Chapter 11: Treatment of Migraine Headache and Alzheimers Disease
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Q1) memantine
Q2) ergotamine tartrate
Q3) When using a triptan to treat a migraine,which route of administration produces the best results?
A)subcutaneous injection
B)intranasal administration
C)oral formulation
D)any of the above
Q4) sumatriptan
Q5) _____ is a neurodegenerative disease that causes memory loss,behavioral changes,and immobility.
A)Parkinson's disease
B)Multiple sclerosis
C)Cerebrovascular accident
D)Alzheimer's disease
Q6) naratriptan
Q7) zolmitriptan
Q8) donepezil
Q9) rivastigmine Page 15
Q10) tacrine
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Page 16
Chapter 12: Treatment of Sleep Disorders and Attention
Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are four stages of sleep.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is not true about ADHD?
A)only affects school-age children
B)affects adults
C)affects adolescents
D)can affect any age group
Q3) Which of the following is not a common sleep disorder?
A)insomnia
B)restless legs syndrome
C)sleep apnea
D)non-REM sleep
Q4) Patterns of sleep stay the same for all ages.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sleep deprivation can cause motor vehicle accidents and trigger seizures,paranoia,and hallucinations.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Neuromuscular Blockade
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Q1) The process of neuromuscular transmission begins with the release of _____ from vesicles located in the motor neuron endplate
A)acetylcholine
B)anticholinesterase
C)norepinephrine
D)GABA
Q2) Common endings for nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker drugs are _____.
A)"-curare"
B)"-curonium"
C)"-curium"
D)b and c
Q3) Which of the following is not an adverse reaction of administration of botulinum toxin type A injections?
A)droopy eyelid muscles (blepharoptosis)
B)muscle weakness
C)spasms of the eyelids (blepharospasms)
D)headache
Q4) nonpolarizing neuromuscular drugs
Q5) depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs
Q6) drugs used to reverse the effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs
Page 18
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Chapter 14: Treatment of Muscle Spasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of most drug treatments is to reduce the positive symptoms of spasticity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true about the use of botulinum toxin for the treatment of spasticity?
A)It is unlabeled.
B)It is investigational.
C)It is approved by the FDA.
D)All of the above are untrue.
Q3) Valium
Q4) GABA is the major excitatory neurotransmitter in the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Any condition that can damage the brain or spinal cord can cause increased muscle tone,exaggerated tendon jerks,and hyperexcitable muscles or spasticity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Cyproheptadine
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Chapter 15: Treatment of Autoimmune Diseases That Affect
the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is more toxic than most of the drugs used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis,systemic lupus erythematosus,myasthenia gravis,and multiple sclerosis,so its use is reserved for severe,active disease.
A)Dexamethasone
B)Cyclophosphamide
C)Prednisone
D)Chloroquine
Q2) All of the following autoimmune diseases affect the muscles except _____.
A)systemic lupus erythematosus
B)dermatomyositis
C)myasthenia gravis
D)polymyositis
Q3) An autoimmune disease occurs when the _____.
A)immune system turns against the parts of the body it is designed to protect
B)body attacks its own cells,thinking they are germs or a harmful substance
C)body manufactures cells to replace the ones it attacked
D)a and b
Q4) methylprednisolone
Q5) Enbrel
Q6) methotrexate
Page 20
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Page 21
Chapter 16: Treatment of Osteoporosis and Pagets Disease of the Bone
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs in not a nitrogen-containing bisphosphonate?
A)etidronate
B)alendronate
C)risedronate
D)pamidronate
Q2) Paget's disease is most common in which sex and age group?
A)women over 55 years of age
B)men over 55 years of age
C)women over 70 years of age
D)men over 70 years of age
Q3) Which of the following is not a pharmacological treatment goal for osteoporosis?
A)increase bone density
B)prevent all fractures from happening
C)reduce risks for future fractures.
D)decrease the formation of bone
Q4) Aredia
Q5) Evista
Q6) Didronel
Q7) Zometa
Q8) Fosamax Page 22
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Page 23
Chapter 17: Treatment of Hyperuricemia and Gout
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Sample Questions
Q1) A uricosuric is drug that decreases the renal clearance of urates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Xanthine oxidase inhibitors block the final enzymatic step in the synthesis of uric acid.An example of a xanthine oxidase inhibitor is _____.
