Pharmacy Technician Certification Preparation
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course is designed to prepare students for the Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam (PTCE) by covering essential topics such as pharmacology, pharmacy law and ethics, medication safety, pharmacokinetics, pharmacy calculations, and pharmacy operations. Emphasis is placed on developing practical skills in prescription processing, inventory management, drug classifications, and communication within pharmacy settings. Through comprehensive review sessions, practice tests, and simulated scenarios, students will gain the knowledge and confidence needed to perform efficiently as pharmacy technicians and succeed on the national certification exam.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology for Pharmacy Technicians 1st Edition by Kathy Moscou
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43 Chapters
867 Verified Questions
867 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Fundamentals of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fentanyl is used as an _____.
A)anesthetic
B)analgesic
C)anticoagulant
D)antitussive
Answer: B
Q2) Erythropoietin is an example of a biopharmaceutical.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) b-adrenergic blocking drug
Answer: A
Q4) proton pump inhibitor
Answer: B
Q5) The aim of drug therapy is to _____ disease.
A)diagnose
B)treat
C)cure
D)all of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Principles of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ are drugs that are administered in an inactive form and must be metabolized to their active form.
A)Metabolites
B)Prodrugs
C)Lipophilics
D)Hydrophobics
Answer: B
Q2) Anatomical structures that selectively limit drug access are the _____.
A)blood-brain barrier
B)blood-placenta barrier
C)blood-testicular barrier
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q3) The body has to metabolize a drug before it is eliminated.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) stimulate growth of cancer
Answer: E
Q2) can be caused by acetaminophen
Answer: B
Q3) In a _____,some of the people in the study will receive a drug containing active ingredient and others will receive a drug look-alike that does not contain active ingredients.
A)blind study
B)single-blind study
C)double-blind study
D)open study
Answer: C
Q4) _____ is ratio of the effective dose to the lethal dose.
A)Dose-response curve
B)Therapeutic index
C)Maximum dose curve
D)Margin
Answer: B
Q5) can be caused by ibuprofen
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Drug Interactions and Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Confusing abbreviations can cause serious medication errors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) milliequivalent
Q3) Synergistic effects result when two drugs administered together produce effects that are _____ than what would be produced if either drug were administered alone.
A)equal
B)greater
C)lesser
D)double
Q4) Additive effects may occur when two drugs are administered concurrently.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When warfarin and _____ are administered together,excessive bleeding occurs.
A)acetaminophen
B)codeine
C)penicillin
D)aspirin
Q6) no known drug allergies
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Chapter 5: Treatment of Anxiety
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Sample Questions
Q1) only drug in the drug class azapirone
Q2) clomipramine
Q3) All symptoms of anxiety disorders are associated with hyperactivity of the _____ system.
A)autonomic nervous system
B)endocrine system
C)central nervous system
D)respiratory system
Q4) principal drug class used to treat anxiety
Q5) Pharmaceutical treatment of anxiety is achieved by administering drugs that affect the _____ neurotransmitters.
A)serotonin (5-HT)
B)norepinephrine (NE)
C)g-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
D)all of the above
Q6) hydroxyzine HCl
Q7) diazepam
Q8) alprazolam
Q9) antihistamine used for anxiety
Q10) drug used to treat anxiety
Page 7
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Treatment of Depression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parnate
Q2) Tricyclic antidepressants have a _____ therapeutic index and can produce cardiotoxicity at doses that are _____ times higher than the therapeutic dose.
A)narrow,2 to 4
B)wide,2 to 4
C)narrow,4 to 6
D)narrow,6 to 8
Q3) Which of the following does not precipitate depressive disorders?
A)hormonal changes
B)substance abuse
C)illnesses
D)gluttony
Q4) Most of the drugs currently indicated for the treatment of bipolar disorder are listed in which FDA pregnancy category?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q5) Lexapro
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Chapter 7: Treatment of Schizophrenia and Other Psychoses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What neurotransmitter is not associated with schizophrenia?
