Pharmacy Practice
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacy Practice is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the foundational principles and practical skills necessary for effective pharmacy care. The course covers the roles and responsibilities of pharmacists, patient counseling, prescription processing, drug information retrieval, and ethical and legal considerations in pharmacy practice. Emphasis is placed on communication skills, medication safety, and the application of pharmaceutical care in various settings, including community and hospital pharmacies. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and practical exercises, students develop the competencies required to optimize patient health outcomes as integral members of the healthcare team.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Pharmacology 8th Edition by
Shane Bullock
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Sociocultural Aspects
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is best to learn about pharmacology with reference to what particular type of medication names?
A) Chemical names
B) Brand names
C) Generic names
D) Proprietary names
Answer: C
Q2) What is meant by the term 'de facto direct-to-consumer advertising'?
A) When a professional pharmacy body advertises in a popular magazine about a particular medicine.
B) When a professional nursing body advertises in a nursing journal about a particular medicine.
C) When a pharmaceutical company provides information about specific characteristics of a particular medication in the popular media but does not mention the name of the medication.
D) When a professional pharmacy body provides information about specific characteristics of a particular medication in the popular media but does not mention the name of the medication.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Health Professionals and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pharmacy medicines are substances that:
A) are available for use but require restriction of manufacture, supply, distribution, possession and use to reduce abuse, misuse and physical or psychological dependence.
B) require professional advice from a pharmacist and should be available from a pharmacy or, where a pharmacy service is not available, from a licensed person.
C) are provided on the order of persons permitted by legislation to prescribe and should be available from a pharmacist on prescription.
D) have a 2 potential for causing harm, the extent of which can be reduced through the use of distinctive packaging with strong warnings and safety directions.
Answer: B
Q2) Australian regulations require nursing staff to maintain a ward register for administration of controlled drugs and periodically check the balance of ampoules,tablets and volumes of liquid.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Ethical Issues
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Q1) The doctor tells the health professional to administer excessive doses of opioid analgesic and sedative drugs to relieve the client's intractable pain,but not to tell the client's family.Which ethical principle would be breached if the health professional gives the drugs but does not tell the family?
A) Veracity
B) Confidentiality
C) Justice
D) Beneficence
Answer: A
Q2) Macroallocation and microallocation of resources are principles related to what aspect of ethical conduct?
A) Autonomy
B) Beneficence
C) Veracity
D) Justice
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
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Q1) In their role as client advocate,health professionals inform people about their rights in relation to drug therapy,other health care-related matters,or when confronted by adversaries,to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A client is recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.Her mother has also been diagnosed some years ago.Which of the following teaching principles will be most helpful in client teaching?
A) Passive participation
B) Prior knowledge and experience
C) Repetition will not be required.
D) The patient is genetically predisposed to be prepared for accompanying pain.
Q3) Which of the following factors has an effect on medication adherence? Select all that apply.
A) Age extremes
B) Communication barriers
C) Polypharmacy
D) Single illness with uncomplicated treatment regimen
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Chapter 5: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
Professionals in Medicine Management
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Q1) Which of the following healthcare workers have some prescribing rights,are able to order context-specific pathology and radiology tests,and are able to make limited referrals?
A) assistant in nursing
B) registered nurse
C) nurse practitioner
D) nurse researcher
Q2) Which of the following health professionals treat clients having temporary or permanent physical disability by physical treatment modalities (such as exercise,massage,splinting and electrical stimulation)that often require supplementary drug therapy?
A) Prescriber
B) Nurse
C) Physiotherapist
D) Paramedic
Q3) The educational preparation for a nurse practitioner is:
A) a Master's degree.
B) a Bachelor's degree.
C) extensive training in the clinical setting.
D) a professional doctorate.
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Chapter 6: Medicine Formulations, Storage and Routes of Administration
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Q1) Nasal preparations are not absorbed systemically.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Drugs of biological origin such as vaccine preparations need to be stored
A) between 25°C and 37°C.
B) at room temperature.
C) between 10°C and 20°C.
D) between 0°C and 4°C.
Q3) Sustained or controlled-release medication should not be crushed or chewed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following routes of drug administration is recommended for a rapid drug effect?
A) Intradermal
B) Intravenous
C) Oral
D) Topical
Q5) What effect does exercise have on absorption of a drug that is administered by intramuscular injection?
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Chapter 7: the Clinical Decision-making Process
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT representative of the 'quality use of' facet of the National Medicines Policy?
A) Only focusing on drug therapy
B) Choosing suitable medicines
C) Safe use of medicines
D) Effective use of medicines
Q2) The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:
A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Australia's National Medicines Policy?
A) Timely access to the medicines that Australians need, at a cost individuals and the community can afford
B) Medicines meeting appropriate standards of quality, safety and efficacy
C) Quality use of medicines
D) Consumers and health professionals communicating effectively about medicines management
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Medicine Administration Strategies and Documentation
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Q1) A health professional is required to practice within the policies and procedures of the health care agency and to follow the legal framework of government legislation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many registered nurses are needed to check information for administration of drugs such as narcotic analgesics,digoxin and warfarin?
A) None
B) One
C) Two
D) More than five
Q3) Sympathomimetic agents such as adrenaline,noradrenaline and dopamine,which are commonly used in critical care areas,cannot be given through a peripheral vein because:
A) it would be difficult for the nurse to control the flow rate of a peripheral infusion.
B) a volumetric pump cannot be connected to a peripheral intravenous line.
C) there is greater risk of infection around the cannula site.
D) the agents can cause permanent necrosis of extremities.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to avoid medication errors,it is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:
A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.
Q2) Which of the following are potential sources of medical errors? Select all that apply.
A) The wrong dose of a medication is given.
B) The person's identity is not checked.
C) The manufacturer changes inert ingredients.
D) The person takes all of their medicines at the same time every day.
Q3) Following the five rights"will help reduce medication errors.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Management of Common Adverse Drug
Reactions
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Q1) Which drug is the most common cause of an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Aspirin
B) Contrast media
C) Penicillin
D) Transfused blood
Q2) A common adverse drug reaction is hypertension.The drug therapy for treatment of hypertension may include the following EXCEPT:
A) -adrenoreceptor agonists.
B) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
C) calcium antagonists.
D) -adrenoreceptor antagonists.
