Pharmacy Technician Program
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
The Pharmacy Technician Program is designed to equip students with the knowledge and practical skills necessary to support pharmacists in a variety of healthcare settings. The curriculum covers essential topics such as pharmacy operations, drug classifications, medication dispensation, pharmacy law and ethics, pharmaceutical calculations, inventory management, and patient communication. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and hands-on clinical experience, students learn to accurately prepare medications, maintain patient records, process prescriptions, and assist in compounding pharmaceuticals. Graduates of the program are prepared to take national certification exams and pursue careers in retail, hospital, and community pharmacy environments.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A deficit of oxygen in the cells usually due to respiratory or circulatory problems is called:
A) apoptosis.
B) ischemia.
C) hypertrophy.
D) necrosis.
Answer: B
Q2) Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of:
A) an iatrogenic cause of cancer.
B) a preventive measure.
C) a precipitating factor.
D) a predisposing condition.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology?
A) The science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases
B) The relative number of deaths resulting from a particular disease
C) Identification of a specific disease through evaluation of signs and symptoms
D) The global search for emerging diseases
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the correct proportion of water to body weight to be expected in a healthy male adult's body:
A) 30%
B) 45%
C) 60%
D) 70%
Answer: C
Q2) Increased milk and/or antacid intake can contribute to development of "milk-alkali syndrome," which can cause which of the following?
A) Hyponatremia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hypovolemia
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Calcium
D) Iron
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other
Common Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A placebo may be described as a tablet or capsule:
A) that does not contain an active drug.
B) that contains a small amount of active drug for use in clinical trials.
C) that contains a different drug to be used for its psychological effect.
D) that contains high amounts of a drug to determine the maximum dose allowed.
Answer: A
Q2) At which site are most drugs metabolized and prepared for excretion?
A) Liver
B) Kidneys
C) Circulating blood
D) Lymphoid tissue
Answer: A
Q3) Ingesting a drug with a large meal may be likely to:
A) immediately increase the blood level of the drug.
B) prevent gastric irritation.
C) ensure that the total dose is absorbed into the blood.
D) cause more rapid excretion of the drug.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of acute pain but not of chronic pain?
A) Depression and debilitation
B) A perception of increased generalized pain and discomfort
C) Fatigue and lower pain tolerance
D) Severe but short term
Q2) A headache that results from pressure on the meninges surrounding the brain is referred to as a/an:
A) intracranial headache.
B) intrameningeal headache.
C) migraine headache.
D) cerebral headache.
Q3) What is the role of nociceptors? They are:
A) pain receptors that are stimulated by thermal, chemical, or physical means.
B) spinal nerves that conduct impulses from specific areas of the skin.
C) responsible for the state of arousal with pain.
D) useful in localizing pain to a specific area of the body.
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6
Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman has burns on the anterior surfaces of her right arm, chest, and right leg. The percentage of body surface area burned is approximately:
A) 13.5%.
B) 18%.
C) 22.5%.
D) 31.5%.
Q2) An abscess contains:
A) serous exudate.
B) purulent exudate.
C) fibrinous exudate.
D) hemorrhagic exudate.
Q3) Glucocorticoids are used to treat inflammation because they directly:
A) promote the release of prostaglandins at the site.
B) decrease capillary permeability.
C) mobilize lymphocytes and neutrophils.
D) prevent infection.
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Chapter 6: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungi reproduce by:
1) budding.
2) extension of hyphae.
3) binary fission.
4) production of spores.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 2, 3, 4
Q2) The primary pathological effect of influenza virus is:
A) destruction of the mucosa in the lower respiratory tract.
B) replication of the virus in respiratory secretions.
C) destruction of leukocytes and macrophages in the lungs.
D) inflammation and necrosis of the upper respiratory epithelium.
Q3) A strict anaerobe requires which specific environment?
A) A dry environment
B) An acidic medium
C) Air at a temperature less than 61° F/16° C
D) The absence of oxygen
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a cause of immunodeficiency?
A) Hypoplasia of the thymus
B) Delayed hypersensitivity
C) Immunosuppressive drugs
D) Atrophy of the lymph nodes
Q2) In cases of HIV infection, the "window period" refers to the time between:
A) entry of the virus into the blood and the initial manifestations.
B) entry of the virus into the body and the appearance of antibodies in the blood.
C) entry of the virus into the body and a significant drop in CD4 T-helper lymphocyte count.
D) diagnosis of "HIV positive" and diagnosis of "AIDS."
Q3) An autoimmune disease is:
A) excessive formation of antibodies following exposure to foreign material.