A)colchicine
B)prelone
C)allopurinol
D)a and c
Q3) Hyperuricemia is associated with increased insulin resistance and _____.
A)diabetes
B)obesity
C)hypertension
D)a and b
Q4) The most common symptom associated with increased urate levels are _____.
A)nausea
B)pain
C)cramps
D)all of the above
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Chapter 18: Treatment of Glaucoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients suffering from glaucoma will lose their central vision first.
A)True
B)False
Q2) timolol maleate
Q3) Drugs that are used to increase the drainage of the aqueous humor are called miotics.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The classification of drug most commonly used for the treatment of glaucoma is _____.
A)a-adrenergic antagonists
B)ß-adrenergic antagonists
C)carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
D)prostaglandins
Q5) Which of the following drugs can be used for open and close angle glaucoma?
A)acetazolamide
B)pilocarpine
C)marijuana
D)all of the above
Q6) latanoprost
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Chapter 19: Treatment of Vertigo and Other Disorders of the Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) The treatment for auralgia,or ear pain,is _____.
A)topical analgesics
B)local anesthetics
C)oral analgesics
D)any of the above
Q2) The most common causes of drug-induced tinnitus are _____.
A)alcohol
B)salicylates
C)NSAIDs
D)a and b
Q3) The first sign of ototoxicity is a discharge from the ear.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The number one cause of vertigo accounting for approximately 20% of all cases is _____.
A)overdose of aspirin and alcohol
B)water in the ear
C)benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
D)constant diving
26
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Chapter 20: Treatment of Ophthalmic and Otic Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs is used to treat fusarium keratitis?
A)penicillin
B)natamycin
C)foscarnet
D)trifluridine
Q2) _____ is the second leading cause of infectious blindness in the world,according to the World Health Organization.
A)Toxoplasmosis
B)Macular degeneration
C)Onchocerciasis
D)Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
Q3) Onchocerciasis is treated by administering a single dose of ivermectin _____.
A)twice a year
B)once yearly
C)every 3 months
D)one time
Q4) otitis media
Q5) toxocariasis
Q6) conjunctivitis
Q7) cytomegalovirus
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Chapter 21: Treatment of Angina
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Sample Questions
Q1) Angina pain can be mistaken for severe heartburn.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a type of angina?
A)stable
B)unstable
C)thromboembolic
D)variant
Q3) High dietary cholesterol is a contributing factor for the development of:
A)coronary artery disease
B)myocardial ischemia
C)atherosclerosis
D)all of the above
Q4) ß-Adrenergic blockers are the oldest class of drugs used to treat angina.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Lifestyle plays a minor risk in angina.
A)True
B)False
Q6) nitrate
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) bumetanide
Q2) Potassium-sparing diuretics inhibit sodium reabsorption while avoiding potassium loss.They are ______ effective than loop and thiazide diuretics.
A)less
B)more
C)equally
D)not
Q3) -Blockers lower blood pressure by decreasing _____.
A)heart rate
B)peripheral resistance
C)blood flow
D)a and b
Q4) Stage 1 hypertension is classified as systolic blood pressure ranging between 140 and 159 mm Hg and diastolic blood pressure ranging between 90 and 99 mm Hg.It should be managed with _____.
A)lifestyle modification
B)drug therapy
C)stress management
D)a and b
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Chapter 23: Treatment of Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calcium channel blockers may be used in the treatment of ______ heart failure because they control heart rate,lower blood pressure,and treat ischemia.
A)systolic
B)left-sided
C)diastolic
D)any of the above
Q2) furosemide
Q3) How is heart failure classified?
A)systolic heart failure
B)diastolic heart failure
C)atrioventricular
D)a and b
Q4) Nifedipine
Q5) One type of the compensatory mechanisms for heart failure is the release of _____.
A)natriuretic peptide hormone
B)cortisol
C)dopamine
D)none of the above
Q6) Digoxin
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Chapter 24: Treatment of Myocardial Infarction and Stroke
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Sample Questions
Q1) The leading cause of death in the United States is myocardial infarction,accounting for nearly 500,000 deaths.
A)True
B)False
Q2) bile acid sequestrants
Q3) Warfarin works by interfering with the formation of vitamin ___-dependent clotting factors.