Q3) Aplastic anaemia caused by chloramphenicol is an example of type B adverse drug reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the mainstay of treatment for anaphylactic shock?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Adrenaline
C) Salbutamol
D) Promethazine
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Chapter 11: Risk Communication: Balancing the Benefits and Risks of Drug Treatment
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Q1) Relative risk refers to the ratio of the incidence of an adverse event occurring in individuals taking a medication as compared to individuals not taking a medication having the same adverse event.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following strategies would NOT be beneficial in communicating risks and benefits to individuals?
A) Offer balanced information.
B) Use specific, descriptive terms for risk.
C) Use a consistent denominator.
D) Use visual aids.
Q3) Another name for absolute risk is risk difference.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An example of a medication that has been scrutinised for risk-benefit analysis is:
A) insulin.
B) warfarin.
C) alendronate.
D) prednisone.
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Chapter 12: Drug Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individual drugs can be classified according to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and New Zealand?
A) Frusemide
B) Furomide
C) Furosemide
D) Lasix
Q3) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
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Chapter 13: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption and Distribution
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Q1) If a drug accumulates in one tissue (that is,the drug is extensively bound to a tissue),its volume of distribution is low.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Drugs are best absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract if they are:
A) hydrophilic.
B) amphipathic.
C) lipophobic.
D) lipophilic.
Q3) Drugs that are liver enzyme inducers may:
A) increase a drug's half-life.
B) increase a drug's metabolism.
C) inhibit a drug's therapeutic effect.
D) increase tissue distribution of another drug.
Q4) By which route are drugs not subject to the physiological process of absorption through a blood vessel wall?
A) Intramuscularly
B) Intradermally
C) Intravenously
D) Subcutaneously
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Chapter 14: Pharmacokinetics Metabolism and Excretion
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Q1) Drugs are metabolised by the liver to make them more:
A) amphipathic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) lipophilic.
D) hydrophobic.
Q2) Clearance of an acidic drug by the kidneys may be increased by:
A) alkalising the urine.
B) administering amphetamines.
C) administering ascorbic acid.
D) administering sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Q3) Which of the following drugs is not excreted by the lungs?
A) Ethanol
B) Salbutamol
C) Isoflurane
D) Metoprolol
Q4) Explain what is meant by drug clearance.
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Chapter 15: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The drug interactions that occur with cimetidine are usually due to:
A) enzyme inhibition.
B) enzyme induction.
C) protein binding.
D) summation.
Q2) A common drug-food interaction is between grapefruit juice and:
A) aspirin.
B) paracetamol.
C) felodipine.
D) ibuprofen.
Q3) In which way can hepatic enzymes be altered by drug metabolism?
A) Can cause enhancement or inhibition of metabolism
B) Can interact with the external environment
C) Are only altered in conjunction with food
D) Are only considered with regard to synergistic effects between drugs
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Chapter 16: Pharmacodynamics
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Q1) Pharmacological effect is achieved by:
A) the portion of free or unbound drug.
B) the portion of protein-bound drug.
C) ionisation.
D) penetrating the blood-brain barrier.
Q2) The extent of binding of a drug to a receptor is termed:
A) potency.
B) specificity.
C) affinity.
D) efficacy.
Q3) Pharmacodynamics describes the physiological processes that act on a drug once it enters the body,or how the body handles the drug.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some terms that describe interactions between drugs and receptors include: (Select all that apply)
A) antagonism.
B) agonism.
C) first mechanism
D) first messenger
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Chapter 17: Drug Development, Evaluation and Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of a drug to produce an effect at a receptor is referred to as:
A) affinity.
B) specificity.
C) efficacy.
D) potency.
Q2) Into which medicines in pregnancy category is a drug assigned that has caused or is suspected of causing fetal harm,but not malformations?
A) Category B
B) Category C
C) Category D
D) Category X
Q3) Which form of hypersensitivity reaction is characterised by antibody-antigen complexes that precipitate out of the blood and lodge in tissues such as skin and joints,inducing an inflammatory response?
A) Type I hypersensitivity reactions
B) Type II hypersensitivity reactions
C) Type III hypersensitivity reactions
D) Type IV hypersensitivity reactions
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19
Chapter 18: Genetic Considerations in Pharmacology
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Q1) Cost-effectiveness is a potential barrier to genetic-based therapies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Somatic gene therapy uses what form of cells?
A) Sperm cells
B) Psychosomatic cells
C) Somatic cells
D) Ovarian cells
Q3) Two techniques used in gene therapy include in vitro and vector methods.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The types of gene therapy include:
A) somatic and germline.
B) psychosomatic and germline.
C) somatic and viraline.
D) psychosomatic and viraline.
Q5) If a person who has an inherited disorder wished to minimise the odds of passing that genetic materials to their offspring,germline therapy will be of no use.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Pharmacokinetic Factors That Modify Drug Action
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Q1) Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of drug absorption from the small intestines?
A) A small-sized drug molecule
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) An increase in gut blood flow
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state
Q2) During pregnancy,drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Paediatric and Geriatric Pharmacology
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Q1) In geriatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) arrange for all drugs to be dispensed to clients in childproof containers.
B) administer all drugs to all clients so that they can concentrate on resting and getting better.
C) encourage the client to learn about their medications prior to discharge.
D) use the deltoid muscle for intramuscular injection in a client with muscle wasting.
Q2) In neonates and infants,drug absorption through the skin is:
A) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
B) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.
C) reduced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
D) reduced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.
Q3) Paediatric drug dosage can be calculated by using the body surface area,age and bodyweight.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Poisoning and Envenomation
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Q1) Which of the following best characterizes the mode of action of cyanide poisoning?
A) Central nervous system depressant
B) Displaces essential trace elements and accumulates in tissues
C) Permanently disables the enzyme cholinesterase
D) Diminishes cellular energy
Q2) Which of the following best characterises the main principles associated with the emergency management of poisoning?
A) Life support, clinical assessment, decontamination and detoxification, neutralisation and elimination of the poison
B) The monitoring of adverse effects after ingestion of the poison
C) The identification of the chemical associated with the poisoning and administration of decontaminating agents
D) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following is an iron chelating agent?
A) Disodium edetate
B) Deferasirox
C) d-penicillamine
D) Calcium gluconate
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Chapter 22: the Management of Acute Clinical Overdose
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Q1) The principle of management of clinical drug overdose that takes precedence over all others is:
A) life support.
