Pharmacy Practice in Rehabilitation Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Pharmacy Practice in Rehabilitation explores the vital role pharmacists play in interdisciplinary rehabilitation teams, focusing on the management of medications for individuals recovering from illness, injury, or surgery. This course covers pharmacotherapeutic considerations for common rehabilitation conditions, safe medication practices, and the prevention and identification of drug-related problems. Students will learn to optimize medication regimens, support patient adherence, and collaborate with healthcare professionals to enhance functional outcomes and quality of life for rehabilitation patients.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology in Rehabilitation 5th Edition by Charles
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37 Chapters
343 Verified Questions
343 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1007
D. Ciccone
Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Principles of Pharmacology
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19949
Sample Questions
Q1) When two drugs are compared,the drug that requires a lower dosage to produce the same effect as a higher dose of the second drug is said to A) be more potent
B) be impotent
C) have a great maximal efficacy
D) have a greater therapeutic index
E) be pharmacosuperior
Answer: A
Q2) The generic form of a drug is considered to be as safe and effective as the original,brand-name product if the generic form _________ as the brand-name drug. A) has the same type and amount of the active ingredient(s)
B) uses the same administration route
C) has the same pharmacokinetic profile (drug absorption, plasma levels, and so forth)
D) produces the same therapeutic effects
E) all the above are true
Answer: E
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3
Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics IDrug
Administration,Absorption,and Distribution
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19950
Sample Questions
Q1) The primary site for drug storage in the body is
A) muscle
B) bone
C) skin
D) adipose tissue
E) the brain
Answer: D
Q2) A drug that has a volume of distribution of approximately 42 L will typically be
A) bound extensively to plasma proteins
B) retained in the bloodstream
C) concentrated in the tissues
D) stored in the liver and kidneys
E) distributed uniformly throughout all of the body fluids
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics II: Drug Elimination
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19951
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs and their metabolites are excreted from the body primarily by A) the liver
B) the kidneys
C) the lungs
D) skeletal muscle
E) adipose tissue
Answer: B
Q2) The process of breaking the original drug compound into separate parts is known as A) oxidation
B) reduction
C) conjugation
D) hydrolysis
E) biodestruction
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Drug Receptors
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19952
Sample Questions
Q1) A noncompetitive antagonist
A) has a more or less equal opportunity to occupy the receptor as the agonist
B) forms rather weak bonds with the receptor
C) produces inhibition that can be overcome by administering high concentrations of the agonist
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) A drug that binds to a receptor and directly initiates a change in the function of the cell is referred to as
A) an agonist
B) an antagonist
C) a synergist
D) a compliment
Q3) A drug that fails to evoke a maximal response even though it occupies all available receptors is known as
A) a competitive antagonist
B) a noncompetitive antagonist
C) a partial agonist
D) a competitive agonist
E) an inverse antagonist
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Chapter 5: General Principles of Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19953
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that must cross the blood brain barrier and enter the brain to exert therapeutic effects will be clinically useful if
A) they are lipophilic
B) they are hydrophilic but are able to enter the brain by active transport or facilitated diffusion
C) they are not subject to active transport enzymes (efflux pumps) that move the drug out of the brain and back into the systemic circulation
D) all the above
E) none of the above
Q2) Certain drugs are not able to pass from the bloodstream into the CNS because of the unique structure and function of the CNS capillaries,known commonly as the
A) blood-brain barrier
B) circle of Willis
C) glomerulus
D) septum pellucidum
E) corpus callosum
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Chapter 6: Sedative Hypnotic and Anti-anxiety Agents
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19954
Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to traditional sedatives like the benzodiazepines (e.g.,diazepam [Valium]),all of the following drug strategies can produce sedation EXCEPT
A) antihistamines
B) amphetamines
C) certain antidepressants
D) certain antipsychotics
E) opioids
Q2) Diazepam (Valium)and other benzodiazepines bind to specific GABA receptors in the CNS,and inhibit neuronal activity by _____ the conductance of ______ ions into the neuron.
A) increasing; sodium
B) decreasing; sodium
C) increasing; potassium
D) decreasing; potassium
E) increasing; chloride
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8
Chapter 7: Drugs to Treat Affective Disorders Depression and Bipolar Syndrome
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19955
Sample Questions
Q1) According to the neurogenesis basis for depression,antidepressant drugs may increase the CNS production of ____,thereby leading to increased synaptic connections in the _____.