A)epinephrine
B)glutamate
C)cholecystokinin
D)serotonin
Q2) Persons diagnosed with schizophrenia often see visions or hear voices that cannot be seen or heard by others.
A)True
B)False
Q3) risperidone
Q4) quetiapine
Q5) People diagnosed with schizophrenia often exhibit ______ symptoms.
A)negative
B)positive
C)cognitive
D)all of the above
Q6) Traditional neuroleptics block dopamine at postsynaptic receptor sites.
A)True
B)False
Q7) loxapine Page 10
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Chapter 8: Treatment of Parkinsons Disease and Huntingtons Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is a(n)_____ in the effectiveness of most anti-Parkinson drugs over time because of the disease's progressive neurodegeneration.
A)increase
B)decrease
C)progression
D)degeneration
Q2) Parlodel
Q3) Huntington's disease is primarily treated with drugs that decrease excessive _____ activity.
A)cholinergic
B)acetylcholinesterase
C)dopaminergic
D)norepinephrine
Q4) A common side effect or effects of most of the drugs used to treat Parkinson's disease is(are)_____.
A)gastrointestinal distress
B)hypotension
C)tachycardia
D)all of the above
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Chapter 9: Treatment of Seizure Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) valproate
Q2) Signs of an upcoming seizure are important because they indicate _____.
A)the location of abnormal neuronal firing in the cerebrum
B)the location of abnormal neuronal breakdown in the cerebrum
C)symptoms of a more serious brain disorder
D)misfiring of key nervous relay points in the cerebellum
Q3) Which of the following antiseizure medications does not belong to the iminostilbenes class?
A)carbamazepine
B)tegremazepine
C)oxcarbazepine
D)none of the above
Q4) GABA analog
Q5) Successful achievement of the therapeutic goal of seizure therapy is dependent on
A)correctly classifying the seizure type
B)selecting an appropriate drug for seizure type
C)preventing onset of a seizure
D)a and b
Q6) barbiturate
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Chapter 10: Treatment of Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic pain may persist for years and is adequately controlled by pharmaceuticals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient using a patient-controlled analgesic device can get any amount of medication they need to control their pain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Agonists activate a receptor,and antagonists do not activate a receptor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nondrug treatments for pain include _____.
A)capsaicin
B)TENS
C)acupuncture
D)b and c
Q5) salicylates
Q6) mixed agonists/antagonists
Q7) opioid agonists
Q8) NSAIDs
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Chapter 11: Treatment of Migraine Headache and Alzheimers Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most significant neurotransmitter that plays a significant role in Alzheimer's disease is _____.
A)dopamine
B)norepinephrine
C)acetylcholine
D)serotonin
Q2) Which of the following statements about triptans is not true?
A)Triptans are the most widely prescribed drugs for the treatment of acute migraine headaches.
B)The triptans are selective serotonin (5-HT)receptor agonists and stimulate vasoconstriction.
C)Triptans that have a long half-life,frovatriptan (T 1/2 24 hours)and naratriptan (T 1/2 8 hours),are more effective in preventing headache reoccurrence.
D)The use of triptans is restricted to a maximum of 4 to 6 doses per 24 hours.
Q3) naratriptan
Q4) donepezil
Q5) memantine
Q6) rivastigmine
Q7) sumatriptan
Page 15
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Chapter 12: Treatment of Sleep Disorders and Attention
Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following prescription drugs is not used to treat insomnia?
A)sedatives/hypnotics
B)benzodiazepines
C)amphetamines
D)barbiturates
Q2) What is not true about ADHD?
A)only affects school-age children
B)affects adults
C)affects adolescents
D)can affect any age group
Q3) The primary treatment for narcolepsy is _____.
A)anti-seizure medications
B)stimulants
C)tricyclic antidepressants
D)any of the above
Q4) What is not true about the effects of barbiturates?
A)They produce tolerance.
B)They can become addictive.
C)Toxic doses produce coma and death.
D)All doses produce hypnosis (induce sleep).