B) patient assessment.
C) drug detoxification.
D) drug elimination.
Q2) Which one of the following is NOT a component of patient assessment in the management of clinical drug overdose?
A) Determining the time that poisoning occurred
B) Determining if the client had any previous episodes of drug overdose
C) Recognising the clinical manifestations of the overdose
D) Ordering laboratory tests of the patient's blood
Q3) A specific antidote for an overdose of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is:
A) physostigmine.
B) atropine.
C) acetylcysteine.
D) naloxone.
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24
Chapter 23: Contemporary Drugs of Abuse
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Q1) Which of the following medications can be used to treat alcohol addiction?
A) Metronidazole
B) Disulfiram
C) Acamprosate
D) Both B and C
Q2) Nicotine can have the following effect EXCEPT:
A) weight gain.
B) stimulation.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) appetite suppression.
Q3) Which of the following is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal?
A) Hallucinations
B) Palpitations
C) Headaches
D) Muscle tremors
Q4) Therapeutic uses of marijuana include:
A) glaucoma.
B) emesis control.
C) hypertension.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 24: Drug Abuse in Sport
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Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT usually given by sportspeople as a reason for drug doping?
A) To increase popularity amongst peers
B) To gain a competitive edge
C) To cope with stress
D) Dissatisfaction with current performance
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to detection of drug use in sport?
A) Individual differences in pharmacokinetics affect the results of drug tests.
B) Sportswomen can use some drugs on the WADA banned list that sportsmen cannot.
C) Peptide hormone misuse can be difficult to detect.
D) Low-dose anabolic-androgenic steroid use causes feminisation in men.
Q3) Which one of the following is considered a banned substance by WADA?
A) Caffeine
B) Alcohol
C) Pseudoephedrine
D) Diuretics
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Chapter 25: General Aspects of Neuropharmacology
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Q1) Sympathetic stimulation would result in which one of the following sets of responses?
A) Increased gastric juice secretion and increased heart rate
B) Sweating, urinary retention, salivation and pupil dilation
C) Increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, defecation and erection of genitalia
D) Slowed heart rate, increased blood pressure, pupil constriction and pallor
Q2) What effect does the parasympathetic system have on the heart?
A) Increases heart rate
B) Decreases heart rate
C) Causes vasodilation
D) Increases the force of the heart
Q3) The parasympathetic division is activated in an emergency or stressful situation. A)True B)False
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Chapter 26: Adrenergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following adverse events may occur with \(\alpha_{1}\) receptor stimulation?
A) Hypertension
B) Blurred vision
C) Constipation
D) All of the above
Q2) The second messenger system associated with \(\beta\) -adrenergic receptor stimulation involves the:
A) activation of inositol triphosphate production.
B) inhibition of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production.
C) inhibition of inositol triphosphate production.
D) activation of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production.
Q3) Which of the following adrenergic agonists stimulate both \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) receptors?
A) Noradrenaline
B) Adrenaline
C) Dopamine
D) Both A and B
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28
Chapter 27: Cholinergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Following the administration of muscarinic agonist eyedrops,the client should be instructed to:
A) lie down.
B) rinse the eye with saline solution.
C) perform eye muscle exercises.
D) avoid driving and working with dangerous tools.
Q2) Muscarinic antagonists have been used as:
A) antispasmodics.
B) antiulcerants.
C) antiemetics.
D) All of the above
Q3) A major advantage of the non-depolarising neuromuscular blockers over the depolarising neuromuscular blockers is that the effect is reversible.The reason for this is that the:
A) non-depolarising blockers are competitive antagonists at nicotinic receptors.
B) depolarising blockers act rapidly and usually have a prolonged action.
C) non-depolarising blockers act via histamine release.
D) action of depolarising blockers must be terminated by acetylcholinesterase.
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Chapter 28: An Introduction to Chemical Mediators
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Q1) Which of the following mediators is released directly into the bloodstream?
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Autacoids
D) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following mediators acts on a distant target?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Classic hormone
C) Local hormone
D) Autacoid
Q3) Mediators that induce their effect without entering the circulation are referred to as:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) autacoids.
D) second messengers.
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Chapter 29: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Q1) How many subtypes of H<sub>1</sub> receptors have been identified?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Q2) Which of the following mediators plays a role in modulating allergic reactions?
A) Serotonin
B) Histamine
C) Pepsin
D) None of the above
Q3) Which route of administration is preferred is hypovolaemic shock occurs?
A) Intravenous
B) Oral
C) Rectal
D) Transdermal
Q4) Antihistamines are used for the treatment of:
A) allergies.
B) anaphylactic reactions.
C) depression.
D) both A and B.
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Chapter 30: Prostaglandins and Serotonin
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Q1) Common eicosanoids include:
A) thromboxanes.
B) leukotrienes.
C) hydroperoxyeicosatrienoic acids.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Prostaglandin analogues have been used for:
A) termination of pregnancy.
B) glaucoma.
C) treatment of impotence.
D) all of the above.
Q3) 5-HT<sub>3</sub> receptor antagonists have been used for: A) nausea.
B) somnolence.
C) REMS sleep disorder.
D) GERD.
Q4) Drugs that inhibit the synaptic serotonin reuptake are used for: A) autism.
B) depression.
C) glaucoma.
D) termination of pregnancy.
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Chapter 31: Nitric Oxide and the Endothelins
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Q1) How many endothelin receptor subtypes have been identified?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q2) Nitric oxide is a highly stable gas used for the management of cyanide poisoning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Endothelin receptor antagonists can be used safely in pregnant patients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Endothelin receptor antagonists have been used for the treatment of:
A) pulmonary hypertension.
B) ischemic valve disease.
C) peripheral vascular disease.
D) none of the above.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: General concepts of Psychopharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) With which neurotransmitter system are NMDA receptors primarily associated?
A) Acetylcholine
B) Glutamate
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
Q2) The major inhibitory neurotransmitter is:
A) dopamine.
B) glutamate.
C) serotonin.
D) GABA.
Q3) The transmitter that is particularly associated with cognition,memory formation and skeletal muscle activation is:
A) dopamine.
B) noradrenaline.
C) acetylcholine.
D) serotonin.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Antipsychotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes extrapyramidal reactions associated with first-line antipsychotic therapy?