A) dopamine; basal ganglia
B) dopamine; hippocampus
C) brain-derived neurotrophic factor; basal ganglia
D) brain-derived neurotrophic factor; hippocampus
E) acetylcholine; cerebellum
Q2) Tricyclic antidepressants work by ______ the reuptake of ______ into the presynaptic terminal of certain CNS neurons.
A) increasing; amine neurotransmitters
B) inhibiting; amine neurotransmitters
C) increasing; amino acids
D) inhibiting; amino acids
E) increasing; acetylcholine
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Chapter 8: Antipsychotic Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19956
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following motor side effects are associated with antipsychotic drugs EXCEPT
A) spasticity
B) tardive dyskinesia
C) pseudoparkinsonism
D) akathisia
E) dystonias
Q2) In addition to their ability to affect dopamine receptors,newer "atypical" antipsychotics also exhibit strong ability to ____ certain CNS _____ receptors.
A) block; serotonin
B) stimulate; serotonin
C) block; norepinephrine
D) stimulate; norepinephrine
E) block; dopamine
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10
Chapter 9: Antiepileptic Drugs
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19957
Sample Questions
Q1) It appears that antiseizure medications can be successfully discontinued in a large percentage of people with seizure disorders,especially if these patients
A) have been free of seizures for at least 2 years while on medications
B) have a normal neurologic examination prior to withdrawal
C) were relatively young when the seizures started
D) all the above are true
E) antiseizure drugs can never be discontinued under any circumstances
Q2) Benzodiazepines such as clonazepam (Klonopin)are effective in controlling certain seizures because they increase the inhibitory effects of ______ in the CNS.
A) norepinephrine
B) acetylcholine
C) serotonin
D) dopamine
E) gamma amino-butyric acid (GABA)
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11
Chapter 10: Pharmacologic Management of Parkinson Disease
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19958
Sample Questions
Q1) Levodopa administration can help resolve the symptoms of Parkinson disease,but this drug can also cause
A) gastrointestinal problems
B) cardiac arrhythmias
C) postural hypotension
D) dyskinesias
E) all the above are true
Q2) Drugs such as selegiline (Eldepryl)and rasagiline (Azilect)that inhibit the monoamine oxidase type B (MAOB)enzyme may be helpful in Parkinson disease because
A) they increase dopamine absorption from the GI tract
B) they increase the conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the bloodstream
C) they decrease the movement of levodopa across the blood-brain barrier
D) they decrease the breakdown of dopamine in the brain
E) they increase the breakdown of acetylcholine in the brain
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Chapter 11: General Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19959
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about general anesthesia is (are)true?
A) Certain general anesthetics such as propofol can be used to sedate patients in the intensive care unit who are mechanically ventilated
B) most modern anesthetics seems to act on CNS neurons by binding to a specific receptor on that neuron
C) IV and inhaled agents can be used in various combinations to provide "balanced anesthesia" throughout surgery.
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Which of the following general anesthetics is typically administered by inhalation?
A) barbiturate drugs such as thiopental, thiamylal
B) volatile liquids such as desflurane, enflurane,
C) benzodiazepines such as diazepam, lorazepam, and midazolam
D) opioid analgesics such as fentanyl, morphine, and meperidine
E) ketamine
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Chapter 12: Local Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Absorption of local anesthetics into the system circulation is dangerous because these drugs can
A) decrease the force of cardiac contraction
B) cause bradycardia
C) inhibit respiratory control centers in the CNS
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Differential nerve block occurs because small diameter,unmyelinated neurons that convey _______ are the most sensitive to local anesthetics.