B) an extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment.
C) an abnormal response to ingested food and drugs.
D) failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself.
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Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a raised, thin-walled lesion containing clear fluid called?
A) Papule
B) Pustule
C) Vesicle
D) Macule
Q2) Choose the best description of the typical lesion of impetigo.
A) Large, red, painful nodule filled with purulent exudates
B) Small vesicles that rupture to produce a crusty brown pruritic mass
C) Red, swollen, painful areas often with projecting red streaks
D) Firm, raised papules that may have a rough surface and may be painful
Q3) The pathological change associated with scleroderma is:
A) abnormal activation of T lymphocytes and an increase of cytokines.
B) an autoimmune reaction damaging the epidermis.
C) collagen deposits in the small blood vessels of the skin and sometimes the viscera.
D) Type I hypersensitivity and increased serum IgE levels.
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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What limits joint movement in osteoarthritis?
A) The osteophytes and irregular cartilage surface
B) The wider joint space
C) Decreased amount of synovial fluid in the cavity
D) Fibrosis involving the joint capsule and ligaments
Q2) The most common type of joint, which are freely movable, are called:
A) Synarthroses
B) Amphiarthroses
C) Anarthroses
D) Diarthroses
Q3) Ewing's sarcoma metastasizes at an early stage to the:
A) brain.
B) liver.
C) lungs.
D) other bones.
Q4) Bones classified as "irregular" would include:
A) skull bones.
B) the mandible.
C) wrist bones.
D) the femur.
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Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thalassemia is caused by:
A) a defect in one or more genes for hemoglobin.
B) an abnormal form of heme.
C) abnormal liver production of amino acids and iron.
D) overproduction of hypochromic, microcytic RBCs.
Q2) In individuals with acute leukemia, the increased number of malignant leukocytes leads to:
1) decreased hemoglobin.
2) thrombocytopenia.
3) bone pain with increased activity.
4) splenomegaly.
A) 1, 3
B) 1, 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) What is the primary treatment for the leukemias?
A) Radiation
B) Chemotherapy
C) Surgery
D) Immunotherapy
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Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of the hormones secreted by the thymus gland is to:
A) break down old erythrocytes and recycle the hemoglobin.
B) concentrate the lymph and filter out toxins.
C) stimulate lymph production.
D) enable lymphocytes to develop into mature T cells.
Q2) Non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are increasing in incidence, partly due to the numbers associated with:
A) an increase in resistant microorganisms.
B) an increase in adult obesity.
C) an increase in high cholesterol levels.
D) an increase in HIV infections.
Q3) One of the reasons non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are harder to treat than Hodgkin's lymphomas is that they:
A) tend to be much larger than Hodgkin's lymphomas.
B) involve multiple nodes and widespread metastases.
C) are not affected by the newer drug treatments.
D) are asymptomatic until they reach stage IV.
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Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Confirmation of the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction would include:
1) specific changes in the ECG.
2) marked leukocytosis and increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
3) elevation of cardiac isoenzymes in serum.
4) a pattern of pain.
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 3, 4
Q2) Shock is defined as:
A) failure of the heart to supply sufficient blood to body cells.
B) general hypoxia, causing damage to various organs.
C) decreased circulating blood and tissue perfusion.
D) loss of blood, causing severe hypoxia.
Q3) The cardiac reserve is:
A) afterload.
B) the difference between the apical and radial pulses.
C) the ability of the heart to increase cardiac output when needed.
D) the extra blood remaining in the heart after it contracts.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Light bubbly or crackling breathing sounds associated with serous secretions are called:
A) rhonchi.
B) stridor.
C) rales.
D) wheezing.
Q2) Choose the correct information applying to laryngotracheobronchitis:
A) Viral infection in infant under 12 months
B) Viral infection in child, 3 months to 3 years
C) Bacterial infection in infant under 6 months
D) Bacterial infection in child, 3 to 7 years
Q3) Which of the following would confirm a diagnosis of primary tuberculosis?
A) A positive tuberculin skin test
B) Occurrence of hemoptysis
C) Unproductive cough with absence of sputum
D) Small areas of calcification on a chest X-ray
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Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT considered to be a common contributing factor to AIDS dementia?
A) Invasion of the central nervous system by HIV
B) Development of arteriosclerosis
C) Secondary toxoplasmosis infection
D) Development of cerebral lymphoma
Q2) In the weeks following CVA, why might some neurological function return?
1) Presence of collateral circulation
2) Immediate therapy to dissolve thrombi and maintain perfusion
3) Reduced inflammation in the area
4) Development of alternative neuronal pathways
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
E) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement does NOT apply to chronic glaucoma?
