange carbon dioxide for oxygen.

D) assist to maintain adequate blood volume and pressure.

Q3) The main branch artery that supplies blood to the knee is which of the following?

A) External iliac

B) Femoral

C) Posterior tibial

D) Popliteal

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Chapter 8: Basic Biomechanics

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are working with a client to regain function after shoulder surgery.Now you want to focus on exercises to increase power.You would choose which of the following exercises?

A) Concentric strengthening

B) Eccentric strengthening

C) Stretches

D) It doesn't matter; any of the above will help increase power.

Q2) The reason that a large-handled object is easier to turn is that the mechanical advantage is larger.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In order to increase the challenge of a person working on balance,you could do which of the following?

A) Raise the center of gravity and increase the base of support

B) Raise the center of gravity and decrease the base of support

C) Lower the center of gravity and increase the base of support

D) Lower the center of gravity and decrease the base of support

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Chapter 9: Shoulder Girdle

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Sample Questions

Q1) What motion would the upper trapezius do in a reversal of muscle action?

A) Scapular elevation

B) Scapular depression

C) Head and neck extension

D) Head and neck flexion

Q2) Weakness of the trapezius muscle could indicate trauma to which of the following nerves?

A) Cranial nerve XI

B) Dorsal scapular nerve

C) Long thoracic nerve

D) Medial pectoral nerve

Q3) Which muscle originates from the spinous processes of C7-T5 and inserts on the vertebral border of the scapula between the inferior angle and the spine of the scapula?

A) Middle trapezius

B) Rhomboids

C) Teres major

D) Serratus anterior

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Chapter 10: Shoulder Joint

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Sample Questions

Q1) Damage to which of the following nerves could result in weakness of the infraspinatus muscle?

A) Radial nerve

B) Musculocutaneous nerve

C) Axillary nerve

D) Suprascapular nerve

Q2) Which muscle originates on the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula and inserts on the olecranon process of the ulna?

A) Long head of the triceps brachii

B) Lateral head of the triceps brachii

C) Long head of the biceps brachii

D) Short head of the biceps brachii

Q3) The latissimus dorsi,subscapularis,and anterior deltoid have which of the following shoulder motions in common?

A) Medial rotation

B) Lateral rotation

C) Adduction

D) Flexion

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Chapter 11: Elbow Joint

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Sample Questions

Q1) Elbow extension occurs in which plane and through which axis?

A) Transverse plane through a vertical axis

B) Frontal plane through a sagittal axis

C) Sagittal plane through a frontal axis

D) Transverse plane through a transverse axis

Q2) The carrying angle at the elbow exists because of which of the following phenomena at the distal end of the humerus?

A) The lateral structures extend farther distally than the medial structures.

B) The medial structures extend farther distally than the lateral structures.

C) The anterior structures extend farther distally than the posterior structures.

D) The posterior structures extend farther distally than the anterior structures.

Q3) Your patient has point tenderness at the common flexor origin at the elbow.Given this symptom,which diagnosis is likely?

A) Medial epicondylitis

B) Lateral epicondylitis

C) Tendonitis of biceps tendon

D) Volkmann's ischemic contracture

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Chapter 12: Wrist Joint

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which muscle originates on the lateral epicondyle and inserts on the base of the fifth metacarpal?

A) Extensor carpi ulnaris

B) Extensor carpi radialis longus

C) Flexor carpi ulnaris

D) Palmaris longus

Q2) The ligament that attaches to the styloid process of the radius and to the scaphoid and trapezium bones is the

A) radial collateral ligament.

B) ulnar collateral ligament.

C) dorsal radiocarpal ligament.

D) interosseous membrane.

Q3) When teaching a client strengthening exercises for wrist radial deviation,which of the following is the BEST position to place him in to start the exercise?

A) Seated with forearm on table,palm up

B) Seated with forearm on table,palm down

C) Seated with forearm on table,thumb up

D) Seated with forearm on table,thumb down

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Chapter 13: Hand

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of grip is used to hold on to a walker handle?

A) Lumbrical grip

B) Pincer grip

C) Cylindrical grip

D) Spherical grip

Q2) Which carpal bone makes up the floor of the anatomical snuffbox and is the most frequently fractured carpal bone?

A) Capitate

B) Lunate

C) Scaphoid

D) Pisiform

Q3) A person with inflammation in the carpal tunnel could have weakness in any of the following muscles EXCEPT the

A) extensor digitorum.

B) flexor digitorum superficialis.

C) flexor digitorum profundus.

D) abductor pollicis brevis.

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Chapter 14: Temporomandibular Joint

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which prime movers of the TMJ are innervated by the facial nerve?

A) Temporalis

B) Masseter

C) Lateral pterygoid

D) None of the above

Q2) Which muscle originates on the temporal fossa and inserts on the coronoid process and ramus of the mandible?

A) Temporalis

B) Masseter

C) Medial pterygoid

D) Lateral pterygoid

Q3) The bony landmark of the temporal bone that serves as the attachment for the masseter muscle is called the

A) zygomatic process.

B) styloid process.

C) postglenoid tubercle.

D) articular fossa.

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Chapter 15: Neck and Trunk

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Sample Questions

Q1) The erector spinae are prime movers in which of the following motions?