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Chapter 13: Neuromuscular Blockade
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that decrease acetylcholine (ACh)release or deplete the neuron of ACh will also cause _____ of muscles.
A)contraction
B)stiffening
C)relaxation
D)tremor
Q2) Common endings for nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker drugs are _____.
A)"-curare"
B)"-curonium"
C)"-curium"
D)b and c
Q3) Most neuromuscular blocking drugs are poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract;therefore,they are administered ____.
A)topically
B)parenterally
C)transdermally
D)a and c
Q4) depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs
Q5) drugs used to reverse the effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs
Q6) nonpolarizing neuromuscular drugs
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Chapter 14: Treatment of Muscle Spasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cyproheptadine
Q2) Positive symptoms associated with spasticity include muscle weakness,decreased endurance,and reduction in the capacity to make voluntary muscle movements.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the four phases to the development of spasticity?
A)decreased muscle contractility
B)weak muscle tone and decreased reflex activity lasing from days to years
C)decreased reflex excitability
D)stiff,contracted muscles
Q4) The ability of baclofen to cross the blood-brain barrier is limited,so its effectiveness is augmented by administering the drug _____.
A)intravenously
B)intrapleurally
C)intrathecally
D)intraocularly
Q5) Baclofen
Q6) Dantrolene
18
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Chapter 15: Treatment of Autoimmune Diseases That Affect
the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true about the pharmacokinetics of glucocorticoids used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis,myasthenia gravis,systemic lupus erythematosus,myositis,and rheumatoid arthritis except _____.
A)the absorption,distribution,metabolism,and elimination of glucocorticoids vary according to the dosage form administered
B)in general,oral dosage forms are well absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract and are readily distributed
C)there are very few adverse effects
D)metabolism occurs in the liver
Q2) cyclosporine
Q3) anakinra
Q4) Enbrel
Q5) chloroquine
Q6) methylprednisolone
Q7) Immunosuppressive drugs work by _____.
A)interfering with the formation of immune cells
B)damaging RNA and DNA needed for replication
C)a and b
D)none of the above
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Chapter 16: Treatment of Osteoporosis and Pagets Disease of the Bone
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bisphosphonates work by _____.
A)inhibiting osteoblast activity
B)interfering with recruitment,differentiation,and action of osteoclasts
C)inhibiting osteoclast activity
D)b and c
Q2) How do parathyroid hormone analogs work to treat osteoporosis?
A)increase the rate of bone remodeling
B)thicken structural units of bone (ostens)
C)produce bone architecture that closely resembles normal bone
D)all of the above
Q3) A chronic,progressive disease of bone characterized by loss of bone density and bone strength and resulting in increased fracture risk is called _____.
A)rheumatoid arthritis
B)osteoporosis
C)brittle bone disease
D)osteosarcoma
Q4) Aredia
Q5) Didronel
Q6) Zometa
Q7) Fosamax
20
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Chapter 17: Treatment of Hyperuricemia and Gout
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common symptom associated with increased urate levels are _____.
A)nausea
B)pain
C)cramps
D)all of the above
Q2) Gout is the primary disease associated with increased urate levels in the bloodstream (hyperuricemia).
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hyperuricemia is associated with increased insulin resistance and _____.
A)diabetes
B)obesity
C)hypertension
D)a and b
Q4) Gout never occurs in perimenopausal women.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A uricosuric is drug that decreases the renal clearance of urates.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Treatment of Glaucoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intraocular pressure is caused by buildup of _____.
A)vitreous humor
B)pressure against the retina
C)aqueous humor
D)scar tissue on the lens of the eye
Q2) latanoprost
Q3) Which type of surgery may be performed to reduce intraocular pressure?
A)lens removal
B)laser
C)choroidoplasty
D)none of the above
Q4) Tonometry is a diagnostic test that is performed to measure intraocular pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most common form of glaucoma is closed angle glaucoma.