A) Degeneration and obstruction of the trabecular network
B) Gradual increase in intraocular pressure
C) Abnormally narrow angle between the cornea and iris
D) Damage to the retina and optic nerve
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Conduction deafness results from inner ear damage.
B) Cochlear implants may restore hearing in cases of sensorineural loss.
C) Damage to the auditory area of the brain causes deafness in one ear.
D) Cochlear implants can replace the auditory pathway in all deaf individuals.
Q3) The area providing the greatest visual acuity is the:
A) Macula lutea
B) Fovea centralis
C) Optic disc
D) Lens
Q4) Narrow-angle glaucoma develops when the angle is decreased between the:
A) retina and ciliary process.
B) lens and ciliary body.
C) iris and cornea.
D) iris and lens.
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the cause of diabetic ketoacidosis?
A) Excess insulin in the body
B) Loss of glucose in the urine
C) Failure of the kidney to excrete sufficient acids
D) Increased catabolism of fats and proteins
Q2) Diabetes may cause visual impairment through damage to the lens; this is referred to as:
A) cataracts.
B) macular degeneration.
C) myopia.
D) strabismus.
Q3) How do many oral hypoglycemic drugs act?
A) To replace insulin in patients with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM)
B) To transport glucose into body cells
C) To prevent gluconeogenesis
D) To stimulate the pancreas to produce more insulin
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Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are related to post-hepatic jaundice?
A) Pruritic skin and light-colored stools
B) Dark-colored stools and urine
C) Increased serum levels of unconjugated bilirubin
D) Loss of all metabolic functions
Q2) What does congenital esophageal atresia cause?
A) Direct passage of saliva and food from the mouth into the trachea
B) Repeated reflux of gastric secretions into the esophagus
C) No fluid or food entering the stomach
D) Gastric distention and cramps
Q3) What would be the result of chronic bleeding from gastric carcinoma?
A) Occult blood in the stool and anemia
B) Hematemesis and shock
C) Abdominal pain and distention
D) Red blood on the surface of the stool
Q4) What usually initiates acute appendicitis?
A) Infection in the appendix
B) An episode of severe diarrhea
C) Obstruction of the lumen of the appendix
D) Eating a low-fiber diet
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autoregulation in the kidneys refers to:
A) control of blood flow by the SNS.
B) the secretion of renin and activation of angiotensin.
C) local minor reflex adjustments in the arterioles to maintain normal blood flow.
D) the control of systemic blood pressure by the kidneys.
Q2) Uremic signs of renal failure include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) encephalopathy.
B) high blood pressure.
C) osteodystrophy.
D) azotemia and acidosis.
Q3) Urine with a low specific gravity is usually related to:
A) an infection of the gallbladder.
B) renal failure due to tubule damage.
C) lack of sufficient fluid intake.
D) presence of numerous renal calculi.
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement does NOT apply to vaginal candidiasis?
A) It is classified as an STD.
B) The cause is an opportunistic yeast.
C) It causes dysuria and dyspareunia.
D) The mucosa becomes red and pruritic.
Q2) Which of the following is the most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis?
A) N. gonorrhoeae
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) S. aureus
D) E. coli
Q3) A chancre is best described as:
A) a vesicle surrounded by a red inflamed area.
B) a pustule filled with purulent exudate.
C) an area of necrosis and fibrosis.
D) a firm painless ulcerated nodule.
Q4) The most common solid tumor found in young men is:
A) prostatic cancer.
B) testicular cancer.
C) bladder cancer.
D) penile cancer.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of normal cells are often damaged during chemotherapy and radiation treatments?
A) Epithelial cells
B) Skeletal muscle cells
C) Nerve tissue
D) Collagen and fibrous tissue
Q2) Which term refers to the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites?
A) Invasiveness
B) Seeding
C) Metastasis
D) Systemic effect
Q3) Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they:
A) metastasize early in their development.
B) create excessive pressure within the skull.
C) cannot be removed.
D) cause serious systemic effects.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most invasive prenatal screening test for fetal abnormalities is:
A) ultrasonography.
B) amniocentesis.
C) X-ray.
D) blood tests.
Q2) Developmental disorders can result from all the following EXCEPT:
A) exposure to radiation.
B) mercury in foods and water.
C) drugs and alcohol.
D) folic acid.
Q3) Blood tests are performed on neonates primarily to:
A) determine need for immediate surgical correction of anomalies.
B) identify disorders requiring immediate treatment.