A)B3
B)K
C)A
D)E
Q4) nicotinic acid derivatives
Q5) HMG CoA reductase inhibitors
Q6) Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for lipid lower drugs in the treatment of hyperlipidemias?
A)They affect cholesterol synthesis.
B)They eliminate bile.
C)They act on HDL mechanism.
D)They act on LDL metabolism.
Q7) fibric acid derivatives
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Arrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ventricular fibrillation is life threatening and cannot be reversed by cardioversion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Class IV agents
Q3) What is not one reason for why arrhythmias occur?
A)when the cardiac ion exchange channels function improperly
B)when inflammation is present
C)when cardiac blood vessels are dilated
D)when there is oxidative stress
Q4) The current focus of arrhythmia management is _____.
A)cure
B)prevention
C)eradication
D)cardioversion
Q5) digoxin and phenytoin
Q6) Ventricular fibrillation is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death in the US and Europe each year.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Treatment of Gastroesophageal Reflux
Disease,laryngopharyngeal Reflux and Peptic Ulcer Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)is a motility disorder associated with impaired digestion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The only proton pump inhibitor available OTC is _____.
A)lansoprazole
B)pantoprazole
C)omeprazole
D)rabeprazole
Q3) Prokinetic drugs used for the treatment of GERD and LPR work by _____.
A)increasing peristalsis
B)speeding up gastric emptying
C)improving lower esophageal sphincter tone
D)all of the above
Q4) _____ is currently the only prokinetic drug approved by the FDA.
A)Pantoprazole
B)Misoprostol
C)Metoclopramide
D)Sucralfate
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Chapter 27: Treatment of Irritable Bowel
Syndrome,ulcerative Colitis and Crohns Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disease affects men and women equally?
A)ulcerative colitis
B)diverticulitis
C)Crohn's disease
D)proctitis
Q2) Which drug is used to control diarrhea caused by severe IBS and is available only from health care providers who participate in a special prescribing program?
A)infliximab
B)Lomotil
C)alosetron
D)tegaserod
Q3) infliximab
Q4) mesalamine
Q5) Patients who have Crohn's disease may develop _____,which form when an ulcer tunnels from the site of origin to surrounding tissues.
A)ulcers
B)fistulas
C)diverticuli
D)none of the above
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Chapter 28: Treatment of Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exposure to occupational irritants does not contribute to developing COPD.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following leukotriene antagonists must be taken on an empty stomach?
A)montelukast
B)zafirlukast
C)zileuton
D)none of the above
Q3) A patient on _____should be counseled that the packet of granules should not be opened until ready for use.Once opened,packet contents (with or without mixing with food)must be administered within 15 minutes.
A)zileuton
B)zafirlukast
C)montelukast
D)cromolyn sodium
Q4) Omalizumab
Q5) Fluticasone
Q6) Nedocromil
Q7) Salmeterol Page 35
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Chapter 29: Treatment of Allergies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which route of administration is utilized for fluticasone (Flonase),budesonide (Rhinocort),triamcinolone (Nasacort),flunisolide (Nasarel),and beclomethasone (Vancenase AQ)?
A)oral
B)intranasal
C)subcutaneous
D)intravenous
Q2) The only mast cell stabilizer used intranasally is _____.
A)cromolyn sodium
B)fluticasone
C)budesonide
D)clemastine
Q3) All of the following drugs are used to treat allergies except _____.
A)antihistamines
B)inhaled corticosteroids
C)H receptor antagonists
D)leukotriene modifiers
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Chapter 30: Treatment of Prostate Disease and Erectile Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Erectile dysfunction is managed by the administration of drugs that promote _____.
A)engorgement
B)slow loss of erection
C)relaxation and contraction of the smooth muscle in the testes
D)a and b
Q2) When symptoms of BPH are severe,_____ is indicated.
A)medication
B)hormone injections
C)vasectomy
D)surgery
Q3) Alprostadil is naturally occurring prostaglandin E is present in all of the following locations except the _____.
A)seminal vesicles
B)cavernous tissues of males
C)placenta of the fetus
D)prostate gland
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38
Chapter 31: Treatment of Fluid and Electrolyte Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Management of dehydration requires all of the following except _____.