A) pain
B) temperature
C) touch
D) proprioception
E) motor impulses
Q3) Local anesthetics can be administered via all of the following routes EXCEPT
A) transdermally
B) subcutaneous infiltration
C) direct injection into the epidural space
D) direct injection into the third ventricle of the brain
E) direct injection into the subarachnoid space
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Chapter 13: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19961
Sample Questions
Q1) The muscle relaxant that directly inhibits acetylcholine release from presynaptic terminals at the skeletal neuromuscular junction is
A) baclofen
B) botulinum toxin
C) dantrolene sodium
D) tizanidine
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Long term use of diazepam (Valium)as a muscle relaxant is often limited due to problems with
A) sedation
B) tolerance
C) physical dependence
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Botulinum toxin is used to treat spasticity by injecting this drug
A) intravenously
B) intrathecally
C) subcutaneously
D) directly into the spastic muscle
E) none of the above are true; botulinum toxin is not used to treat spasticity
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Chapter 14: Opioid Analgesics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19962
Sample Questions
Q1) Certain patients can develop "tolerance" to opioid analgesics,which is indicated by
A) the onset of withdrawal symptoms if the drug is suddenly discontinued
B) the fact that the patient may still crave the drug several years after he/she has ceased taking it
C) the need to progressively increase the dosage of the drug to achieve a therapeutic effect when the drug is used for prolonged periods
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) When used to treat pain,opioids can be administered by all of the following routes
EXCEPT
A) inhalation
B) intravenously
C) intrathecally
D) transdermally
E) orally
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Chapter 15: Non-steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19963
Sample Questions
Q1) NSAIDs exert their therapeutic effects by _____ the ______ enzyme.
A) inhibiting; cyclooxygenase
B) stimulating; cyclooxygenase
C) inhibiting; acetylcholinesterase
D) stimulating; acetylcholinesterase
E) inhibiting; monoamine oxidase type A
Q2) Gastric irritation caused by aspirin and other NSAIDs can be treated with A) drugs that mimic prostaglandins (PGs) such as PGE1 (e.g., misoprostol [Cytotec])
B) gastric proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) such as omeprazole (Prilosec) and esomeprazole (Nexium)
C) histamine type 2 (H2) blockers such as cimetidine (Tagamet) and ranitidine (Zantac)
D) all the above
E) none of the above
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Chapter 16: Pharmacologic Management of Rheumatoid
Arthritis and Osteoarthritis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19964
Sample Questions
Q1) Because of its ability to decrease pain with minimal side effects such as gastric irritation,________ is often considered the drug of choice in mild-to-moderate osteoarthritis.
A) aspirin
B) acetaminophen
C) prednisone
D) cortisone
E) methotrexate
Q2) When treating an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis in a specific joint,anti-inflammatory steroids (glucocorticoids)can be injected directly into the joint,but the number of injections should be limited to _____ per year.
A) 2-3
B) 5-6
C) 8-10
D) 12-15
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18
Chapter 17: Patient Controlled Analgesia
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient controlled epidural analgesia (PCEI)is achieved by administering drugs directly into the
A) superior vena cava
B) right atrium of the heart
C) third ventricle of the brain
D) subarachnoid space
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Patient-controlled analgesia can be administered via all of the following routes EXCEPT
A) transdermal
B) epidural
C) inhalation
D) administration into a peripheral vein
E) administration into a central vein
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Autonomic Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19966
Sample Questions
Q1) All preganglionic neurons and parasympathetic postganglionic neurons are said to be _____ in nature because of the presence of ______ at their respective synapses.
A) adrenergic; norepinephrine
B) cholinergic; norepinephrine
C) adrenergic; acetylcholine
D) cholinergic; acetylcholine
E) adrenergic; epinephrine
Q2) In most peripheral tissues,sympathetic postganglionic neurons release ____ that binds directly to ____ receptors.
A) epinephrine; adrenergic
B) epinephrine; cholinergic
C) norepinephrine; adrenergic
D) norepinephrine; cholinergic
E) acetylcholine; adrenergic
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Chapter 19: Cholinergic Drugs
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19967
Sample Questions
Q1) Because Alzheimer disease is associated with loss of cortical neurons that release acetylcholine,_____ may be helpful in improving cognition and memory during the early stages of this disease.