A)True
B)False
Q6) timolol maleate
Q7) brimonidine
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Chapter 19: Treatment of Vertigo and Other Disorders of the Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) Agents used to remove excess cerumen,or earwax,are called _____.
A)debriding agents
B)ceruminolytics
C)wax extenders
D)deimpactors
Q2) The first sign of ototoxicity is a discharge from the ear.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Otic drops should be warmed to room temperature before administering into the ear.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Water-clogged ears is another name for swimmer's ear.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The most common causes of drug-induced tinnitus are _____.
A)alcohol
B)salicylates
C)NSAIDs
D)a and b
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Chapter 20: Treatment of Ophthalmic and Otic Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which dosage forms best treat herpes zoster ophthalmicus and herpes simplex keratitis?
A)antiviral eye drops
B)pills
C)ophthalmic ointments
D)a and b
Q2) Which of the following drugs is not used to treat toxoplasmosis?
A)pyrimethamine
B)ganciclovir
C)sulfonamides
D)sulfadiazine (ks)
Q3) otitis externa
Q4) Which of the following is not a way to treat blepharitis?
A)self-treat with cold compresses to the eyelids
B)antiinfective ointments
C)corticosteroid eye drops
D)artificial tears
Q5) conjunctivitis
Q6) toxocariasis
Q7) cytomegalovirus
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Chapter 21: Treatment of Angina
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should nitroglycerin not be dispensed to the patient?
A)loose tablets in a prescription vial
B)in its original container
C)with a nonsafety cap
D)in an amber glass bottle
Q2) ß-Adrenergic blockers are the oldest class of drugs used to treat angina.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An adverse reaction such as a fatal drop in blood pressure can occur when _____ (treatment for erectile dysfunction)are administered to patients who are taking nitroglycerin.
A)NSAIDs
B)ß-blockers
C)phosphodiesterase inhibitors
D)a and c
Q4) Nitrates act by what means to reduce angina pain?
A)dilate veins
B)reduce heart muscle tension
C)decrease oxygen demand
D)all of the above
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gestational hypertension typically occurs after _____ weeks of pregnancy in susceptible women.It can cause premature delivery and fetal growth retardation.
A)20
B)25
C)30
D)none of the above
Q2) _____ is the most diagnosed medical condition in the United States.
A)Myocardial infarction
B)Hypertension
C)Diabetes
D)Cancer
Q3) irbesartan
Q4) spironolactone
Q5) lisinopril
Q6) Which ACE inhibitor is a good choice for patients with decreased kidney function?
A)enalapril
B)fosinopril
C)quinapril
D)ramipril
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Chapter 23: Treatment of Heart Failure
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Q1) The mechanism of action for ß-blockers used in the treatment of heart failure is to
A)block excess sympathetic stimulation induced by heart failure
B)block excess parasympathetic stimulation induced by hypertension
C)elevate peripheral arterial resistance
D)none of the above
Q2) Cardioglycosides such as digoxin have a _____effect on the heart;they increase in the force of myocardial contractions.
A)positive chronotropic
B)negative dromotropic
C)negative inotropic
D)positive inotropic
Q3) Digoxin works by doing all of the following except _____.
A)increasing cardiac output
B)decreasing compensatory sympathetic activity
C)increasing potassium
D)slowing the heart rate
Q4) Enalapril
Q5) metoprolol
Q6) Digoxin
28
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Chapter 24: Treatment of Myocardial Infarction and Stroke
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Q1) All thrombolytics lose shelf-life rapidly after reconstitution.They must be stored in the refrigerator and used within ____ hours.
A)12
B)24
C)36
D)48
Q2) Abciximab,a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor,works by blocking the final pathway of platelet aggregation and is the only _____ antiplatelet drug.
A)transdermal
B)parenteral
C)enteral
D)intrathecal
Q3) An example of an anticoagulant that is manufactured from pig intestines and cow lungs is _____.