A) Lip smacking and rapid darting tongue movements
B) Facial grimacing, wry neck and limb spasticity
C) Tremor and rigidity
D) All of the above
Q2) Cholestatic jaundice can occur with which phenothiazine antipsychotic agent,therefore requiring cessation of the agent?
A) Fluphenazine
B) Pericyazine
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Pipothiazine
Q3) An example of a psychosis is:
A) schizophrenia.
B) depression.
C) anxiety.
D) panic disorder.
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Chapter 34: Anxiolytics and Hypnotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why hypnotic agents should not be used for long-term therapy.
Q2) Benzodiazepines can induce:
A) amnesia.
B) rage.
C) depression.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Which benzodiazepine agent would be considered suitable for a person who has problems with early morning awakening?
A) Triazolam
B) Diazepam
C) Temazepam
D) Flunitrazepam
Q4) Which of the following benzodiazepine agents would be suitable for a plane journey where the traveller is having trouble getting to sleep?
A) Clobazam
B) Diazepam
C) Triazolam
D) Nitrazepam
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Chapter 35: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilisers
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Sample Questions
Q1) The potential role of antiseizure drugs in the management of bipolar disorder is to:
A) elevate the synaptic levels of noradrenaline and serotonin.
B) antagonise the effects of GABA.
C) substitute for sodium ion in neuronal processes.
D) stabilise the erratic firing in pathways associated with mood.
Q2) Which of the following practices is NOT associated with rational prescribing of antidepressants?
A) The use of a combination of antidepressant agents is the best way of treating depression.
B) When changing antidepressant agents, the patient should have a 'washout' period.
C) If one antidepressant does not work at therapeutic doses, the patient should be changed to another antidepressant.
D) Significant antidepressant benefit is not apparent immediately upon starting treatment. The prescriber should wait three to four weeks before assessing the benefit.
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Chapter 36: Medicines Used in Neurodegenerative Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is not an appropriate clinical management activity in relation to tetrabenazine therapy for Huntington's disease?
A) The client should avoid drinking alcohol with tetrabenazine.
B) Therapy is stopped if dysphagia or choking occurs.
C) If depression occurs, the dose of tetrabenazine is reduced or treatment is stopped.
D) The dose of tetrabenazine is reduced gradually over two days to prevent rebound involuntary movements.
Q2) Neuroleptic drug-induced Parkinsonian symptoms are often treated with:
A) an antimuscarinic agent.
B) a serotonin receptor agonist.
C) an antiemetic agent.
D) an increase in neuroleptic dose.
Q3) Mr Penson was being treated with drugs for Parkinson's disease and noted an increase in his libido.What drug may have caused this?
A) The dopamine precursor, levodopa
B) The antimuscarinic, benzhexol
C) Amantadine
D) The MAO-B inhibitor, selegiline
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Chapter 37: Antiseizure Agents and Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antiseizure drugs requires visual fields to be tested before commencing therapy and at regular intervals during therapy?
A) Valproic acid
B) Phenytoin
C) Vigabatrin
D) Lamotrigine
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding status epilepticus is true?
A) This is the medical term given to a person with epilepsy.
B) In this form of epilepsy, the person is affected by a number of different seizure types.
C) In status epilepticus, there is no spontaneous recovery from a seizure.
D) This condition is commonly associated with client compliance with medication.
Q3) Which of the following antiseizure drugs may cause gingivitis and gingival hyperplasia,therefore necessitating the need for meticulous dental care?
A) Phenytoin
B) Carbamazepine
C) Ethosuximide
D) Vigabatrin
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Chapter 38: Central Nervous System Stimulants
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Q1) In order to promote maximum benefit for the treatment of narcolepsy,modafinil should be taken as a daily dose:
A) in the morning, or as two divided doses in the morning and at noon.
B) in the mid-afternoon.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
Q2) Behaviour associated with ADD in children includes:
A) forgetfulness.
B) daydreaming.
C) lack of interest.
D) all of the above.
Q3) 'Drug holidays' from dexamphetamine may be important to avoid: A) addiction.
B) growth retardation.
C) insomnia.
D) cognitive impairment.
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Chapter 39: Opioid Analgesics
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Q1) The opioid tramadol should be avoided in clients with:
A) epilepsy.
B) a heart condition.
C) asthma.
D) liver disease.
Q2) When administering tramadol,it should not be given with drugs that:
A) affect coagulation.
B) affect blood vessel vasculature.
C) are largely metabolised renally.
D) increase seizure tendencies.
Q3) The opioid receptors most involved in mediating analgesia are:
A) delta and epsilon.
B) kappa and delta.
C) mu and epsilon.
D) mu and kappa.
Q4) Which of the following pain medicines produce a constipating effect?
A) Pethidine
B) Aspirin
C) Morphine
D) Paracetamol
Page 41
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Sample Questions
Q1) NSAIDs may not be suitable for use in individuals with renal impairment because they:
A) increase sodium excretion.
B) increase body temperature.
C) reduce the glomerular filtration rate.
D) reduce pepsin levels in the stomach.
Q2) Which individuals may be more susceptible to paracetamol overdose? Why?
Q3) The combined use of salicylates and corticosteroids may lead to ________ and should therefore be avoided.
A) tinnitus
B) renal failure
C) peptic ulceration
D) liver failure
Q4) Extreme diligence should be exercised in administering the correct dose of paracetamol to children because overdose can lead to:
A) gastrointestinal bleeding.
B) renal failure.
C) inhibition of the hypothalamic control on temperature.
D) liver damage.
Q5) Describe the effects of prostaglandins on inflammation and pain.
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Chapter 41: Medicines Used to Treat Migraine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of ergotamine for migraine prophylaxis?
A) Caffeine enhances its absorption and onset of action.
B) No more than five doses should be taken in any one week.
C) Doses should be closely monitored due to the risk of rebound headaches and dependence.
D) All of the above.
Q2) Analgesic agents that are effective in treating mild to moderate acute migraine headaches include:
A) ibuprofen and indomethacin.
B) aspirin and paracetamol.
C) piroxicam and sulindac.
D) propranolol and ketamine.
Q3) Preventive therapies for migraine should be used for a period of:
A) three to six days.
B) three to six weeks.
C) three to six months.
D) six to twelve months.