A) direct cholinergic stimulants
B) indirect cholinergic stimulants
C) direct adrenergic stimulants
D) indirect adrenergic stimulants
E) there are no drugs that are useful during any stage of Alzheimer disease
Q2) Indirect-acting cholinergic stimulants increase activity at cholinergic synapses by inhibiting the _______ enzyme
A) monoamine oxidase type A
B) monoamine oxidase type B
C) acetylcholinesterase
D) choline acetyltransferase
E) dopa decarboxylase
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21
Chapter 20: Adrenergic Drugs
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bronchospasm associated with respiratory ailments such as asthma,bronchitis,and emphysema is often treated with
A) beta-1 adrenergic agonists
B) beta-1 adrenergic antagonists (blockers)
C) beta-2 adrenergic agonists
D) beta-2 adrenergic antagonists (blockers)
E) alpha-1 adrenergic agonists
Q2) Adrenergic antagonists that are selective for the beta-1 subtype (i.e.,beta-1 blockers)can be useful in the treatment of
A) high blood pressure
B) heart failure
C) certain cardiac arrhythmias
D) recovery from myocardial infarction
E) all the above are true
Q3) A drug that selectively stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors will cause
A) vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles
B) increased heart rate
C) decreased blood pressure
D) bronchodilation
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Chapter 21: Antihypertensive Drugs
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19969
Sample Questions
Q1) Nonselective beta blockers may produce bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma and similar respiratory disorders because nonselective beta blockers
A) stimulate beta-1 receptors on the lungs
B) block beta-1 receptors on the lungs
C) stimulate beta-2 receptors on the lungs
D) block beta-2 receptors on the lungs
E) stimulate alpha-1 receptors on the lungs
Q2) Abnormally high activity in the renin-angiotensin system should be controlled pharmacologically because increased production of ____ causes ____.
A) angiotensin I; cardiac arrhythmias
B) angiotensin II; vascular smooth muscle hypertrophy
C) angiotensin I; angina pectoris
D) angiotensin II; cardiac arrhythmias
E) angiotensin I; vascular smooth muscle atrophy
Q3) Beta blockers are said to be cardioselective if they bind preferentially to
A) beta-1 receptors
B) beta-2 receptors
C) beta-3 receptors
D) all the above are true
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Treatment of Angina Pectoris
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aspirin and other antiplatelet drugs are often administered to people with angina pectoris to
A) prevent headache
B) decrease myocardial oxygen demand
C) prevent coronary artery infarction
D) all the above are true
Q2) Beta blockers help prevent angina pectoris in certain patients because these drugs
A) decrease myocardial oxygen demand
B) increase myocardial oxygen supply
C) decrease oxygen demand in peripheral tissues (skeletal muscle)
D) increase cardiac output
E) decrease blood flow to the heart
Q3) Variant angina that is caused by coronary artery vasospasm (known also Prinzmetal's ischemia)is best treated with
A) nitrates such as nitroglycerin
B) beta blockers
C) calcium channel blockers
D) alpha-1 agonists
E) alpha-2 antagonists
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Treatment of Cardiac Arrhythmias
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7 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drug categories is NOT used to treat cardiac arrhythmias?
A) sodium channel blockers
B) chloride channel blockers
C) beta blockers
D) calcium channel blockers
E) drugs that prolong cardiac repolarization
Q2) Depending on the dose and route of administration,lidocaine and similar drugs can be used as local anesthetics or cardiac antiarrhythmic drugs because these drugs affect the excitability of _____ ion channels.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) chloride
D) calcium
E) magnesium
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25
Chapter 24: Treatment of Congestive Heart Failure
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11 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Angiotensin enzyme (ACE)inhibitors are often essential in treating heart failure because ACE inhibitors
A) stimulate renin production from the kidneys
B) increase heart rate
C) prevent the detrimental effects of epinephrine on the failing heart
D) may increase life expectancy in people with heart failure
E) all the above are true
Q2) In people with heart failure,the best drugs for reducing excessive sympathetic stimulation of the failing heart are
A) alpha blockers
B) beta blockers
C) angiotensin II receptor blockers
D) calcium channel blockers
E) diuretics
Q3) The primary cardiac problem in digitalis toxicity is
A) decreased coronary blood flow
B) increased coronary oxygen demand
C) decreased cardiac intracellular sodium concentration.
D) arrhythmia
E) isolated systolic hypotension
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Coagulation Disorders and Hyperlipidemia
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral anticoagulants such as warfarin (Coumadin)decrease the production of several clotting factors in the liver by interfering with the regeneration of
A) tissue thromboplastin
B) tissue plasminogen activator
C) vitamin K
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin C
Q2) In a patient with acute deep vein thrombosis (DVT),anticoagulant therapy is typically initiated with _____ to achieve rapid control of clotting,and then switched over to _____ for long-term management or prevention of DVT.