A)heparin
B)warfarin
C)Coumadin
D)thrombin
Q4) HMG CoA reductase inhibitors
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Arrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prototype Class IA antiarrhythmic that has been widely used since the 1920s is
A)digoxin
B)quinidine
C)verapamil
D)amiodarone
Q2) Class II agents
Q3) The process of returning the cells to their resting state is called:
A)depolarization
B)repolarization
C)refractory period
D)polarization
Q4) Atrial flutter refers to a heart rate of 100 to 300 beats per minute.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Atrial fibrillation in not life threatening,so it is not a risk factor for stroke.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Class I agents
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Chapter 26: Treatment of Gastroesophageal Reflux
Disease,laryngopharyngeal Reflux and Peptic Ulcer Disease
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Q1) An example of a mucosal protectant that decreases the susceptibility of epithelial cells that line the stomach and small intestine to damage by gastric acids,pepsin,and H.pylori is _____.
A)Protonix
B)misoprostol
C)metoclopramide
D)Aciphex
Q2) Which sphincter in the digestive system is affected by GERD?
A)duodenal sphincter
B)pyloric sphincter
C)lower esophageal sphincter
D)laryngeal sphincter
Q3) Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)work by _____.
A)decreasing gastric acids by interfering with the final step in gastric acid production
B)interfering with hydrogen and potassium ion exchange
C)a and b
D)none of the above
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Page 31
Chapter 27: Treatment of Irritable Bowel
Syndrome,ulcerative Colitis and Crohns Disease
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Q1) The laxatives of choice for treating the symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome are
A)bulk-forming laxatives
B)fiber supplements
C)bile acid sequestrants
D)a and b
Q2) mesalamine
Q3) Which disease affects men and women equally?
A)ulcerative colitis
B)diverticulitis
C)Crohn's disease
D)proctitis
Q4) What are three common symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome,ulcerative colitis,and Crohn's disease?
A)bloating,constipation,cramping
B)abdominal pain,diarrhea,cramping
C)rectal bleeding,bloating,diarrhea
D)cramping,abdominal pain,bloating
Q5) loperamide
Q6) polycarbophil Page 32
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Chapter 28: Treatment of Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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Q1) Omalizumab
Q2) Zafirlukast
Q3) Omalizumab is considered to be a(n)_____.
A)"add-on" therapy for patients whose asthma is not controlled with inhaled corticosteroids and ß2 adrenergic agonists
B)monoclonal antibody
C)treat for acute symptoms of asthma
D)a and b
Q4) Salmeterol
Q5) Exposure to occupational irritants does not contribute to developing COPD.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Fluticasone
Q7) Which of the following is not a symptom of asthma?
A)airway constriction
B)sneezing
C)inflammation
D)mucus
Q8) Albuterol Page 34
Q9) Budesonide
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Page 35
Chapter 29: Treatment of Allergies
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Q1) What kind of effect do allergies have on sensitive individuals?
A)quality of life
B)productivity
C)performance
D)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following is not a condition triggered by allergic rhinitis?
A)nasal itching
B)fever
C)sneezing
D)runny nose
Q3) All of the following drugs are used to treat allergies except _____.
A)antihistamines
B)inhaled corticosteroids
C)H receptor antagonists
D)leukotriene modifiers
Q4) Urticaria is treated by which of the following pharmacological agents?
A)H receptor antagonists
B)H receptor antagonists
C)glucocorticoids
D)a and c
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Chapter 30: Treatment of Prostate Disease and Erectile
Dysfunction
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Q1) Which of the following is not a benefit of -adrenergic antagonists for the treatment of BPH?
A)relaxation of the prostate gland
B)increase of urethral resistance
C)improvement in flow of urine
D)relaxation of smooth muscle of the bladder
Q2) An inflamed or infected prostate gland is termed _____.
A)prostatomegaly
B)prostatitis
C)adenoprostitis
D)prostatodynia
Q3) Alprostadil is formulated for _____.
A)oral administration
B)intraurethral insertion
C)intracavernosal injection
D)b and c
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Chapter 31: Treatment of Fluid and Electrolyte Disorders
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17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36001
Sample Questions
Q1) Chloride is lost in all of the following ways except _____.