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Chapter 42: General Anaesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear
C) Tachycardia
D) Intestinal obstruction
Q2) The rate of absorption of inhaled anaesthetic into the bloodstream is dependent on the ________ of the gas.
A) rate of osmosis
B) partial pressure
C) volume
D) surfactant levels
Q3) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect; this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.
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Chapter 43: Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine
Q2) Which of the following routes of administration has the highest rate of systemic absorption of local anaesthetic agents?
A) Epidural administration
B) Intercostal administration
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Brachial plexus administration
Q3) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) GABA
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Chapter 44: Medicines Used to Lower Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) When timing the dose for the fibrate gemfibrozil,the patient should be advised to take it:
A) at bedtime.
B) upon arising in the morning.
C) with food.
D) half an hour before food.
Q2) An unwelcome but possibly benign effect of nicotinic acid treatment is:
A) petechiae.
B) constipation.
C) loose stools.
D) skin flushes and itching.
Q3) Patients on atorvastatin should avoid ________ during therapy because it may increase the amount of atorvastatin in their circulation and therefore increase the chances of adverse effects occurring.
A) alcohol
B) milk
C) grapefruit juice
D) leafy green vegetables
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Chapter 45: Antihypertensive Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antihypertensive agents should be avoided in a person with depression?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Centrally acting agents
C) Angiotensin II antagonists
D) ACE inhibitors
Q2) Which antihypertensive drug group should be avoided when a person has a pre-existing respiratory condition such as asthma?
A) Diuretics
B) Calcium channel antagonists
C) ACE inhibitors
D) -blockers
Q3) A hormone that affects blood pressure by facilitating an increased excretion of sodium and water is:
A) aldosterone.
B) ADH (vasopressin).
C) ANF.
D) oestrogen.
Q4) Describe the method of action of ACE inhibitors.
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Chapter 46: Medicines Used to Promote Tissue Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nimodipine is a calcium channel blocker that:
A) is used widely in the management of angina.
B) is relatively selective for cerebral blood vessels.
C) increases cardiac workload.
D) is most beneficial when it is administered prophylactically.
Q2) In the treatment of erectile dysfunction,phosphodiesterase inhibitors:
A) act to trigger the release of nitric oxide.
B) are used when the cause is psychological.
C) may interact negatively with organic nitrate therapy.
D) must be administered directly into the penis.
Q3) The cardiac glycoside digoxin is also known as:
A) digitalis.
B) ACE.
C) carvedilol.
D) captopril.
Q4) Which two factors can be the root cause of angina pectoris?
A)Vasospasm and atherosclerotic plaque
B)Vasodilation and atherosclerotic plaque
C)Vasospasm and hypolipidaemia
D)Vasodilation and hypolipidaemia
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Antithrombotic, Fibrinolytic and Haemostatic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a tissue is injured,the process of clotting begins.Which statement is true about that process?
A)Thrombin forms prothrombin.
B)The process is dependent on intrinsic and extrinsic pathways.
C)Potassium ions play a crucial role in clotting.
D)Fibrin forms fibrinogen.
Q2) To reverse anticoagulation caused by heparin,________ is usually administered.
A) prostaglandin
B) warfarin
C) tranexamic acid
D) protamine
Q3) Which one of the following is an endogenous substance known to inhibit coagulation?
A) cAMP
B) Thromboxane A<sub>2</sub>
C) ADP
D) von Willebrand factor
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Diuretics and Other Renal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) To avoid ototoxicity,intravenous (IV)frusemide must be injected no faster than 4 mg/min.If the dose ordered is 20 mg IV,how quickly can it be administered?
A) Over at least 5 minutes
B) Over at least 4 minutes
C) Over at least 12 seconds
D) Over at least 10 minutes
Q2) The purpose of the nephron includes:
A)maintaining homeostasis.
B)eliminate waste.
C)forming filtrate.
D)all of the above.
Q3) The main site of action of the potassium-sparing diuretic spironolactone is the:
A) proximal convoluted tubule.
B) ascending limb of Henle.
C) distal convoluted tubule.
D) glomerulus.
Q4) Explain why acidification of urine might be undertaken in individuals with urinary tract infections or urinary catheters.
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Chapter 49: Topic: Medicines Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dopamine and dobutamine are examples of what class of cardiac drugs?
A)Inotropic agents
B)Cardiac glycosides
C)Inotropic antagonists
D)Angiotensin converting enzymes
Q2) The current optimal drug therapy in the management of heart failure is:
A) the cardiac glycoside digoxin.
B) the dopamine agonist dobutamine.
C) a non-selective \(\beta\)-blocker.
D) an ACE inhibitor and a diuretic.
Q3) To use ivabradine,the patient's heart rate must be at least ________ beats per minute.
A)50
B)60
C)70
D)80
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Chapter 50: Medicines Used to Treat Cardiac Dysrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug listed below is an example of a class III antidysrhythmic?
A)Dopamine
B)Amiodarone
C)Dobutamine
D)Atropine
Q2) Verapamil is a class IV antidysrhythmic agent.Verapamil belongs to what class of drug?
A)Calcium channel blockers
B)ACE inhibitors
C) -blockers
D)Inotropic agents
Q3) Class II antidysrhythmic drugs are also known as what?
A)Calcium channel blockers
B)ACE inhibiters
C)Beta blockers
D)Adrenergic agonists
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Chapter 51: Fluid and Potassium Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a potential treatment of severe hyperkalaemia?
A)Peritoneal dialysis
B)Intravenous frusemide
C)Oral ion exchange resin
D)Intravenous glucose with insulin given concurrently
Q2) Intravenous potassium should never be administered:
A) through a peripheral line.
B) through the subclavian vein.
C) as a bolus through the side arm of the intravenous line.
D) through the jugular vein.
Q3) Which patient would likely have the greatest amount of body fluid?
A)A middle-aged man
B)A teenage girl
C)A toddler
D)A premature infant
Q4) Mild hypokalaemia should be treated in what manner?
A)Dietary supplementation
B)Oral potassium supplementation
C)Slow-release oral potassium
D)Parenteral potassium
53
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Chapter 52: Antianaemic Agents
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Q1) Treatment with iron supplementation is usually continued for about ________ to ensure replenishment of iron stores in iron deficiency anaemia.
A) two weeks
B) one month
C) two months
D) three months
Q2) To reduce the gastric irritation associated with oral iron therapy,the person should be advised to take the preparation:
A) as a suppository.