C) identify the presence of any inherited disorders.
D) rule out the presence of any infection.
Q4) Exposure to cocaine during pregnancy leads to increased risk of:
A) premature birth.
B) respiratory problems.
C) sudden infant death syndrome.
D) A, B, and C
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the usual cause of hemolysis of fetal erythrocytes during pregnancy?
A) The mother's blood is Rh negative and the fetus is Rh positive.
B) The parents differ in blood type.
C) The mother receives Rh immunoglobulin early in the second pregnancy.
D) Fetal antibodies enter the maternal circulation.
Q2) Common effects of the expanding uterus during pregnancy include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) compression of the urinary bladder.
B) restricted inspiratory volume.
C) low blood pressure.
D) varicose veins.
Q3) Diagnosis of pregnancy is confirmed through elevated serum levels of:
A) hCG.
B) testosterone.
C) AFP.
D) aldosterone.
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Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
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Q1) Which of the following might fluid and electrolyte deficits cause in a patient with anorexia nervosa?
A) Cardiac arrhythmias
B) Weight loss
C) Dental caries and esophagitis
D) Amenorrhea
Q2) Which statement applies to testicular cancer?
A) It often develops in untreated, undescended testes.
B) It is related to chromosome abnormalities such as monosomy X.
C) The tumor presents as a painful red lump in the scrotum.
D) The cancer usually causes sterility.
Q3) Bulimia nervosa is characterized by:
A) a refusal to eat.
B) extreme weight loss.
C) alternating binge eating and purging.
D) chronic diarrhea.
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Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
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Q1) The term given to the change that occurs in women at around age 50 with the cessation of the menstrual cycle is:
A) menopause.
B) dysmenorrhea.
C) amenorrhea.
D) menarche.
Q2) Vision in the elderly may be impaired when the eyeball becomes less elastic, thus preventing accommodation and resulting in:
A) presbyopia.
B) cataracts.
C) glaucoma.
D) damage to the retina.
Q3) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the increasing life span of the general population?
A) Reduced cognitive and social activities
B) Improved living conditions
C) Better nutrition
D) Advancements in health care
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26
Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
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Q1) The major problem associated with immobility and the gastrointestinal tract is:
A) constipation.
B) diarrhea.
C) nausea.
D) increased rate of peristalsis.
Q2) Immobility may lead to dehydration primarily as a result of:
A) changes in hormonal secretions due to increased blood in the thorax.
B) destruction of the kidneys as a result of ischemia and necrosis.
C) blockage of the ureters, causing retention of urine.
D) toxins being produced by infectious microorganisms.
Q3) Bladder infections are more likely to develop in immobilized patients because of:
A) stasis of urine in the urinary system.
B) development of hypocalcemia with immobility.
C) fluid overload in the system.
D) lack of neurological control of the bladder.
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Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
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Q1) During the stress response, endorphins act as:
A) pain blockers.
B) cerebral function depressors.
C) stimulators of increased secretion of aldosterone and insulin.
D) an enhancer of the immune response.
Q2) Selye defined three stages in the stress response. The third stage is designated as the:
A) alarm stage.
B) resistance stage.
C) stage of exhaustion.
D) maladaptive stage.
Q3) Improved function of the heart and brain during a stress response results from: 1) glycogenesis.
2) bronchodilation.
3) vasoconstriction in the skin and viscera.
4) decreased metabolic rate.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 3, 4
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Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
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Q1) Which of the following drugs causes headache and vomiting when an alcoholic ingests small amounts of alcohol?
A) Methadone
B) Diazepam
C) Disulfiram
D) Naloxone
Q2) Which of the following is/are NOT a common sign(s) of withdrawal?
A) Irritability
B) Respiratory depression
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Psychotic episodes and convulsions
E) Tremors
Q3) Which of the following statements is characteristic of alcohol?
A) It is primarily a CNS stimulant.
B) It may cause congenital defects in infants born to alcoholic mothers.
C) It does not interact with other drugs in the CNS.
D) It usually causes severe kidney damage.
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Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
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Q1) What is/are signs of hypothermia?
A) Systemic vasodilation
B) Lethargy and confusion
C) Nausea and cramps
D) Rapid but strong pulse
Q2) A common illness for tourists in developing countries is "traveler's diarrhea," often caused by:
A) Salmonella
B) Shigella
C) E. coli
D) Listeria
Q3) Which of the following is likely to result from lead poisoning?
A) Damage to the brain and peripheral nerves
B) Inflammation and fibrosis in the lungs
C) Various cancers
D) Displacement of oxygen from hemoglobin
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Page 30