Pharmacy Technician Certification Preparation
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides comprehensive preparation for students seeking to become certified pharmacy technicians. Covering key topics such as pharmacy law and ethics, medication classifications, dosage calculations, prescription processing, inventory management, and customer service, the course is designed to align with the national certification exam objectives. Students will engage in practical exercises, interactive lectures, and practice exams, building both the knowledge and confidence needed to succeed in a pharmacy setting. Upon completion, participants will be well-equipped to take the Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam (PTCE) and pursue a rewarding career in pharmacy practice.
Recommended Textbook
Mosbys Pharmacy Technician Principles and Practice 4th Edition by Elsevier
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895 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: History of Medicine and Pharmacy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following choices best describes sources of materials for remedies in ancient times?
A)Chemicals, minerals, and vitamins
B)Minerals, animals, and plant parts
C)Bodies of water, plant parts, and dirt
D)Prayer, bones, and plant parts
Answer: B
Q2) In early American history, many people died of mercury poisoning, since mercury was used to treat:
A)Diphtheria
B)Dysentery
C)Malaria
D)Syphilis
Answer: D
Q3) Who is considered the "Father of Medicine?"
A)Hercules
B)Hippocrates
C)Asclepius
D)Aristotle
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Pharmacy Law, Ethics, and Regulatory Agencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many years does the pharmacy need to retain invoices for scheduled drug purchases?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)7
Answer: B
Q2) The purchase of pseudoephedrine is limited to:
A)3.6 g per calendar day
B)9 g per 30 days from a retailer
C)7.5 g per 30 days by mail order
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Which pregnancy category has the highest risk of teratogenicity?
A)X
B)B C)C
D)D
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Competencies, Associations, and Settings for Technicians
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organizations was founded in 1999 by technicians for technicians?
A)National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP)
B)American Pharmacists Association (APhA)
C)American Association of Pharmacy Technicians (AAPT)
D)National Pharmacy Technician Association (NPTA)
Answer: D
Q2) All of the following statements are true about the Pharmacy Technician Certification Examination (PTCE) except:
A)The PTCE consists of 90 multiple-choice questions.
B)The PTCE is a 2-hour process.
C)All math is performed without a calculator.
D)The PTCE is a computer-based examination.
Answer: C
Q3) The measure of professionalism includes:
A)Attitude
B)Level of competence
C)Interpersonal skills
D)All of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Communication and Role of the Technician
With the Customerpatient
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Q1) Good communication skills include:
A)Compassion
B)Diplomacy
C)Patience
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is an open-ended question?
A)Do you have any medication allergies?
B)Are you covered by medical insurance?
C)Have you had any prescriptions filled here?
D)Where do you normally get your prescriptions filled?
Q3) The best communicators:
A)Use a monotone voice.
B)Speak very fast.
C)Speak very clearly in a low-pitched voice.
D)Speak loudly.
Q4) Which of the following negatively impacts written communication?
A)Illegible handwriting
B)Grammatical errors
C)Typographical errors
D)All of the above
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Chapter 5: Dosage Forms and Routes of Administration
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Q1) Caplet refers to a(n):
A)Little capsule
B)Different-shaped tablet
C)Easy-to-swallow form of tablet
D)B and C
Q2) Which of the following is not a type of capsule?
A)Gelatin
B)Pulvule
C)Caplet
D)Spansule
Q3) A dosage that can be safely split in half is a(n):
A)Delayed-release tablet
B)Capsule
C)Enteric-coated tablet
D)Scored tablet
Q4) Dosage forms appropriate for children include:
A)Liquids
B)Spansules
C)Chewable tablets
D)All of the above
7
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Chapter 6: Conversions and Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many milliliters of 10% dextrose is needed to prepare 1 L of 50% dextrose from a mixture of 10% dextrose in water (D W) and 70% dextrose in water (D W)?
A)222
B)333
C)667
D)778
Q2) One fluid ounce is equivalent to _____ milliliters.
A)5
B)10
C)15
D)30
Q3) The numerical value of any conversion factor is always:
A)One
B)Two
C)Five
D)Ten
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Chapter 7: Drug Information References
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Sample Questions
Q1) The category of a drug, which is based on its chemical structure, mechanism of action, anatomic function, and/or therapeutic use, is called its:
A)Classification
B)Drug category
C)Assignment
D)Monograph
Q2) Which of the following reference books would a technician most likely use in a retail setting?
A)Handbook on Injectable Drugs
B)AHFS Drug Information
C)Red Book Drug Topics
D)Remington's Pharmaceutical Sciences
Q3) The American Hospital Formulary Service Drug Information provides drug monographs that list drug information including all except which one of the following?