B) with or immediately after meals.
C) at bedtime.
D) with an antacid.
Q3) The form of erythropoietin for clinical use:
A) may induce a hypertensive state during therapy.
B) is extracted from human urine.
C) induces a rise in haemoglobin levels within two days of starting therapy.
D) contains iron supplements in order to facilitate haemoglobin production.
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Chapter 53: Medicines Used to Maintain Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient would most likely need a respiratory surfactant?
A)A premature infant
B)An infant born at term
C)A toddler
D)A preschool age child
Q2) Which of the following actions will NOT reduce the effectiveness of acetylcysteine nebuliser solution used for the treatment of cystic fibrosis?
A) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and rubber
B) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and iron
C) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and copper
D) Diluting the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution with equal volumes of sodium chloride 0.9%
Q3) The extrinsic form of asthma is characterised by:
A) an autonomic nervous system imbalance.
B) a tendency to develop in older individuals.
C) the release of chemical mediators from immune cells in lung tissue.
D) the dominance of the parasympathetic stimulation of the airways.
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55
Chapter 54: Medicines for Upper Respiratory Tract
Conditions
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Q1) Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients taking:
A) antihistamines.
B) certain types of antidepressants.
C) antitussive agents.
D) salicylate preparations.
Q2) Which substances are responsible for the symptoms of upper respiratory illnesses?
A)Prostaglandins and mast cells
B)Prostaglandins and histamine
C)Antihistamines and mast cells
D)Antihistamines and leukotrienes
Q3) To which drug group do many cough suppressants belong?
A) NSAIDs
B) Narcotics
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Dopamine antagonists
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Chapter 55: Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) Once ingested,how does sucralfate work?
A) It neutralises stomach acid.
B) It slows gastric emptying.
C) It creates a paste-like substance to coat the gastric mucosa.
D) It affects the proton pump.
Q2) Ranitidine is an example of which class of medicines?
A) Proton pump inhibitor
B) H<sub>2</sub> antagonist
C) Antacid
D) Prostaglandin
Q3) An example of a proton pump inhibitor is:
A) misoprostol.
B) ranitidine.
C) astemizole.
D) omeprazole.
Q4) Antacids containing aluminium and divalent ions can be problematic because they:
A) make the gut too acidic.
B) are known to induce Alzheimer's disease.
C) interact with tetracycline antibiotics and inactivate them.
D) form a viscous jelly that can obstruct the gastrointestinal tract.
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Chapter 56: Lower Castrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peppermint oil may be useful in the treatment of:
A) gallstones.
B) irritable bowel syndrome.
C) haemorrhoids.
D) GORD.
Q2) Which of the following laxative groups is used for bowel preparation before a medical procedure?
A) Lubricants and stimulant laxatives
B) Faecal softeners and bulk-forming laxatives
C) Bulk-forming laxatives and lubricants
D) Irritant laxatives and selected osmotic laxatives
Q3) Use of which category of drugs would require concomitant treatment with laxatives or stool softeners?
A) Opioids
B) Oral hypoglycemics
C) Multivitamins without iron
D) NSAIDs
Q4) Outline the potential benefits of peppermint oil in the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome.
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Chapter 57: Antiemetic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some antiemetics can cause extrapyramidal side effects such as oculogyric crisis.Which of the following medications would best treat those side effects?
A) An antimuscarinic, benztropine
B) A benzodiazapine, diazepam
C) An antipsychotic, olanzapine
D) A hypnotic, midazolam
Q2) Which is the most effective drug in treating severe nausea associated with chemotherapy?
A) Ondansetron
B) Prochlorperazine
C) Domperidone
D) Cisapride
Q3) Which of the following antiemetics is a serotonin antagonist?
A) Dimenhydrinate
B) Metoclopramide
C) Ondansetron
D) Hyoscine
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Chapter 58: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following measures would not improve the management of diarrhoea during enteral feeding?
A) Select a feed with a high fat content.
B) Decrease the rate of feed.
C) Remove the feed from the refrigerator about half an hour before administration.
D) Administer an iso-osmolar feed rather than a hyperosmolar feed.
Q2) What is a suitable strategy to manage a large return of gastric aspirate in a person receiving nasogastric feeding?
A) Lower the head of the person's bed.
B) Use a hyperosmolar feed.
C) Select a feed with a higher fat content.
D) Decrease the rate of infusion.
Q3) What is a suitable strategy to manage a large return of gastric aspirate in a person receiving nasogastric feeding?
A) Lower the head of the person's bed.
B) Use a hyperosmolar feed.
C) Select a feed with a higher fat content.
D) Decrease the rate of infusion.
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Chapter 59: Medicines and the Pituitary Gland
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acromegaly is treated using:
A) lanreotide.
B) somatropin.
C) lisuride.
D) domperidone.
Q2) What is the indication for clomiphene?
A) Contraception
B) Ovulatory failure
C) Treatment of ovarian cancers
D) Treatment of growth disorders
Q3) The use of hCG in prepubertal boys can cause:
A) epilepsy.
B) stunted long bone growth.
C) fluid retention.
D) asthma.
Q4) Which of the following drugs stimulates gonadotrophin release?
A) The follitropins
B) Goserelin
C) Clomiphene
D) Tetracosactrin
Page 61
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Chapter 60: Medicines and the Thyroid
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinical effects of thionamides for hyperthyroid states do not become apparent until stores of thyroid hormones become depleted,which takes about ________ days after the start of therapy.
A) 2 to 3
B) 5 to 7
C) 7 to 14
D) 21 to 28
Q2) Radioactive iodide may be used to treat hyperthyroidism because it:
A) inhibits conversion of L-thyroxine to L-triiodothyronine.
B) reduces synthesis of thyroid hormones.
C) destroys functional thyroid tissue.
D) depletes thyroid hormone stores.
Q3) What purpose do \(\beta\)-blockers serve in treating thyroid disease?
A) They directly lower thyroid levels.
B) They are only used for well-controlled patients.
C) They are used to alleviate symptoms caused by adrenergic stimulation.
D) They have no clinical indication in treating thyroid disease.
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Chapter 61: Medicines and the Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another medication besides insulin that is injected for treatment of types 2 diabetes is from the group of:
A) thiazolidinediones.
B) biguanides.
C) sulfonylureas.