A)urine
B)saliva
C)sweat
D)stomach secretions
Q2) The two major fluid compartments of the body are termed extracellular fluid and _____ fluid.
A)intervascular
B)intercellular
C)intracellular
D)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following electrolytes is present in greatest concentration within the cell and is the second most abundant intracellular cation after potassium?
A)sodium
B)calcium
C)bicarbonate
D)magnesium
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Chapter 32: Treatment of Thyroid Disorders
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15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36002
Sample Questions
Q1) Thyroid levels are tightly controlled by the _____ feedback loop.
A)negative
B)positive
C)neurotransmitter
D)a and b
Q2) Which thyroid drug(s)may produce a dangerous drop in white blood cells (agranulocytosis)that increases the risk for serious infection?
A)methimazole and PTU
B)Cytomel
C)Synthroid
D)Thyrolar
Q3) Synthroid
Q4) Which of the following drugs does not interact with thyroid hormones?
A)ferrous products
B)calcium supplements
C)cholesterol-lowering products
D)antineoplastic products
Q5) Armour
Q6) Tyrolar
Q7) Tapazole
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) stimulates the pancreas to secrete insulin when blood sugar levels are high,slows the emptying of the stomach,and causes decreased appetite
Q2) Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of metabolism that involves _____ utilization.
A)protein
B)glucose
C)fat
D)all of the above
Q3) increases insulin release and decreases glucagon levels by potentiating the activity of peptide hormones that are released in response to eating a meal
Q4) _____ is the most common form of diabetes and accounts for 90% to 95% of all diabetes
A)Gestational diabetes
B)Type 2 diabetes
C)Type 1 diabetes
D)Diabetes insipidus
Q5) stimulates insulin secretion for pancreatic ß-cells,similar to sulfonylureas
Q6) increases tissue sensitivity to insulin but does not increases insulin secretion
Q7) slows gastric emptying,reduces postprandial glucagon secretion,and reduces appetite
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Chapter 34: Drugs That Affect the Reproductive System
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36004
Sample Questions
Q1) The world's most widely used method of reversible birth control currently used by 160 million women is the _____.
A)pill
B)diaphragm
C)intrauterine device
D)patch
Q2) Ortho-Evra
Q3) Condoms offer no protection from sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Diaphragms are associated with a decreased risk of urinary tract infection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Oil-based products should not be used with latex diaphragms.
A)True
B)False
Q6) clomiphene
Q7) GNRH analog
Q8) Danazol
Q9) bromocriptine Page 41
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Bacterial Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fluoroquinolones are not formulated for which route of administration?
A)oral
B)parenteral
C)topical
D)ophthalmic
Q2) Which of the following drugs is not a ß-lactamase inhibitor?
A)clavulanic acid
B)sulbactam
C)Azactam
D)tazobactam
Q3) Fluoroquinolones' mechanism of action is to _____.
A)inhibit the enzyme DNA gyrase
B)bind to the enzyme kinase
C)inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis
D)a and c
Q4) levofloxacin
Q5) azithromycin
Q6) doxycycline
Q7) clindamycin
Q8) telithromycin
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Chapter 36: Treatment of Viral Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antiretroviral therapy is a life-long commitment and requires strict adherence to treatment regimens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) didanosine
Q3) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)is the virus that causes acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS).The virus attacks _____and weakens the immune system.
A)CD4 monocytes
B)CD4 T lymphocytes
C)CD2 T lymphocytes
D)none of the above
Q4) cidofovir
Q5) Interferons are classified as antiviral agents.
A)True
B)False
Q6) There are eight steps in the HIV life cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q7) interferon
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Chapter 37: Treatment of Cancers
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most treatable form of skin cancer is _____.
A)melanoma
B)dermatome
C)Kaposi's sarcoma
D)nonmelanoma
Q2) _____ is approved for treatment of inoperable,metastatic endometrial cancer and renal cell cancer.