A)Spectrum and resistance for antibiotics
B)Mechanism of action
C)Laboratory and test references
D)Wholesale cost of medications
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9
Chapter 8: Community Pharmacy Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best procedure to follow when a customer brings in a prescription for a medication that is not in stock?
A)Give the prescription back, and suggest another pharmacy.
B)Offer to order the medication.
C)Locate the medication from another pharmacy.
D)B or C
Q2) The second set of numbers in the National Drug Code (NDC) number identifies:
A)Drug manufacturer
B)Specific product information
C)Drug packaging
D)All of the above
Q3) One 14.7 g Combivent inhaler contains 200 actuations. What is the days' supply for the following prescription: sig 2 inh qid?
A)12
B)25
C)30
D)45
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10
Chapter 9: Institutional Pharmacy Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is not a benefit of using an automated dispensing system (ADS)?
A)Decreases errors.
B)Saves money.
C)Decreases patient wait time.
D)Simplifies inventory control.
Q2) All of the following statements are true regarding investigational drug use except:
A)A logbook must be maintained for each investigational drug.
B)All steps must be performed by a pharmacist.
C)All medication must be returned to the sponsor upon completion of the study.
D)Investigational drugs must be separately stored from other drugs.
Q3) Computerized physician order entry (CPOE) is being promoted because it:
A)Is no longer necessary to decipher illegible handwriting.
B)Is more expensive.
C)Checks for drug interactions and contraindications.
D)A and C
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11
Chapter 10: Additional Pharmacy Practice Settings
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Q1) Employing a medication reconciliation technician can help prevent:
A)Drug omissions and duplications
B)Dosing errors
C)Drug-drug interactions
D)All of the above
Q2) Between 2010 and 2020, the expected employment growth in the pharmacy technician field is:
A)18%
B)32%
C)55%
D)74%
Q3) Which of the following advanced practice positions involve(s) communication with patients?
A)Pharmacy purchasing agent
B)Medication reconciliation technician
C)Managed care pharmacy technician
D)B and C
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12
Chapter 11: Bulk Repackaging and Non-Sterile
Compounding
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Sample Questions
Q1) When combining two or more ingredients that have different melting points, the ingredients are:
A)Placed in a container and melted together.
B)Melted from the lowest to the highest melting point.
C)Melted from the highest to the lowest melting point.
D)Mixed; the order of mixing is not important.
Q2) Which of the following is not a taste that may need to be masked in medicines?
A)Sweet
B)Salty
C)Sour
D)Bitter
Q3) Which of the following methods is not used to prepare suppositories?
A)Hand-rolling
B)Punch
C)Compression
D)Fusion-molding
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Chapter 12: Aseptic Technique and Sterile Compounding
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percent isopropyl alcohol should be used when cleaning a horizontal laminar airflow hood?
A)50
B)70
C)90
D)100
Q2) In which of the following setting(s) is(are) pharmacy technicians likely to prepare CSPs?
A)Home health services
B)Long-term care
C)Hospitals
D)All of the above
Q3) How many times may a filter needle be used before being replaced with a regular needle?
A)1
B)2
C)5
D)10
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14
Chapter 13: Pharmacy Billing and Inventory Management
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of flexible spending accounts?
A)The government limits the amount of money a person can put into these accounts each calendar year.
B)The money is there for as long as the person needs it.
C)Restrictions are placed on what services are covered.
D)The plans are similar to a savings account.
Q2) Which one of the following is not a valid reason to return a medication to the warehouse or manufacturer for credit?
A)Drug was recalled
B)Drug expired
C)Drug was incorrectly reconstituted
D)Drug was damaged during delivery
Q3) PPO means:
A)Preferred provider option
B)Preferred provider organization
C)Preferred physician option
D)Preferred physician organization
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Medication Safety and Error Prevention
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Q1) Medication errors frequently involve which of the following?
A)Allergies
B)Multiple medications
C)OTC medications
D)All of the above
Q2) Which one of the following would not constitute a medication error?
A)An extra dose of antibiotic is given to a patient after the stop date but causes no harm to the patient.
B)A unit-dose medication is returned from the nursing floor for credit and is reused.
C)Too much heparin is given to a patient, which results in a stroke.
D)All are medication errors.
Q3) Pictograms are:
A)Pictures of drug products that are included in drug reference books
B)Standardized graphics that represent how to take, when to take, and how to store a medication
C)Hieroglyphics
D)Pictures that can be sent to an emergency department to identify an unknown medication
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Chapter 15: Therapeutic Agents for the Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following drugs used as anticonvulsants require the auxiliary label: "Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient for whom it was prescribed."