D) incretin-enhancing agents.
Q2) Which of the oral hypoglycaemic drug groups acts by inducing the release of endogenous insulin?
A) The thiazolidinediones
B) The glucosidase inhibitors
C) The sulfonylureas
D) The biguanides
Q3) In the treatment of type 2 diabetes,a sulfonylurea agent is administered with food to reduce the:
A) incidence of diarrhoea.
B) incidence of hypoglycaemia.
C) incidence of vomiting.
D) drug's metabolism.
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Chapter 62: Medicines Affecting the Adrenal Cortex
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Q1) A typical adverse effect profile of systemic corticosteroid therapy includes:
A) hyperkalaemia, gynaecomastia, skin rashes and menstrual disruption.
B) hot flushes, thromboembolism, leg cramps and gastrointestinal disturbances.
C) nausea, breast tenderness, hypotension and hypoglycaemia.
D) fluid retention, altered mood, altered blood pressure, hypokalaemia, hyperglycaemia and impaired wound healing.
Q2) Which one of the following effects is not associated with adrenocorticoid hormones?
A) An increase in blood glucose levels
B) Sodium and water retention
C) The enhancement of immune processes
D) The distribution of body hair
Q3) A specific immune-related effect associated with glucocorticoid action is:
A) destabilisation of T lymphocytes.
B) increased protein synthesis.
C) increase in neutrophil and macrophage response.
D) reduction in the size and substance of the lymph nodes and spleen.
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64
Chapter 63: Medicines and the Gonads
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Q1) Women treated with oestrogen-only preparations may be at an increased risk of developing:
A) colon cancer.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) osteoporosis.
D) breast cancer.
Q2) To ensure maximum efficacy for postcoital contraception,it needs to be administered within 12 hours of sexual intercourse.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The SERM tamoxifen is used in the treatment of:
A) menopausal symptoms.
B) osteoporosis.
C) enhanced healing after surgery.
D) breast cancer.
Q4) What is the efficacy rate for emergency contraception when used within 72 hours?
A) 70 per cent
B) 80 per cent
C) 90 per cent
D) 100 per cent
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Chapter 64: Medicines and Bone Metabolism
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Q1) Vitamin D deficiency may occur due to:
A) hypercalcaemia.
B) use of selective oestrogen receptor modulators.
C) inadequate sun exposure.
D) use of calcipotriol.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true about vitamin D?
A) Deficiency in the vitamin leads to an increase in bone mineralisation.
B) It is absorbed via the gastrointestinal system from vegetable products and some fish.
C) It is essential in the regulation of calcium and phosphorous in the body.
D) It can be made as long as the skin has enough exposure to UV rays.
Q3) Osteonecrosis of the jaw is a serious adverse effect of which drug class?
A) Bisphosphonates
B) Calcimimetic agents
C) Monoclonal antibodies
D) Calcitonin
Q4) Describe the role of parathyroid hormone with regards to regulation of blood calcium levels.
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Chapter 65: Hyperuricaemia and Gout
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Q1) Which of the following statements about uric acid is true?
A) It is a product of pyrimidine-based nucleic acid metabolism.
B) It tends to crystallise at relatively low physiological temperatures.
C) Hyperuricaemia always results in gout.
D) Uric acid is very water-soluble in kidney filtrate.
Q2) Which of the following tests is undertaken before using colchicine for gout prophylaxis?
A) A complete blood count
B) A liver function test
C) An electrocardiogram
D) An exercise tolerance test
Q3) Which one of the following drugs or drug groups acts to increase the excretion of uric acid?
A) The corticosteroids
B) Colchicine
C) Probenecid
D) Allopurinol
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Chapter 66: Obesity and Its Treatment
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Q1) Which of the following adverse effects would NOT be expected during treatment with a stimulant anorectic?
A) Bradycardia
B) Elevated blood pressure
C) Euphoria
D) Psychological dependence
Q2) For maximum benefit from the anorectic agent orlistat,the dose should be taken:
A) with three main meals daily.
B) with the morning meal.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
Q3) When food intake equals energy consumed by the body's cells,the person is said to be in:
A) a malnourished state.
B) an obese state.
C) energy balance.
D) a sedentary state.
Q4) Describe some nonpharmacological strategies for weight loss.
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Chapter 67: Introduction to Chemotherapy
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a likely cause of antimicrobial resistance?
A) Using narrow-spectrum antibiotics instead of broad-spectrum antibiotics
B) Excessive use of antibiotics in animals bred for human consumption
C) Failure to conform to the dosing regime
D) Spraying excess antibiotic in the air after drawing it up for injection
Q2) Which of the following antimicrobial agents has a dose-dependent activity on microorganisms?
A) The glycoprotein vancomycin
B) The glycoprotein teicoplanin
C) The penicillin amoxycillin
D) The aminoglycoside gentamicin
Q3) Which of the following antimicrobial agents inhibits DNA replication?
A) Linezolid
B) Mupirocin
C) Colistin
D) Norfloxacin
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Chapter 68: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Q1) What should a person be advised to do when taking sulfonamide therapy?
A) Ensure an adequate fluid intake.
B) Monitor folate status during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
C) Have a full blood examination during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
D) All of the above.
Q2) During treatment with selected sulfonamides,a client may experience diarrhoea.This usually indicates:
A) a change in the balance of gut flora.
B) gastrointestinal tract bleeding.
C) drug crystallisation.
D) an allergic reaction.
Q3) The actions of the sulfonamides and trimethoprim:
A) are considered bactericidal.
B) are identical, as they interrupt the process at the same point.
C) interfere with nucleic acid synthesis.
D) are not influenced by folic acid stores.
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Chapter 69: Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) What medication regimen is ineffective in treating microorganisms that are part of the ESCAAPPM group?
A) A carbapenem agent
B) A penicillin agent
C) An aminoglycoside agent
D) A fluoroquinolone agent
Q2) Which one of the following antibacterial drug groups acts by inhibiting microbial cell wall synthesis?
A) Quinolones
B) Macrolides
C) Nitroimidazoles
D) Glycopeptide antibacterials
Q3) The aminoglycosides are particularly toxic to what areas? Select all that apply.
A) Kidneys
B) Liver
C) Eighth cranial nerve
D) Neuromuscular junction
E) Temporal mandibular joint
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Chapter 70: Antituberculotic and Antileprotic Agents
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Q1) An unusual consequence of rifampicin antituberculotic therapy is that:
A) faeces turn black.