A)Megestrol
B)Medroxyprogesterone acetate
C)Mitomycin
D)Myleran
Q3) Endometrial cancer most commonly affects _____ women.
A)postmenopausal
B)menopausal
C)young adult
D)any of the above
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Chapter 38: Vaccines,immunomodulators,and Immunosuppressants
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following vaccines are inactivated,killed vaccines except _____.
A)flu
B)hepatitis A
C)polio
D)diphtheria
Q2) cyclosporine
Q3) Mycophenolic acid is an immunosuppressive agent that inhibits the enzyme required for synthesis of purines needed for _____.
A)T-cell proliferation
B)B-cell proliferation
C)B-cell antibodies
D)a and b
Q4) Which of the following drugs is used to improve survival rates for individuals with organ transplants and works by suppressing cell destruction in graft-versus-host reactions?
A)tacrolimus
B)cyclosporine
C)Atgam
D)CellCept
Q5) anakinra
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Chapter 39: Treatment of Fungal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Women taking a broad-spectrum antibiotic for a bacterial infection may develop _____ as a result.
A)a yeast infection
B)a rash
C)onychomycosis
D)thrush
Q2) Which of the following is true about dermatophytes?
A)They live on the top layer of the skin,hair,and nails.
B)They are usually found in the mouth.
C)They thrive in the vaginal mucosa.
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) Candida is called yeast and is a fungus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ is the only antifungal belonging to the thiocarbamate class.
A)Tolnaftate
B)Thionate
C)Thymolate
D)Tolecinate
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Chapter 40: Treatment of Decubitus Ulcers and Burns
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Sample Questions
Q1) A second-degree burn is a full-thickness burn.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Burns that are characterized by destruction of both the epidermis and dermis are _____ burns.
A)first-degree
B)second-degree
C)third-degree
D)b and c
Q3) The risk of complication for burns is greatest when more than _____ of the body surface is burned.
A)25%
B)35%
C)40%
D)50%
Q4) In which age group does the "rule of nines" work best?
A)children
B)adolescents
C)adults
D)all of the above
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Chapter 41: Treatment of Acne
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common acne,or acne vulgaris,occurs most frequently in the _____ years as a result of overactive secretion by the sebaceous glands,accompanied by blockages and inflammation of their ducts.
A)prepuberty years
B)adolescent years
C)young adulthood
D)menopausal
Q2) Tiny little bumps that occur when normally sloughed skin cells become trapped in small pockets on the surface of the skin and are common in newborns are called
A)milia
B)heat rash
C)papules
D)lunula
Q3) Isotretinoin is classified in FDA pregnancy category _____ drug.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
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Chapter 42: Treatment of Eczema and Psoriasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is not the mechanism of action for pimecrolimus and tacrolimus?
A)inhibits t-cell activation
B)increases production of cytokines and interleukins
C)inhibit skin cell turnover
D)increases production of interferons
Q2) What kind of disorder is an atopic disease?
A)chemical
B)autoimmune
C)bacterial infection
D)genetic
Q3) alclometasone dipropionate
Q4) All of the following are nonpharmacological treatments for eczema except _____.
A)allergy shots
B)skin care regimens
C)phototherapy
D)avoidance of irritants
Q5) anthralin
Q6) desonide
Q7) calcipotriene
Q8) halobetasol propionate
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Chapter 43: Treatment of Lice and Scabies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals can get pubic lice from sitting on public toilet seats.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The life cycle of a head louse is about _____ weeks.
A)1 to 2
B)2 to 3
C)3 to 5
D)4 to 6
Q3) A _____ is an organism benefits by living in,with,or on another organism (host),usually to the detriment of the host.
A)parasite
B)protozoa
C)proteus
D)bacterium
Q4) Which of the following is/are true about Malathion?
A)It is used in agriculture.
B)It is used medically to kill head lice.
C)It is no longer on the market in Canada.
D)All of the above are true.
Q5) Ovide
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