A)valproic acid (Depakote)
B)levetiracetam (Keppra)
C)topiramate (Topamax)
D)diazepam (Valium)
Q2) What are the two primary divisions of the nervous system?
A)CNS and PNS
B)SNS and PSNS
C)Afferent and efferent
D)Brain and spinal cord
Q3) Which of the following is not a tricyclic antidepressant?
A)amitriptyline (Elavil)
B)doxepin (Sinequan)
C)nortriptyline (Aventyl)
D)phenelzine (Nardil)
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Chapter 16: Therapeutic Agents for the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The classic symptoms of hyperglycemia that can lead to a diagnosis of T DM include:
A)Polydipsia
B)Polyuria
C)Polyphagia
D)All of the above
Q2) Calcium levels are maintained by:
A)Calcitonin
B)Vitamin D
C)Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
D)All of the above
Q3) Aldosterone:
A)Is a glucocorticoid.
B)Maintains sodium and magnesium levels.
C)Stimulates the kidneys to conserve sodium and excrete potassium.
D)Is all of the above.
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18
Chapter 17: Therapeutic Agents for the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true about gout except:
A)Gout is a form of arthritis.
B)It can be exacerbated by the intake of alcohol.
C)Gout is not related to diet.
D)It can be treated with colchicine.
Q2) Opioid analgesics:
A)Treat the cause of the pain.
B)Are scheduled and potentially addictive medications.
C)Block the perception of pain in the CNS.
D)Both B and C accurately describe opioid analgesics.
Q3) What is the most severe side effect of opioid medications?
A)Gastrointestinal (GI) upset
B)Respiratory depression
C)Drowsiness
D)Constipation
Q4) Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
A)Structural support and protection
B)Facilitates movement
C)Storage site for sodium and potassium
D)Storage bank for calcium and phosphorus
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Chapter 18: Therapeutic Agents for the Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The common generic ending -pril is associated with:
A)ACE inhibitors
B)ARBs
C)Beta-blockers
D)Calcium channel blockers
Q2) Atherosclerosis:
A)Is a thickening and hardening of artery walls.
B)Involves a buildup of lipids and platelets in the arteries.
C)Is a type of arteriosclerosis.
D)All of the above are accurate descriptions of atherosclerosis.
Q3) Requirements for dispensing NTG sublingual (NTG SL) tablets include:
A)Placing the label on the original container to dispense
B)Protecting the tablets from heat and light
C)Placing the original container inside a plastic prescription vial, without a safety cap, and labeling this vial
D)B and C
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20
Chapter 19: Therapeutic Agents for the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication is now sold in controlled amounts attributable to its misuse in the making of the street drug methamphetamine?
A)Phenylephrine
B)Oxymetazoline
C)Pseudoephedrine
D)Diphenhydramine
Q2) Singulair is a:
A)Leukotriene inhibitor
B)Xanthine
C)Mast cell stabilizer
D)Corticosteroid
Q3) Rebound congestion is when a person:
A)Becomes more congested over night
B)Becomes more congested with each illness
C)Experiences a worsening of congestion as a result of an overuse of nasal decongestants
D)None of the above
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21
Chapter 20: Therapeutic Agents for the Gastrointestinal System
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Q1) Use of which of the following medications can contribute to the development of ulcers?
A)NSAIDs
B)Alcohol
C)Diuretics
D)Laxatives
Q2) The organs most involved in the absorption of nutrients are:
A)Mouth and salivary glands
B)Stomach and small intestines
C)Large intestine
D)Anus
Q3) Adalimumab (Humira) for the treatment of Crohn disease is a(an):
A)Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a) inhibitor
B)Alpha-4 integrin antagonist
C)5-Aminosalicylate
D)Antispasmodic medication
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Chapter 21: Therapeutic Agents for the Renal System
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Q1) What is a possible side effect of all diuretics?
A)Hypokalemia
B)Hypotension
C)Photosensitivity
D)Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
Q2) Which of the following treatments for an overactive bladder (OAB) is available in an OTC patch?
A)oxybutynin
B)tolterodine
C)trospium chloride
D)darifenacin
Q3) Cations include ______________, and anions include ______________.
A)Positively charged ions; negatively charged ions
B)Negatively charged ions; positively charged ions
C)Sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+); and chloride (Cl-) and bicarbonate (HCO3-)
D)A and C
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Chapter 22: Therapeutic Agents for the Reproductive System
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Q1) Which one of the following statements is not true regarding the application of the contraceptive patch Ortho Evra?