B) faeces turn white.
C) urine turns red.
D) urine turns bright yellow.
Q2) A typical drug combination in the first-line treatment of leprosy is:
A) thalidomide and ofloxacin.
B) minocycline and prednisolone.
C) clofazimine and cycloserine.
D) dapsone and rifampicin.
Q3) The 'cardinal signs' of Hansen's disease are: (Select all that apply)
A) positive skin smear.
B) skin lesions.
C) cough.
D) optic nerve damage.
E) peripheral nerve involvement.
Q4) Treatment for tuberculosis consists of a bactericidal phase and a sterilising phase.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 71: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) An example of an antiseptic is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
Q2) An example of a sterilant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) ethylene oxide.
D) penicillin.
Q3) Cetrimide inhibits bacterial growth because of its ________ properties.
A) detergent
B) oxidising
C) alkylating
D) reducing
Q4) An example of a disinfectant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
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Chapter 72: Antiparasitic Agents
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Q1) When using hydroxychloroquine as a preventive form of therapy for malaria,it is started:
A) one week before entering and continued for one week after leaving a malaria-affected area.
B) two weeks before entering and continued for two weeks after leaving a malaria-affected area.
C) three weeks before entering and continued for three weeks after leaving a malaria-affected area.
D) one week before entering and continued for four weeks after leaving a malaria-affected area.
Q2) Tapeworms are:
A) cestodes.
B) nematodes.
C) cathodes.
D) trematodes.
Q3) Which anthelmintic medication could also be classified as an antibiotic?
A) Ivermectin
B) Praziquantel
C) Tinidazole
D) Mefloquine
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Chapter 73: Antiviral Agents
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Q1) Viruses are best defined as:
A) infectious agents.
B) primitive bacteria.
C) microorganisms.
D) mycoplasma.
Q2) Which illnesses can be treated with acyclovir?
A) Herpes simplex I
B) Herpes zoster
C) Varicella
D) All of the above
Q3) The antiviral agents called neuraminidase inhibitors are useful in treating _________ infection.
A) HIV/AIDS
B) respiratory syncytial virus
C) herpes
D) influenza
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Chapter 74: Antifungal Agents
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Q1) ________,which occur in about one-third of individuals on voriconazole,should be regularly monitored.Which changes are reversible when voriconazole therapy is completed?
A) Hearing and vestibular changes
B) Vision changes
C) Muscle strength changes
D) Taste changes
Q2) Tinea barbae affects the:
A) nails.
B) beard.
C) groin.
D) head.
Q3) Which are qualities of subcutaneous mycoses? Select all that apply.
A) It is most common in northern countries.
B) It can be grossly disfiguring.
C) It involves skin, fascia and bone.
D) It is caused by dermatophytes.
E) Is commonly referred to as candidiasis.
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Chapter 75: Immunomodulating Agents
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Q1) Describe the difference between the terms vaccination and immunisation.
Q2) When administering non-human antisera to provide temporary immunity for viral or bacterial infection,make sure that ________ is available in case of anaphylaxis.
A) hydrocortisone
B) promethazine
C) noradrenaline
D) adrenaline
Q3) Which types of white blood cells are involved in allergic reactions? Select all that apply.
A) Monocytes
B) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
D) Neutrophils
Q4) A patient is admitted with a snake bite from an unknown species.Which antivenom would be most useful?
A) A bivalent preparation
B) A trivalent preparation
C) A polyvalent preparation
D) No treatment can be given without identifying the snake
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Chapter 76: Cytotoxic Chemotherapeutic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a cell cycle specific cytotoxic drug group?
A) Alkylating agents
B) Vinca alkaloids
C) Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone analogues
D) Cytotoxic antibiotics
Q2) Tretinoin is closely related to which vitamin?
A) Vitamin D
B) Vitamin K
C) Vitamin B
D) Vitamin A
Q3) All vinca alkaloids are administered:
A) orally.
B) intravenously.
C) intrathecally.
D) intramuscularly.
Q4) Which is NOT an expected adverse effect of cytotoxic agents?
A) Alopecia
B) Weight gain
C) Nausea
D) Mucositis
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Chapter 77: Medicines Used in Diseases of the Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dandruff can be caused in part by a fungal infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Children with eczema are more likely to develop:
A) skin cancer.
B) asthma.
C) verrucae.
D) alopecia.
Q3) For the treatment of scabies with crotamiton,application is required ________ until eradicated.
A) hourly
B) daily
C) twice weekly
D) weekly
Q4) Useful drugs in the management of baldness are those that:
A) act as oestrogen receptor antagonists.
B) stimulate the release of luteinising hormone.
C) inhibit the metabolism of testosterone.
D) have progestogenic activity.
Q5) Discuss the effects of UV rays on the skin.
Page 79
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Chapter 78: Medicines and the Eye
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Q1) Which eye preparation is used diagnostically?
A)Timolol
B)Fluorescein
C)Diclofenac
D)Fusidic acid
Q2) The first-choice treatment for glaucoma is:
A) miotics.
B) -blockers.
C) sympathomimetic agents.
D) diuretics
Q3) Which of the following is NOT appropriate advice to offer an individual receiving verteporfin treatment?
A) As verteporfin can cause blurring or black spots, driving a car or operating machinery should be avoided.
B) Avoid skin and eye exposure to sunlight and to bright indoor light for 48 hours after treatment.
C) Remain in a darkened room when staying indoors.
D) Wear protective clothing and sunglasses at all times when going outside.
Q4) Describe the pathophysiology of glaucoma.
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Chapter 79: Herbal Medicines
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Q1) Saw palmetto has been shown to be equivalent to which traditional medicine?
A) Finasteride
B) Oxybutynin
C) Tramadol
D) Metoclopramide
Q2) Which patient should avoid consuming therapeutic amounts of garlic?
A) Pregnant patients
B) Patients with untreated hyperglycaemia
C) Patients taking paracetamol
D) Patient with hypertension
Q3) St John's wort has proved to be effective,according to some studies,in the treatment of:
A) anxiety.
B) paranoia.
C) depression.
D) mania.
Q4) Echinacea consistently shows effectiveness in clinical trials.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List some Common herbal medicines that are unsafe for use in pregnancy.
Page 81
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