A) Flexion

B) Extension

C) Lateral bend

D) B and C

Q2) The bony landmark of the vertebra that makes up the anterior portion of the neural arch is called the

A) lamina.

B) pedicle.

C) vertebral foramen.

D) spinous process.

Q3) Which is the best position and instruction for a scoliosis client to strengthen lateral benders of the right side of the trunk?

A) Supine,laterally bend to right

B) Prone,laterally bend to left

C) Side-lying over an exercise ball,laterally bend to right

D) Any of the above are equally effective.

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Page 17

Chapter 16: Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) During inspiration,air moves into the lungs due to which of the following explanations?

A) The size of the thoracic cavity decreases,and the air pressure inside decreases.

B) The size of the thoracic cavity increases,and the air pressure inside decreases.

C) Gravity allows it to flow from the nose down into the lungs.

D) None of the above explains why this happens.

Q2) Quiet inspiration requires the use of which of the following?

A) Internal intercostals

B) External intercostals

C) Gravity

D) Recoil of the diaphragm

Q3) You read in a trauma patient's chart that he has rib fractures and a collapsed lung.Another term for collapsed lung is which of the following?

A) Pneumothorax

B) Pneumonia

C) Pleurisy

D) Hyperventilation

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18

Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle

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Sample Questions

Q1) The pelvic force couple that combine to pull the pelvis into an anterior tilt are the

A) hip flexors and trunk flexors.

B) hip flexors and trunk extensors.

C) hip extensors and trunk flexors.

D) hip extensors and trunk extensors.

Q2) A normal finding for a lumbosacral angle would be which of the following?

A) 10 degrees

B) 30 degrees

C) 45 degrees

D) 60 degrees

Q3) An increase in posterior tilt of the pelvis is associated with which of the following motions of the vertebral column?

A) Flexion

B) Hyperextension

C) Lateral bend to the opposite side

D) Rotation to the opposite side

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Chapter 18: Hip Joint

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which muscle originates on the posterior sacrum and ilium and inserts just distal to the greater trochanter?

A) Gluteus maximus

B) Pectineus

C) Iliopsoas

D) Quadratus lumborum

Q2) Which muscle has its distal attachment on the pes anserine with the gracilis and the sartorius?

A) Semitendinosus

B) Adductor magnus

C) Tensor fascia latae

D) Semimembranosus

Q3) The ligament at the hip that lies within the capsule and contributes to the blood supply to the femoral head is called the

A) inguinal ligament.

B) acetabular ligament.

C) ligamentum teres.

D) pubofemoral ligament.

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20

Chapter 19: Knee Joint

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which muscle is responsible for "unlocking" the knee?

A) Popliteus

B) Plantaris

C) Soleus

D) Posterior tibialis

Q2) The ligaments that provide medial and lateral stability at the knee are called

A) cruciates.

B) menisci.

C) deltoid and lateral ligaments.

D) collaterals.

Q3) Lying supine,instruct your client to move the right leg toward the ceiling,keeping the right knee straight.What type of contraction is occurring with the right quadriceps muscles?

A) Isokinetic

B) Isometric

C) Concentric

D) Eccentric

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21

Chapter 20: Ankle Joint and Foot

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following would be an effective closed chain exercise for strengthening all muscles of the ankle and foot?

A) Mini squats

B) Step-ups

C) Lunges

D) All of the above

Q2) Which muscle originates on the posterior tibia and fibula and inserts on the posterior calcaneus?

A) Gastrocnemius

B) Soleus

C) Plantaris

D) Flexor digitorum longus

Q3) Which muscle originates from the posterior tibia and inserts on the distal phalanges of the four lesser toes?

A) Tibialis posterior

B) Flexor digitorum longus

C) Flexor hallucis longus

D) Dorsal interossei

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Chapter 21: Posture

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Sample Questions

Q1) The pelvis is considered to be in a neutral position when which of the following landmarks are in the same plane?

A) The anterior inferior iliac spines and posterior inferior iliac spines are level

B) The anterior superior iliac spines and posterior superior iliac spines are level

C) The anterior superior iliac spines and symphysis pubis are in the same vertical plane

D) B and C

Q2) A person with a lumbar disc problem is generally most comfortable in which of the following positions?

A) Lying prone

B) Lying supine with pillows under the knees

C) Side-lying with top leg extending behind the body

D) Side-lying with both legs flexed toward the chest

Q3) Causes of poor posture can be which of the following?

A) Habit

B) Congenital malformation

C) Paralysis of key postural muscles

D) Any of the above can be a cause of poor posture.

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Chapter 22: Gait

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Sample Questions

Q1) A gait pattern characterized by a wide base of support and unsteady movements is called

A) Parkinsonian gait.

B) scissors gait.

C) ataxic gait.

D) antalgic gait.

Q2) The period of the stance phase when the body is directly over the weight-bearing limb and the vertical displacement of the pelvis is at its highest point is

A) initial contact.

B) loading response.

C) midstance.

D) terminal stance.

Q3) A verbal cue that you could give a patient with poor balance to improve their gait safety is

A) increase the cadence.

B) decrease the step length.

C) increase the width of walking base.

D) B and C

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