A)replacement therapy with oral electrolyte solutions
B)intravenous fluids
C)water alone
D)IV fluids with electrolytes
Q2) Which electrolyte and major cation that is found outside of the cell regulates the amount of water in the body and is critical in generating electrical signals?
A)sodium
B)magnesium
C)potassium
D)calcium
Q3) The electrolyte _____ essential for membrane structure and energy storage,produces ATP,and is an essential component in DNA and RNA.
A)phosphorus
B)sulfate
C)bicarbonate
D)none of the above
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39
Chapter 32: Treatment of Thyroid Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thyroid gland secretes hormones that have an affect on nearly all cells in the body._____ and _____ are thyroid hormones that function to regulate growth and metabolism.
A)tetraiodothyronine (T ),trioxythyronine
B)trioxythyroxine,triiodothyroxine
C)triiodothyronine (T ),tetraiodothyronine
D)monothyroxine and triiodothyrosine
Q2) Which thyroid drug(s)may produce a dangerous drop in white blood cells (agranulocytosis)that increases the risk for serious infection?
A)methimazole and PTU
B)Cytomel
C)Synthroid
D)Thyrolar
Q3) Cytomel
Q4) Thyroid levels are tightly controlled by the _____ feedback loop.
A)negative
B)positive
C)neurotransmitter
D)a and b
Q5) Synthroid
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Over 80% of persons diagnosed with type 2 diabetes _____.
A)are over the age of 25
B)are overweight
C)have no family history of type 2 diabetes
D)exercise daily
Q2) stimulates insulin secretion for pancreatic ß-cells,similar to sulfonylureas
Q3) slows gastric emptying,reduces postprandial glucagon secretion,and reduces appetite
Q4) Which of the following is not a type of glucose testing for diabetes?
A)fasting blood glucose test
B)fecal glucose test
C)oral glucose tolerance test
D)hemoglobin A c test
Q5) People with type II diabetes must always get what body part checked?
A)feet
B)hand
C)knees
D)all of the above
Q6) stimulates the pancreas to secrete insulin when blood sugar levels are high,slows the emptying of the stomach,and causes decreased appetite
Page 41
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Chapter 34: Drugs That Affect the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) clomiphene
Q2) Oil-based products should not be used with latex diaphragms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a drug "delivery method" of contraception?
A)hormone-impregnated vaginal inserts
B)skin "patches"
C)condoms
D)surgical implant
Q4) GNRH analog
Q5) Which class of antidepressants is used for premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)?
A)MAOIs
B)TCAs
C)SSRIs
D)any of the above
Q6) Diaphragms are associated with a decreased risk of urinary tract infection.
A)True
B)False
Q7) bromocriptine
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Bacterial Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) dicloxacillin
Q2) telithromycin
Q3) Cephalosporins are formulated for all of the following routes of administration except _____.
A)oral
B)topical
C)intramuscular
D)intravenous
Q4) Which one of the following is not a property of tetracyclines?
A)broad spectrum
B)narrow spectrum
C)inhibit protein synthesis
D)bacteriostatic
Q5) Microbial resistance is the ability of bacteria to overcome the effects of an antibiotic.
A)True
B)False
Q6) sulfisoxizole
Q7) azithromycin
Q8) doxycycline
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Chapter 36: Treatment of Viral Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interferons are classified as antiviral agents.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The FDA requires the manufacturer of _____ to provide a black box warning in the package labeling regarding reports of fatal and non-fatal intracranial hemorrhage.
A)acyclovir
B)tipranavir
C)saquinavir
D)all of the above
Q3) Which of the following drugs is used to treat influenza A?
A)amantadine
B)rifampin
C)rimantidine
D)a and c
Q4) AIDs "cocktails" are made up of _____ or more medications.
A)1 to 2
B)2 to 3
C)3 or more
D)none of the above
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Chapter 37: Treatment of Cancers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carboplatin,cisplatin,and oxaliplatin are platinum compounds.Cisplatin is FDA approved for the treatment of _____ and _____ cancer.
A)testicular,ovarian
B)breast,ovarian
C)testicular,colon
D)cervical,ovarian
Q2) Cancer causing chemicals called _____ are found in the workplace,home,and the environment through pollution.