A) heparin; oral anticoagulants
B) oral anticoagulants; thrombin
C) thrombin; tissue plasminogen activator
D) tissue plasminogen activator; fibrinolysis inhibitors
E) oral anticoagulants; heparin
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Newer "second-generation" antihistamines such as cetirizine (Zyrtec)and desloratidine (Clarinex)may be preferred to traditional antihistamines because these newer drugs
A) cross the blood brain barrier more easily than traditional drugs
B) produce less gastric irritation than traditional drugs
C) bind to more subtypes of histamine receptors (i.e., newer drugs are less selective for the H1 receptor subtype)
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Drugs that antagonize (block)the H1 subtype of histamine receptors
A) are effective in treating gastric ulcers
B) are effective in treating sedation
C) are known as antihistamines
D) all the above are true
E) A and B only are true
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Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged or excessive use of antacids should be avoided because
A) these drugs can alter the metabolism of other drugs that rely on gastric acidity to activate the drug
B) these drugs can affect the elimination of other drugs by altering urinary pH
C) these drugs can cause other GI problems such as constipation or diarrhea
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) In many people with gastric ulcers,antibacterial drugs are often combined with proton pump inhibitors to help eliminate ________ infection as a potentiating factor in ulcer formation.
A) h. pylori
B) streptococcal
C) e. coli
D) girardia
E) p. aeruginosa
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Endocrine Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-inflammatory steroids (glucocorticoids)produced by the adrenal cortex are under the control of ____ from the hypothalamus which stimulates ______release from the anterior pituitary.
A) corticotropin-releasing hormone; adrenocorticotropic hormone
B) adrenocorticotropic hormone; corticotropin-releasing hormone
C) follicle stimulating hormone; luteinizing hormone
D) luteinizing hormone; follicle stimulating hormone
E) thyrotropin releasing hormone; growth hormone
Q2) Steroid hormones share a common chemical framework that is derived from
A) proteins such as insulin
B) insulin-like growth factor
C) carbohydrates such as glucose
D) glycogen
E) lipids such as cholesterol
Q3) All of the following hormones are released from the anterior pituitary EXCEPT
A) growth hormone
B) luteinizing hormone
C) follicle stimulating hormone
D) antidiuretic hormone
E) prolactin
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Chapter 29: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mineralocorticoid antagonists such as spironolactone and eplerenone are used primarily
A) as diuretics in treating hypertension and heart failure.
B) as anti-inflammatory agents in treating rheumatoid arthritis
C) as immunosuppressants in treating rheumatoid arthritis
D) as replacement therapy for people with adrenocortical insufficiency (Addison disease)
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Glucocorticoids should be withdrawn slowly after several weeks or months of use,because the ______ needs time to resume normal function when these drugs are discontinued.
A) liver
B) kidneys
C) adrenal gland
D) thyroid gland
E) pancreas
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Chapter 30: Male and Female Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that block progesterone receptors (i.e.,antiprogestins)such as mifepristone can be used clinically to
A) terminate pregnancy during the early stages of gestation
B) decrease pain and bleeding caused by benign uterine fibroid growths (leiomyomas, endometriois)
C) prevent hyperglycemia caused by excess cortisol production in Cushing syndrome
D) all the above
E) A and B only
Q2) Physiologic doses of testosterone can be used therapeutically to treat all of the following conditions EXCEPT
A) delayed puberty in boys
B) hereditary angioedema
C) anemia
D) prostate cancer
E) conditions in which there is substantial muscle catabolism and protein loss
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Parathyroid Drugs: Agents
Affecting Bone Mineralization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Small amounts of _____ must be ingested in the diet so that the thyroid gland can synthesize thyroid hormones.
A) riboflavin
B) selenium
C) iodine
D) manganese
E) magnesium
Q2) Calcimimetics like cinacalcet (Sensipar)that mimic the effects of endogenous calcium can help ____ parathyroid hormone (PTH)release,thus helping to ____ excessive bone breakdown in people with parathyroid tumors or other conditions that cause parathyroid hyperactivity.