A)The Ortho Evra patch can be applied to the upper arm, back, abdomen, or buttocks.
B)One patch is used for a period of 3 weeks.
C)The fourth week should be patch free.
D)A new patch should be applied at the beginning of each of the first 3 weeks.
Q2) Which of the following statements is(are) true concerning sperm production?
A)Sperm production begins before the age of puberty and decreases with age.
B)Sperm production begins at puberty and ends at approximately 70 years of age.
C)All sperm are present at birth.
D)Sperm production begins at birth and never stops.
Q3) Which of the following statements is(are) not true of testosterone?
A)Testosterone is responsible for sperm maturation.
B)It is responsible for a boy's voice changing.
C)Testosterone increases muscle development.
D)The testes are responsible for the production of testosterone.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Therapeutic Agents for the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many diseases that were previously responsible for illnesses and deaths are now rare because:
A)Immunizations have widespread use.
B)Humans have naturally developed antibodies.
C)Better sanitation practices exist worldwide today.
D)More people visit physicians.
Q2) Which of the following statements does not describe the spleen?
A)The spleen contains macrophages.
B)It is made up of red pulp and white pulp.
C)The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ.
D)It filters blood cells at the beginning of their life cycle.
Q3) Which of the following is(are) autoimmune disorders?
A)Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
B)Psoriasis
C)Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
D)All of the above
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25
Chapter 24: Therapeutic Agents for the Eyes, Ears, Nose, and
Throat
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Q1) Ketoprofen and flurbiprofen are ophthalmic:
A)Antihistamines
B)Steroids
C)Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
D)Antibiotics
Q2) Acute bacterial sinusitis:
A)Primarily develops as a secondary infection after an upper respiratory viral infection.
B)Will typically improve after 7 to 10 days without treatment.
C)Is easy to distinguish from viral sinusitis.
D)Does not include congestion and fever.
Q3) The otic analgesic solution Auralgan is:
A)Antipyrine and benzocaine
B)Cefdinir
C)Acetic acid
D)Isopropyl alcohol and anhydrous glycerin
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Chapter 25: Therapeutic Agents for the Dermatologic System
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Q1) Which auxiliary label(s) is(are) needed on a prescription for tetracycline for acne?
A)Do not take with dairy products.
B)Do not take within 4 hours of antacids or iron products.
C)Avoid sunlight.
D)All of the above auxiliary labels are needed.
Q2) Topical salicylic acid and benzoyl peroxide preparations can be used in the treatment of:
A)Acne
B)Impetigo
C)Psoriasis
D)A and B
Q3) Adalimumab, golimumab, and ustekinumab for psoriasis are all administered:
A)Orally
B)Topically
C)Subcutaneously
D)Intramuscularly
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Chapter 26: Therapeutic Agents for the Hematologic System
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Q1) The combination therapies of adriamycin, bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine (ABVD) and mustard, oncovin , procarbazine, and prednisone (MOPP) are commonly used for:
A)Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B)Chronic myeloid leukemia
C)Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
D)Hodgkin disease
Q2) Which one of the following statements is true concerning leukemia?
A)Leukemia is a genetic disorder.
B)It is caused by environmental factors.
C)Both genetic and environmental factors can contribute to the development of leukemia.
D)Leukemia is contagious.
Q3) Granulocytopenia is a reduction in the number of:
A)Neutrophils
B)Eosinophils
C)Basophils
D)All of the above
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Chapter 27: Over-The Counter OTC Medications
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true regarding OTC sleep aids?
A)Many sleep aids contain antihistamines.
B)Sleep aids cause drowsiness.
C)Many contain acetaminophen.
D)Sleep aids are approved for chronic insomnia.
Q2) OTC medications that are also available as prescription formulations often have:
A)Lower strengths
B)Different indications for use
C)Different active ingredients
D)A and B
Q3) Which of the following second-generation antihistamines are available in OTC strengths?
A)Claritin
B)Allegra
C)Zyrtec
D)All of the above
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Chapter 28: Complementary and Alternative Medicine
Cam
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Q1) All of the following are natural products except:
A)Herbs
B)Vitamins and minerals
C)Acetaminophen
D)Probiotics
Q2) Which of the following individuals should definitely seek counseling before initiating herbal therapy?
A)Pregnant women
B)Individuals taking anticoagulant medications
C)Those with high blood pressure
D)All of the above
Q3) A CAM approach that might include dream evaluation and questions about taste and smells is:
A)Traditional Chinese medicine
B)Homeopathy
C)Ayurveda
D)Biofeedback
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Page 30