A)teratogens
B)mutagens
C)carcinogens
D)hemogens
Q3) Two screening tests used for the diagnosis of colorectal cancer are colonoscopy and _____.
A)proctoscopy
B)fecal occult blood test (FOBT)
C)enteroscopy
D)stool color test
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Chapter 38: Vaccines,immunomodulators,and Immunosuppressants
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Sample Questions
Q1) The immunomodulator basiliximab is used to _____.
A)prolong the life of transplanted organs
B)reduce transplant rejections
C)encourage T-cell proliferation
D)a and b
Q2) etanercept
Q3) The temperature that must be maintained for an uninterrupted cold chain from the manufacturer to its final destination is _____.
A)2° C to 6° C
B)2° C to 8° C
C)32° F to 59° F
D)59° F to 86° F
Q4) Which of the following classification of drugs are not categorized as immunopharmacologicals?
A)corticosteroids
B)antineoplastics
C)antivirals
D)cytokine inhibitors
Q5) mycophenolate mofetil
Q6) anakinra Page 46
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Chapter 39: Treatment of Fungal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pneumocystis carinii is a fungus that can cause pneumonia in individuals who have a decreased immune system response.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Women taking a broad-spectrum antibiotic for a bacterial infection may develop _____ as a result.
A)a yeast infection
B)a rash
C)onychomycosis
D)thrush
Q3) To identify the fungus Candida,a potassium _____ stain is applied to a sample of cells from the infected area.
A)chloride
B)iodide
C)hydroxide
D)sulfide
Q4) Ringworm can spread between human and animals.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Treatment of Decubitus Ulcers and Burns
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Sample Questions
Q1) The severity of a burn is determined by the _____.
A)depth of the lesion
B)extent of the lesion
C)site of the burn
D)a and b
Q2) _____ may be used if the decubitus ulcer is not healing or it continues to ooze after 2 weeks of proper cleansing and bandage changes.
A)Antifungal drugs
B)Antibacterial drugs
C)Topical cleansers
D)Dusting powders
Q3) In the care of a burn patient,at what step is a check for airway injury or impaired breathing done?
A)first step
B)second step
C)third step
D)last step
Q4) Another name for a decubitus ulcer is a pressure sore.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Treatment of Acne
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36011
Sample Questions
Q1) Both whiteheads and blackheads are considered to be noninflammatory acne.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Topical OTC medicines are available in many forms,such as gels,lotions,creams,soaps,or pads but may take up to _____ weeks before you see noticeable improvement.
A)2
B)4
C)6
D)8
Q3) Physicians know the exact cause of acne.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Acne is a disorder resulting from the action of _____.
A)hormones
B)substances on the skin's oil glands
C)substances on hair follicles
D)all of the above
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Page 50
Chapter 42: Treatment of Eczema and Psoriasis
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36012
Sample Questions
Q1) alclometasone dipropionate
Q2) Methoxsalen is the only drug in the class of furanocoumarins,and it works by _____.
A)working synergistically with UV light
B)decreasing photosensitivity
C)blocks UV rays
D)causing new skin cells to grow
Q3) What is not the mechanism of action for pimecrolimus and tacrolimus?
A)inhibits t-cell activation
B)increases production of cytokines and interleukins
C)inhibit skin cell turnover
D)increases production of interferons
Q4) halobetasol propionate
Q5) The mainstay of therapy for the treatment of eczema is _____.
A)antibiotic creams
B)phototherapy
C)moisturizer lotions
D)topical corticosteroids
Q6) desonide
Q7) calcipotriene
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Chapter 43: Treatment of Lice and Scabies
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36013
Sample Questions
Q1) Body lice infestations are caused by the parasite Phthirus pubis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Infestations are caused by a parasitic mite called Sarcoptes scabiei The mite flourishes and spreads person to person in environments,such as _____.
A)hospitals
B)nursing homes
C)child care facilities
D)all of the above
Q3) The scabies mite lives in all of the following places except _____.
A)the surface of the skin
B)webbing between the fingers and toes
C)skin folds of the breast
D)bend of the elbows,knees,and wrists
Q4) Ovide
Q5) ____,or "crabs," is sometimes classified as a sexually transmitted infection.
A)Scabies
B)Head lice
C)Pubic lice
Q6) Eurax
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