A) increase; increase
B) increase; decrease
C) decrease; decrease
D) decrease; increase
E) none of the above; calcium and calcimimetic drugs do not affect the release or effects of PTH
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Chapter 32: Pancreatic Hormones and the Treatment of
Diabetes Mellitus
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19980
Sample Questions
Q1) At the present time,insulin must be administered by parenteral (non-oral)routes because
A) insulin will irritate the stomach
B) insulin will be destroyed during "first-pass" metabolism in the liver
C) the insulin molecule is too large to be absorbed through the gastrointestinal wall
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) People who are on insulin therapy for diabetes mellitus are more at risk for hypoglycemia if
A) they administer too much insulin
B) they skip a meal
C) they exercise too strenuously
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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34
Chapter 33: Treatment of Infections I: Antibacterial Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19981
Sample Questions
Q1) Tendon pain and inflammation (tendinopathy)that can be severe and ultimately lead to tendon rupture may be caused by
A) penicillins
B) tetracyclines
C) vancomycin
D) aminoglycosides such as gentamicin and streptomycin
E) fluoroquinolones such as ofloxacin
Q2) Rehabilitation interventions that use ultraviolet irradiation (UV light)should be used cautiously in people taking antibacterial drugs because antibacterial drugs may cause
A) pulmonary edema
B) photosensitivity
C) renal failure
D) tendinopathy
E) rhabdomyolisis
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35
Chapter 34: Treatment of Infections II: Antiviral Drugs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19982
Sample Questions
Q1) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors such as zidovudine,didanosine,and lamivudine are especially important for physical therapists because they may cause side effects such as
A) peripheral neuropathy
B) myopathy
C) joint pain
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) An antiviral vaccine is typically created by
A) combining several antiviral drugs in the same pill
B) administering a single, strong antiviral drug just after to the onset of infection
C) administering a single, strong antiviral drug at the peak of the viral infection
D) administering drugs that suppress the immune response to viral infection
E) none of the above are true
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36
Chapter 35: Treatment of Infections III: Antifungal and Antiparasitic Drugs
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19983
Sample Questions
Q1) Tapeworms (cestodes),roundworms (nematodes),and flukes (trematodes)are treated with
A) antifungal drugs
B) antiprotozoal drugs
C) anthelmintic drugs
D) antibacterial drugs
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Although several different drugs are available to treat malaria,many of these drugs are ineffective in certain parts of the world because
A) malaria is difficult to diagnose accurately
B) the organism that causes malaria has become resistant to these drugs
C) antimalarial drugs must all be given by continuous intravenous infusion
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q3) Severe,systemic fungal infections are more likely if
A) patients are taking systemic doses of glucocorticoids
B) patients are taking systemic doses of other antibiotics
C) patients have AIDS
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Cancer Chemotherapy
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19984
Sample Questions
Q1) Most anticancer drugs exert severe and potentially toxic side effects because A) these drugs have a high therapeutic index (TI)
B) most of these drugs are not approved by the FDA
C) most of these drugs do not discriminate between healthy tissues and cancerous cells
D) these drugs all have extremely long half-lives, and tend to accumulate in the body for an extended period of time
E) the threshold dose of these drugs is typically much higher than other drugs
Q2) A relatively new strategy for treating certain tumors is to prevent the formation of new blood vessels,thus impairing tumor growth by starving the tumor of oxygen and nutrients.Drugs that use this strategy are known as
A) topoisomerase inhibitors
B) angiogenesis inhibitors
C) aromatase inhibitors
D) antimetabolites
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 37: Immunomodulating Agents
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19985
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that block the interleukin-2 receptor (e.g.,basiliximab [Simulect],daclizumab [Zenapax])and prevent interleukin-2 from activating T lymphocytes can be especially helpful in
A) reducing the progression of HIV infection to AIDS
B) reducing the incidence of acute organ transplant rejection
C) treating antibacterial drug resistance
D) treating antiviral drug resistance
E) reversing resistance to cancer chemotherapeutic drugs
Q2) All of the following drugs can be used to suppress the immune system EXCEPT
A) azathioprine
B) cyclophosphamide
C) cyclosporine
D) immunoglobulin G
E) methotrexate
Q3) Drugs are used to suppress the immune system
A) to prevent rejection of transplanted organs or tissues
B) to limit immune-mediated damage to the body's tissues
C) to treat autoimmune diseases
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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